Cellular Regulation/Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Growth that causes tissue to increase in size by enlarging each cell

A

Hypertrophy

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2
Q

Growth that causes tissue to increase in size by increasing the number of cells

A

Hyperplasia

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3
Q

Any new or continued cell growth not needed for normal development or replacement of dead and damaged tissues

A

Neoplasia

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4
Q

The feature in which each normal cell type has a distinct and recognizable appearance, size, and shape

A

Specific Morphology

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5
Q

The nucleus of a normal cell does not take up much space inside the cell

A

Smaller nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio

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6
Q

Every normal cell has at least one function it performs to contribute to whole-body function

A

Differentiated function

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7
Q

Normal cells make proteins that protrude from membranes, allowing cells to bind closely and tightly together

A

Tight adherence

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8
Q

Normal cells that do not wander throughout the body except for blood cells

A

Nonmigratory

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9
Q

Proteins that promote cell division

A

Cyclin

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10
Q

Proteins that limit cell division

A

Suppressor gene products

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11
Q

A balance between cycling and suppressor gene products

A

Cellular regulation

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12
Q

The cell is getting ready for division by taking extra nutrients, making more energy, and growing extra membrane

A

G1 phase

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13
Q

The cell doubles its DNA content through DNA synthesis

A

S phase

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14
Q

The cell makes important proteins that will be used in actual cell division and in normal physiologic function after cell division is complete

A

G2 phase

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15
Q

The single cell splits apart into two cells. Mitosis

A

M phase

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16
Q

Stops further rounds of division when the dividing cell is completely surrounded and touched (contacted) by other cells

A

Contact inhibition

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17
Q

Programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

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18
Q

Normal chromosomes in normal cells (23 chromosomes)

A

Euploidy

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19
Q

Normal cells growing in n the wrong place or at the wrong time as a result of a small problem with cellular regulation

A

Benign tumor cells

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20
Q

What kind of cell has these characteristics?

  • none or slow cell division
  • specific morphological features
  • smaller nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio
  • many differentiated functions
  • tight adherence
  • nonmigratory
  • well regulated growth
  • diploid chromosomes
  • low mitotic index
A

Normal cell

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21
Q

What kind of cell has these characteristics?

  • continuous or inappropriate cell division
  • specific morphology features
  • small nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio
  • many differentiated functions
  • tight adherence
  • nonmigratory
  • expansive growth
  • diploid chromosomes
  • low mitotic index
A

Benign tumor cell

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22
Q

What kind of cell has these characteristics?

  • rapid or continuous cell division
  • anaplastic appearance
  • larger nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio
  • some or none differentiated functions
  • loose adherence
  • migratory
  • invasion growth
  • aneuploid chromosomes
  • high mitotic index
A

Malignant cell

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23
Q

Cancer cells loss of specific appearance of their parent cells

A

Anaplasia

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24
Q

Abnormal chromosomes

A

Aneuploidy

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25
Q

Cancer development

A

Carcinogenesis/oncogenesis

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26
Q

The first step in carcinogenesis

A

Initiation

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27
Q

If conditions are right how many cancer cells does it take for a widespread metastatic disease to develop?

A

1

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28
Q

Substances that change the activity of a cell’s gene so that the cell becomes a cancer cell

A

Carcinogens

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29
Q

The enhanced growth of an initiated cell

A

Promotion

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30
Q

Substances that enhance growth of an initiated cell

A

Promoters

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31
Q

The time between a cell’s initiation and the development of an overt tumor

A

Latency period

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32
Q

The continued change of a cancer, making it more malignant over time

A

Progression

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33
Q

When cancer cells move from the primary location by breaking off from the original group and establishing remote colonies

A

Metastasis

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34
Q

Additional tumors

A

Secondary tumors

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35
Q

If breast cancer spreads to the lung and the bone, what is it called?

A

Breast cancer

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36
Q

The most common type of cancer spread travels to distant organs and tissues, requires cancer cells to penetrate blood vessels

A

Bloodborne metastasis

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37
Q

Classifies cellular aspects of the cancer

A

Grading

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38
Q

Classifies tumor chromosomes as normal or abnormal

A

Policy

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39
Q

Classifies clinical aspects of the cancer

A

Staging

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40
Q

Assess the patient’s clinical manifestations and evaluates them for tumor size and possible spread

A

Clinical staging

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41
Q

Assess the tumor size, number, sites, and spread by inspection at surgery

A

Surgical staging

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42
Q

The most definite type, determining the tumor size, number, sites, and spread by inspection at surgery

A

Pathologic staging

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43
Q

This system is used to describe the anatomical extent of cancers

A

Tumor, node, metastasis (TNM)

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44
Q

The main mechanism of carcinogenesis regardless of the specific cause

A

Oncogene activation

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45
Q

When do oncogenes become a problem?

A

When they are overly expressed as a result of exposure to carcinogenic agents or events with loss of cellular regulation

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46
Q

Give an example of co-carcinogens

A

Tobacco and alcohol

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47
Q

Where do cancer cells normally arise?

A

Bone marrow, skin, lining of GI tract, ducal cells of the breast, and lining of lungs

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48
Q

Where does cancer usually not arise?

A

Nerve tissue, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle. Places where cell division does not normally occur

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49
Q

Example of physical carcinogenesis

A

Radiation and chronic irritation

50
Q

When viruses infect body cells and break DNA strands

A

Viral Carcinogenesis

51
Q

Viruses that cause cancer

A

Oncoviruses

52
Q

Suspected dietary factors of cancer

A

High intake of red meat or animal fat, low fiber intake, preservatives, preparation methods, and additives

53
Q

Personal factors that promote cancer development

A

Immune function, age, and genetic risk

54
Q

The use of strategies to prevent the actual occurrence of cancer

A

Primary prevention

55
Q

The use of screening strategies to detect cancer early, at a time when cure or control is more likely

A

Secondary prevention

56
Q

A strategy that uses drugs, chemicals, natural nutrients, or other substances to disrupt one or more steps important to cancer development

A

Chemoprevention

57
Q

A new method of primary cancer prevention

A

Vaccination

58
Q

Extreme body wasting and malnutrition

A

Cache is

59
Q

Removes “at-risk” tissue to prevent cancer development

A

Prophylactic surgery

60
Q

The removal of all or part of a suspected lesion for examination and testing

A

Diagnostic surgery (biopsy)

61
Q

Removes all cancer tissue

A

Curative surgery

62
Q

Removes part of but not the entire tumor

A

Cancer control/ cytoreductive surgery

63
Q

Focuses on improving the quality of life during the survival time, not on cure

A

Palliative surgery

64
Q

A repeat examination after treatment to assess the disease status in patients who have been treated and have no symptoms of remaining tumor

A

Second-look surgery

65
Q

Surgery that increases function, enhances appearance or both

A

Reconstructive or rehabilitative surgery

66
Q

The amount of radiation delivered to a tissue

A

Exposure

67
Q

The amount of radiation absorbed by the tissue

A

Radiation dose

68
Q

Absorbed radiation dose units

A

Gray (gy)

69
Q

What says the intensity of the radiation decreases with the distance from the radiation emitting source

A

Inverse square law

70
Q

Radiation delivered from a source outside of the patient

A

Teletherapy

71
Q

Short close therapy. The radiation source comes into direct, continuous contact with the tumor for a specific time period

A

Brachytherapy

72
Q

Which type of radiation therapy is potentially hazardous?

A

Brachytherapy, the radiation source is within the patient. The patient emits radiation for a period of time.

73
Q

Damage to the salivary glands by radiation therapy, dry mouth that leads to tooth decay

A

Xerostomia

74
Q

The time when bone marrow activity and white blood cell counts are at their lowest levels after cytotoxic therapy

A

Nadir

75
Q

The treatment of cancer with chemical agents

A

Chemotherapy

76
Q

Chemotherapy used along with surgery or radiation

A

Adjuvant therapy

77
Q

A chemotherapy drug that cross-links DNA, making the DNA strands bind tightly together, which inhibits cell division

A

Alkylating agents

78
Q

Similar to normal metabolites needed for vital cell processes. Impairs cell division

A

Anti metabolites

79
Q

Interferes with the formation and actions of micro tubules so cells cannot complete mitosis during cell division

A

Anti mitotic agents

80
Q

Damages the cell’s DNA and interrupts DNA or RNA synthesis

A

Antitumor antibiotics

81
Q

Disrupts an enzyme essential for DNA synthesis and cell division

A

Topoisomerase inhibitors

82
Q

Route delivers drugs into the spinal canal

A

Intrathecal route

83
Q

Delivers drugs directly into the ventricles of the brain

A

Intraventricular route

84
Q

Route delivers drugs within the abdominal cavity

A

Intraperitoneal route

85
Q

Route for drugs instilled directly into the bladder

A

Intravesicular route

86
Q

What route is it when a catheter is placed into the artery supplying the liver tumor?

A

Intra-arterial route

87
Q

A serious complication of IV infusion when the drug leaks into the surrounding tissues

A

Extravasation

88
Q

Chemicals and hat damage tissues on direct contact

A

Vesicants

89
Q

The result of extravasation..

A

Pain, infection, and tissue loss

90
Q

What is the problem with oral cancer drugs?

A

The perception of patients and non-oncology nurses that these drugs are less toxic than those given intravenously

91
Q

Why does someone need to wear PPE when handling oral anti cancer drugs?

A

Because the oral agents can be absorbed through the skin and mucous membranes and exert toxic effects. Same goes for IV chemotherapy administration

92
Q

Decreased numbers of red blood cells and hemoglobin

A

Anemia

93
Q

Decreased number of white blood cells leading to immunosupression

A

Neutropenia

94
Q

Decreased numbers of platelets

A

Thrombocytopenia

95
Q

Hair loss

A

Alone is

96
Q

Open sores on mucous membranes

A

Mucositis

97
Q

When chemotherapy destroys circulating blood cells and reduces replacement of these cells by suppressing bone marrow function

A

Myelosuppression

98
Q

Vomiting inducing drugs

A

Emetogenic

99
Q

The loss of sensory or motor function of peripheral nerves associated with exposure to certain anticancer drugs

A

Chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN)

100
Q

A large group of substances the body makes to help regulate inflammation and immunity

A

Interleukins

101
Q

Cell-produced proteins that have been effective to some degree in the treatment of melanoma, hairy cell leukemia, renal cell carcinoma, ovarian cancer and cutaneous T-cell lymphoma by, slowing tumor cell division, stimulating the growth and activation of NK cells, inducing cancer cells to resume a more normal appearance and function, and inhibiting the expression of oncogenes

A

Interferons

102
Q

Antibodies that bind to their specific antigens and prevent cell division

A

Monoclonal antibodies

103
Q

Drugs with the main action to inhibit activation of the enzyme tyrosine kinases

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors

104
Q

Block epidural growth factor from binding to its cell surface

A

Epidural growth factor/receptor inhibitors

105
Q

Binds to vascular endothelial growth factor and prevents the binding of VGEF with its receptors on the surfaces of endothelial cells present in blood vessels

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor/receptor inhibitors

106
Q

Are drugs that inhibit the activity of specific kinases in cancer cells and in tumor blood vessels

A

Multikinase inhibitors (MKIs)

107
Q

Work by preventing the formation of a large complex of proteins (a proteasome) in cells

A

Proteasome inhibitors

108
Q

Target a specific protein kinase known as the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR)

A

Angiogenesis inhibitors

109
Q

The selective destruction of cancer cells through chemical reactions triggered by types of laser light

A

Photodynamic therapy (PDT)

110
Q

Changing usual hormone responses

A

Hormone manipulation

111
Q

Compete with natural hormones at the receptor site

A

Hormone antagonists

112
Q

Breast development

A

Gynecomastia

113
Q

A condition in which organisms enter the blood stream (blood stream infection) and can result in septic shock, a life-threatening condition

A

Sepsis or septicemia

114
Q

A problem with the blood clotting process. Often caused by gram-negative sepsis, although viral and other bacterial infections can trigger it

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

115
Q

Excessive ADH secretion

A

Syndrome of inappropriate anti diuretic hormone (SIADH)

116
Q

What should you look out for with SIADH?

A

Preventing fluid overload from becoming worse, leading to pulmonary edema and heart failure. Older adults with coexisting cardiac problems, kidney problems, lung problems, or liver problems

117
Q

When does spinal cord compression occur in cancer patients?

A

Either when a tumor directly enters the spinal cord or spinal column or when the vertebrae collapses from tumor degradation of the bone

118
Q

Increased serum calcium level. Skeletal pain, kidney stones, abdominal discomfort, and altered cognition

A

Hypercalcemia

119
Q

What causes hypercalcemia in cancer patients?

A

Cancers that secrete parathyroid hormone, causing bone to release calcium

120
Q

Compression or obstruction of thin walls in superior vena cava by tumor growth or clots in the vessel that leads to congestion of the blood

A

Superior vena cava syndrome

121
Q

Large numbers of tumor cells are destroyed rapidly

A

Tumor lysis syndrome

122
Q

Drugs used for (CINV) for the nausea and vomiting associated with it

A

Antiemetics