Cellular Control Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the stages in meiosis?

A

Prophase 1, Metaphase 1, Anaphase 1, Telophase 1, Prophase 2, Metaphase 2, Anaphase 2, Telophase 2

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2
Q

Define meiosis

A

A reduction division. The resulting daughter cells have half the original number of chromosomes. The are haploid and can be used for sexual reproduction

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3
Q

What happens in prophase 1?

A

The chromatin condenses and chromosomes shorten and thicken. Homologous pairs of chromosomes come together a bivalent. The non sister chromatids wrap around each other and attach at points called chiasmata. Crossing over occurs. The nucleolus disappears and nuclear envelope disintegrates. A spindle forms made of protein microtubules.

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4
Q

What happens in metaphase 1?

A

Bivalents line up across the equator of the spindle, attached to spindle fibres at the centromere. Bivalents are orientated at random.

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5
Q

What happens in anaphase 1?

A

Homologous chromosomes in each bivalent are pulled by the spindle fibres to opposite poles; centromeres don’t divide. Chiasmata separate and lengths of chromatid that have been crossed over remain with the chromatid to which they have become newly attached.

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6
Q

What happens in telophase 1?

A

In most animal cells, 2 new nuclear envelopes form, one around each set of chromosomes; cell divides by cytokinesis. A brief interphase occurs and chromosomes uncoil. In most plant cells, the cell goes straight from anaphase 1 to meiosis 2

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7
Q

What happens in prophase 2?

A

If a nuclear envelope has reformed, it breaks down. The nucleolus disappears, chromosomes condense, spindles form

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8
Q

What happens in metaphase 2?

A

The chromosomes arrange themselves on the equator of the spindle. They are attached to the spindle fibres at the centromeres. The chromatids of each chromosome are randomly orientated.

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9
Q

What happens in anaphase 2?

A

The centromeres divide and chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

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10
Q

What happens in telophase 2?

A

Nuclear envelopes reform around haploid daughter nuclei. In animals, the 2 cells how divide to give 4 haploid cells. In plants, a tetrad of 4 haploid cells is formed.

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11
Q

What do genes code for?

A

Polypeptides, including enzymes

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12
Q

What is the genetic code?

A

The sequence of nucleotide bases on a gene provides a code with instructions for the makings of a protein. It has several characteristics: triplet code (64 different combinations); degenerate code; code for amino acid/stop codon; widespread (almost universal).

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13
Q

Describe the process of transcription

A

Single stranded mRNA is constructed from the template strand of DNA. The DNA unwinds and unzips, breaking hydrogen bonds; activated RNA nucleotides (with 2 extra phosphoryl groups) bases bind to their complementary bases, catalysed by RNA polymerase; phosphoryll groups are released, releasing energy and sealing sugar/phosphate backbone; mRNA leaves nucleus via nuclear envelope.

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14
Q

Describe the process of translation

A

mRNA binds to ribosome, 2 codons attached to the small subunit. The first is always methionine. tRNA brings the corresponding amino acid to the ribosome, and the codon and anticodon form hydrogen bonds. A second tRNA molecule brings the second amino acid. A peptide bond forms between the 2 amino acids. Ribosome moves along to the next codon, attaching a further amino acid. The polypeptide chain grows until a stop codon is reached.

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15
Q

What are mutations?

A

Changes in the sequence of nucleotides in DNA molecules. May be deletion, addition or substitution

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16
Q

What does cyclic AMP do to proteins?

A

Activates proteins by altering their 3-D structure.

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17
Q

How can mutations affect proteins?

A

Could be silent: same amino acid is inserted, so no effect on function of protein
Could be harmful: different amino acid inserted/frame shift occurs, altering protein structure significantly, preventing it from functioning properly
Could be beneficial: amino acid inserted causes protein to function better, giving a genetic advantage.

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18
Q

Describe how the lac operon works

A

Works to ensure the 2 enzymes needed to metabolise lactose, beta galactosidase and lactose permease are only produced when required.
Structural genes: code for beta-galactosidase and lactose permease
Operator region next to structural genes
Promoter region next to operator, where RNA polymerase binds
Regulator gene makes a protein. If no lactose present, it binds over the promoter and operator, preventing RNA polymerase from binding and thus the structural proteins aren’t produced
If lactose is present, it binds to the allosteric site, causing a shape change in the repressor protein, so it no longer binds to the operator.
RNA polymerase can now bind to the DNA, so mRNA is produced and the structural proteins are made.

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19
Q

What are homeobox genes?

A

Genes that control the body plan of organisms. They control polarity: anterior (head)/posterior (tail). The homeobox genes cause segments to form and control the development of each individual segment. They are similar in plants, animals and fungi. They tend to be transcription factors that bind to DNA, allowing some proteins necessary to that segment to be produced. They are activated in the order that they are found in on the genome.

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20
Q

What are Hox clusters?

A

Clusters of homeobox genes. Vertebrates have more Hox clusters than invertebrates, probably due to a duplication.

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21
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death. Occurs after a cell has undergone a certain number of divisions - 50 (the Hayflick constant)

22
Q

What is the sequence of events in apoptosis?

A

Enzymes break down the cell cytoskeleton
Cytoplasm becomes dense with tightly packed organelles
Cell surface membrane changes and small blebs form
Chromatin condenses and nuclear envelope breaks. DNA forms fragments
Cell breaks up into vesicles that are taken up by phagocytosis. Cellular debris is disposed of.

23
Q

What is the function of apoptosis?

A

A mechanism to change body plans. Causes digits to separate from each other. Not enough apoptosis causes tumours, too much causes cell loss and degeneration.

24
Q

Define allele

A

A version of a gene. A gene is a length of DNA that codes for one or more polypeptides. An allele of the gene has a difference in the DNA base sequence that is expressed as it translates into a slightly different polypeptide

25
Q

Define locus

A

The position of a gene on a chromosome

26
Q

Define phenotype

A

Refers to the characteristics that are expressed in the organism, meaning those features that can be observed. Determined by the genotype.

27
Q

Define genotype

A

The genetic make up of an organism, in terms of the alleles it possesses, usually in the context of a particular characteristic. The genotype determines the phenotype.

28
Q

Define dominant

A

An allele is dominant if it is always expressed in the phenotype, even if a different allele for the same gen is present in the genotype. they characteristic in question and its inheritance pattern are also described as dominant.

29
Q

Define codominant

A

2 alleles of the same gene are said to be codominant if they are both expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygote.

30
Q

Define recessive

A

An allele is recessive if it is only expressed in the phenotype if another identical allele/absence of a dominant allele is present.

31
Q

Define crossing-over

A

When lengths of DNA are swapped from one chromatid to another. Occurs during prophase 1 of meiosis. Homologous chromosome pairs form a bivalent, joining at chiasmata, with non-sister chromatids wrapping around each other. Chromosomes may break off and switch with their non-sister pair in crossing over, producing a new combination of alleles

32
Q

Define linkage

A

When 2 or more genes are located on the same chromosomes. They are normally inherited together, unless chiasmata have been formed between them and crossing over occuring.

33
Q

How do meiosis and fertilisation lead to genetic variation?

A
  • Crossing over in prophase 1 shuffles alleles
  • Genetic reassortment due to the random distribution and subsequent segregation of maternal and paternal chromosomes in homologous pairs, during meiosis 1
  • Genetic reassortment due to the random distribution and segregation of the sister chromatids at meiosis 2
  • Random mutation
  • Random combination of 2 sets of chromosomes, one from each of 2 genetically unrelated individuals (fertilisation)
34
Q

What is epistasis?

A

The interaction of different gene loci so that one gene locus masks or suppresses the expression of another gene locus.

35
Q

Describe recessive epistasis

A

A recessive allele being present at one locus masks the expression of an allele at another locus. Often has a 9:3:4 ratio

36
Q

Describe dominant epistasis

A

A dominant allele being present at one locus masks the expression of an allele at another locus. Often has a 12:3:! ratio, or a 13:3

37
Q

What is the chi-squared test?

A

A statistical test that determines how likely there is a significant difference from the null hypothesis. First calculate expected values based on null hypothesis (null hypothesis is that it occurred due to normal meiosis, e.g. 9:3:3:1 ratio). Then use formula to calculate chi-square value and compare to data base at correct number of degrees of freedom (number of categories - 1)

38
Q

What are the differences between discontinuous and continuous variation?

A

Discontinuous: qualitative difference in phenotypes; clear categories; no intermediates; monogenic/epistatic; dominant/codominant/recessive patterns of inheritance
Continuous: quantitative difference in phenotypes; wide range of variation; no distinct categories; polygenic, additive component of each gene; affected by environment.

39
Q

What contributes to phenotypic variation?

A

Genetics AND environment.

40
Q

Why is variation essential?

A

Allows natural selection to occur: those with variations better suited to their environment will survive and reproduce, those without beneficial variations won’t.

41
Q

What are the assumptions that allow the Hardy-Weinberg principle to work?

A
Large population (no sampling errors)
Mating is random
No selective advantage for any genotype
No mutaion, migration or genetic drift
42
Q

What are the 2 equations for the Hardy-Weinberg principle?

A

p + q = 1
p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1
-p is dominant allele frequency
-q is recessive allele frequency
-q^2 is frequency of homozygous recessive
-2pq is frequency of heterozygous
-p^2 is frequency of homozygous dominant.
Find q^2 first from question, then find q, then p, then p^2, then 2pq

43
Q

How does the environment contribute to stabilising populations?

A

Populations don’t always increase in size, they sit at their carrying capacity. This is because environmental factors limit population growth, such as space, food, light, minerals, water availability. These factors causes the population to fluctuate around a mean level.
If the environment is ‘stable’, selection pressures will select for the modal characteristic. This is stabilising selection.

44
Q

How does the environment contribute to evolutionary force?

A

Not all organisms in a population survive to adulthood due to limitations in environmental factors. Those that survive to adulthood will be those that are well adapted to avoid/overcome these selection pressures, thus passing on desirable characteristics.
If the environment changes, selection pressures change, causing the variation being selected for to not be the modal variation, causing a directional selection.

45
Q

How does genetic drift lead to large changes in small populations?

A

Genetic drift is slight fluctuations in allele frequency. In small populations, these fluctuations are much more pronounced, as offspring have slightly different alleles to their parents, and there isn’t a large population to counteract slight variation. Thus, smaller populations have largely changing allele frequency and large changes in the population.

46
Q

How can populations be isolated, and what are the consequences?

A
Geographic barriers (river, mountain range)
Seasonal barriers (climate change throughout a year)
Reproductive mechanisms (incompatible genitals/breeding seasons/courtship behaviour)
If a population is isolated, different alleles will be eliminated or increased in each sub population, leading to the eventual development of a new species.
47
Q

What is the biological species concept?

A

The definition of a species ‘a group of similar organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring and is reproductively isolated from other such groups’. This is problematic if the species in question doesn’t reproduce sexually or the male and female counterparts look significantly different.

48
Q

What is the phylogenetic species concept?

A

A group of organisms that have similar morphology (shape), physiology (biochemistry), embryology (stages of development) and behaviour and occupy the same ecological niche. Based on cladistics: where species are classified in groups dependent on their evolutionary ancestors. A clade is all the descendants of a common ancestor. Makes no distinguish between extinct and extant species, puts importance in quantitative (molecular) analysis, emphasis on evolution.

49
Q

Compare natural and artificial selection

A

Natural selection: mechanism for evolution; environment doing the selecting. Those organisms better adapted are more likely to survive to a reproductive age.
Artificial selection: humans select organisms with useful characteristics and allow them to breed (preventing those without the characteristics from breeding), humans have a significant effect of evolution of population/species.

50
Q

How has artificial selection brought about the modern dairy cow?

A

Cows have been repeatedly selected for high milk yields and bred together. Still goes on today, with milk yields being measured and recorded, ‘elite’ bulls and cows identified, given hormones to increase gamete production and fertilise in vitro, allowing elite bulls and cows to have more children than normal.

51
Q

How has artificial selection produced bread wheat?

A

Bread wheat is hexaploid: 6n = 42 (as opposed to 2n). This is due to artificial selection of a 2n plant, then breeding with another 2n plant to get a 4n plant (a mutation), then breeding with another 2n plant to get a 6n plant (a mutation). Bread wheat has 3 distinct genomes from 3 different species of wild wheat.