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Chlorophyll me up :) > Cells > Flashcards

Cells Flashcards

1
Q

According to cell theory…

A
  1. Living organisms are composed of cells
  2. The cell is the smallest unit of life
  3. Cells can arise from pre-existing cells
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2
Q

What are the exceptions to cell theory?

A
  • fungal hyphae- continuous cytoplasm
  • muscle cells- multinucleated
  • algae cells - unicellular organisms that are large
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3
Q

What are the 7 functions of life?

A
  • metabolism
  • homeostasis
  • excretion
  • growth
  • nutrition
  • reproduction
  • sensitivity
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4
Q

What is the cell’s volume?

A

the rate of metabolism is a function of cell’s mass

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5
Q

What is the cell’s surface area?

A

The rate of material exchange is the function of the cell’s surface area.

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6
Q

What is the relationship between the volume and surface area of the cell?

A

As a cell grows the volume (units3), it increases faster than the surface area (units3)
- if the metabolic requirements exceed the material exchange the cell will die
- cell must stay small or increase the SA:Vol ratio to survive

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7
Q

What is the formula for magnification (MIA)?

A

Magnification= Image Size / Actual Size

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8
Q

What is the formula for the Actual Size (AIM)?

A

Actual Size = Imagine Size / Magnification

Remember 1000um = 1 mm

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9
Q

What are the emergent properties?

A

Function that is present in multicellular organisms, but not present in its individual component cell. They arise from the interactions between individual cells to produce new functions.

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10
Q

Difference between the light and electron microscopes

A
  • light microscopes have lower magnification and can view living specimens in natural colors
  • electron microscopes can only view dead specimens in monochrome and have higher magnification
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11
Q

What are stem cells?

A

The unspecialized cells that have two qualities:
- self renewal- they can continously divide and replicate
- potency- they have capacity to differentiate

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12
Q

2 types of stem cells and explain them

A
  1. Adult stem cells - multipotent, meaning they can differentiate into a limited range of cell types specific to the tissue or organ in which they are found.
  2. Embryonic stem cells -pluripotent, meaning they have the potential to differentiate into any cell type in the body.
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13
Q

Explain totipotent cells

A

can form any cell type as well as the extra-embryonic tissue

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14
Q

Explain pluripotent cells

A

can form any cell type e.g. embryonic stem cells

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15
Q

Multipotent cells

A

can differentiate into closely related cell types

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16
Q

Unipotent

A

cannot differentiate but are capable of self-renewal

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17
Q

Describe the stem cell therapy

A

This therapy can replace damaged or diseased cells with healthy ones. The therapeutic use of stem cells involves:
- harvesting stem cells from appropriate sources
- triggering cell differentiation
- monitoring new cells to ensure they do not become cancerous
- implanting new cells

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18
Q

Explain the stem therapy of the Stargardt’s disease

A

Replacing defective retinal cells

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19
Q

Explain the stem therapy of the Parkinson’s disease

A

Replacing damaging nerve cells

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20
Q

Explain the stem therapy of the Leukemia disease

A

Replacement of bone marrow

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21
Q

State the definition of cell differentiation

A

It means that each cell contains the entire set of genetic instructions for certain organism. Differentiation involves the expression of some genes. The activation of different genes within a given cell will cause it to develop differently from other cells.

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22
Q

Describe the stem cell from the embryo

A
  • growth potential: high
  • tumour risk: high
  • disadvantages: requires the destruction of the embryo
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23
Q

Describe the stem cell from the umbilical cord blood

A
  • growth potential: low
  • tumour risk: low
  • disadvantages: cells must be stored from birth at cost
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24
Q

Describe the stem cell from the adult tissue

A
  • growth potential: low
  • tumour risk: low
  • disadvantages: may be restriction in availability
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25
Q

Gene packaging

A

The process where the DNA is packaged within proteins as chromatin in the nuclei of eukaryotic cells.
- active genes are loosely packed as euchromatin
- inactive genes are packed tight as heterochromatin

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26
Q

The cell wall in the plant cells

A
  • contain the cell wall that is made up of cellulose -> it supports the cell and limits its volume
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27
Q

What the plant cell consists of?

A
  • smooth ER
  • rough ER
  • nucleus
  • mitochondrion
  • vacuole
  • chloroplast
  • ribosomes
  • cell wall
  • membrane
  • cytoplasm
  • golgi body
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28
Q

The function of chloroplast

A

it contains chlorophyll which is a site for photosynthesis and this process occurs in leaves

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29
Q

What is the chloroplast made of?

A
  • DNA
  • rybosomes
  • outer and inner membranes
  • thylakoid
  • granum(the whole sac o thylakoids)
  • stroma
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30
Q

Structure of mitochondria

A

structures bounded by the a double membrane. The inner membrane of these forms cristae. The fluid inside mitochondria is called matrix. It contains DNA, ribosomes, proton pumps and ATP synthase.

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31
Q

Function of mitochondria

A
  • produce ATP by cell respiration, site of aerobic respiration
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32
Q

Explain the ER

A

Comprises a network of tubes and flattened sacs. It is continuous with the plasma membrane and nuclear membrane. The types of ER are:
- smooth- without ribosomes
- rough - with ribosomes

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33
Q

Function of smooth ER

A
  • transporting materials between organelles and synthesis of metabolism
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34
Q

Function of rough ER

A
  • transporting materials between organelles and synthesis of proteins
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35
Q

What is the function of Golgi apparatus?

A
  • storing and modifying proteins for specific functions and prepares them for transport to other parts of the cell
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36
Q

Structure of Golgi apparatus?

A
  • transport vehicles
  • secretory vehicles - transporting hormones
  • lumen - inner space
  • cisternae - outer space
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37
Q

Lysosomes (only animal cells)

A

Membrane bound organelles that contain the digestive enzymes

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38
Q

What are perixisomes?

A

self-replicating organelles containing oxidative enzymes

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39
Q

Rybosomes

A

small molecules that do not have any membrane. their function is to synthesize proteins. site of translation.

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40
Q

What is the structure of ribosomes?

A
  • small subunit
  • large subunit
  • proteins + rRNA
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41
Q

Where are 70s and 80s ribosomes?

A
  • 70S in prokaryotic cells, mitochondria and chloroplasts
  • 80S in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells
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42
Q

Centriosome (only animal cells)

A

cellular structure involved in the process of cell division ( meiosis and mitosis ) and it contains the set of microtubules.

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43
Q

Structure of animal cells

A
  • lyzosome
  • ribosomes
  • mitochondrion
  • nucleus
  • ER
  • vacuole
  • golgi apparatus
  • cytoplasm
  • membrane
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44
Q

Function of nucleus

A

It stores genetic information and it is the site of transcription

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45
Q

Structure of nucleus

A

It contains the nuclear membrane, nuclear pores, nucleolus, and chromatin.

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46
Q

What are the differences between the animal cells and plant cells?

A
  • animal cells do not have chloroplasts, cell wall, no plasmodesmata
  • animal cells have temporary vacuoles but plant cells have large central vacuole
  • cholesterol present in the animal cells
  • animal cells have glycogen and plant cells have starch
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47
Q

Plasmodesmata function (only plant cells)

A

They connect the cytoplasm of neighboring cells causing an exchange of materials.

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48
Q

Double membrane is called also

A

nuclear envelope

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49
Q

Structure of prokaryotic cells

A
  • fimbriae (sex pilli)
  • plasmids
  • cytoplasm
  • cell wall
  • capsule
  • cell membrane
  • flagellum
  • ribosomes
  • circular chromosome (DNA)
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50
Q

Function of pilus

A

used for bacterial conjugation

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51
Q

Function of fimbriae

A

used for attachement not movement

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52
Q

Function of plasmids

A

exchanged via sex pilli in conjugation

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53
Q

Function of flagella

A

used for locomotion

54
Q

What is bacterial cell wall composed of?

A

carbohydrate molecule called peptidoglican

55
Q

Difference between fimbriae and flagella

A

flagella is used for locomotion and fimbriae is used for attachement. fimbriae are shorter and thinner than flagella.

56
Q

What is the binary fission?

A

Asexual reproduction by a separation of the body into two new bodies. The cross wall separates the parent and daughter cell into two identical cells.

57
Q

Explain the process of binary fission

A
  • cell elongation occurs and the chromosome is duplicated
  • the cell wall and cell membrane begin to grow inwards forming a cross wall
  • the ingrowing cell walls meet and two identical cells are formed (cytokinesis)
58
Q

State the definition of conjugation

A

Conjugation is the process by which one bacterium transfers genetic material to another through direct contact. During conjugation, one bacterium serves as the donor of the genetic material, and the other serves as the recipient.

59
Q

Steps of conjugation

A
  1. donor cell attaches to a recipient cell with its pilus. The pilus draws cells together
  2. The cells contact one another (connect)
  3. One strand of plasmid DNA transfers to the recipient
  4. The recipient synthesizes a complementary strand, restoring its complete plasmid
60
Q

Phospholipid bilayer

A
  • it contains a hydrophilic head composed of phosphate
  • contains two hydrophobic tails, each composed of fatty acid chain
  • phospholypids are amphipathic
61
Q

What is the meaning of amphipathic properties?

A

The structure has hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts

62
Q

How is the phospholipid bilayer held together?

A

by weak hydrophobic interactions between the tails

63
Q

What makes the membrane flexible and fluid?

A

that individual phospholipids can move within the bilayer

64
Q

What amphipathic properties do?

A

restrict passage of certain substances -> semi-permeability

65
Q

What is the width of the bilayer?

A

4nm

66
Q

Two molecules that reduce membrane fluidity

A

cholesterol and proteins

67
Q

Major force that causes the formation of the membrane bilayer

A

hydrophobic interactions

68
Q

What is cholesterol?

A

Fundamental component of animal cell membranes.

69
Q

Function of cholesterol

A

reduces membrane fluidity and permeability to some solutes and anchors peripheral proteins.

70
Q

What is the function of membrane proteins?

A
  • cell recognition
  • signal transduction
  • attachment
  • transportation
  • enzymatic functions
71
Q

Difference between the peripheral proteins and integral proteins

A
  • integral show amphipathic character with hydrophobic and hydrophilic and they are permanently embedded in the plasma membrane
  • peripheral proteins are found temporarily attached to the mitochondrial membrane
72
Q

Fluid Mosaic Model

A

Explains that cells contain fluid - membrane components that can move position and mosaic- phospholipid bilayer that is embedded with protein

73
Q

Davson- Danielli Model

A

Explains that phospholipid bilayer lies between two layers of protein (sandwich model). It was discarded because : this model could not explain the transport mechanism of substances across the plasma membrane.

74
Q

what is the glycoprotein?

A

a molecule that contains carbohydrates and proteins

75
Q

What properties do cell membranes have?

A
  • semi-permeable (only certain things can cross)
  • regulation of the material passage
76
Q

types of membrane transport can either be:

A
  • passive - along the concentration gradient, no ATP requirement
  • active - against the concentration gradient, ATP is required
77
Q

Types of passive transport

A
  • simple diffusion
  • facilitated diffusion
78
Q

Simple diffusion - explain

A

the net movement of particles from a region from higher concentration gradient to a region of lower concentration until the equilibrium is reached. Involves small molecules

79
Q

Facilitated diffusion - explain

A

the passive movement of molecules across the cell membrane via the aid of a membrane protein (channel protein or protein carrier). Involves large molecules

80
Q

Osmosis

A

The net movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane from a region of low solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration.

81
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

measure of solute concentration

82
Q

Types of solutions

A

hypertonic, hypotonic, isotonic

83
Q

Describe hypertonic solution

A

high solute concentration - gains water

84
Q

Describe isotonic solution

A

same solute concentration

85
Q

Describe hypotonic solution

A

low solute concentration - loses water

86
Q

Describe active transport

A

uses ATP to move the molecules against the concentration gradient. Molecules bind to a protein pump and hydrolysis of ATP causes a confomational change, translocating the molecule across the membrane.

87
Q

Types of active-passive transport (co-transport)

A
  • symport : both molecules move the same direction
  • antiport : molecules move in opposite directions
88
Q

Vesicular transport

A

Cellular transport via membranous vesicles in cells thanks to the fluidity of plasma membrane.

89
Q

Types of vesicular transport

A
  • exocytosis - materials released from cell via vesicles
  • endocytosis - materials internalised within a vehicle
90
Q

Abiogenesis

A

the formation of living cells from non-living materials.

91
Q

Explain the abiogenesis process

A
  • non-living synthesis of simple organic molecules
  • assembly of organic molecules into complex polymers
  • formation of polymers that can self-replicate
  • packaging molecules into membranes to form a cell
92
Q

Law of biogenesis-Louis Pasteur experiment

A

Experiment demonstrated by Louis Pasteur. It consisted of boiled broth in flasks with S-shaped necks. The broth was boiled after being poured into the flasks to destroy any living microorganisms that may have been present in the broth. The S-shaped necks prevented microorganisms from entering and contaminating the broth after boiling. It proved that there is no such life force in air, and organisms do not arise by spontaneous generation. Cells can only arise from pre-existing cells.

93
Q

Endosymbiosis theory

A

Eukaryotic cells are believed to have evolved from aerobic prokaryotes that were engulfed by endocytosis. Evidences that chloroplasts and mitochondria arised via endosymbiosis:
- double membranes
- 70s ribosomes
- DNA is naked and circular
- fission-like division

94
Q

Paramecium

A

contains:
- nuclei
- food vacuole: contains ingested food
- contractile vacuole: regulates water balance
- cilia: hair-like structures
- oral groove: forms food vacuoles

95
Q

Why Paramecium is particularly mobile?

A

it helps them to feed on water organisms

96
Q

What is the property that is necessary for emergent properties to occur?

A

cells or tissues interact to function as a unit

97
Q

What causes the formation of cancer?

A
  • oncogenes
  • mutagens
  • proto-oncogens
98
Q

What are cyclins?

A

Proteins that control progression of the cell cycle.

99
Q

How cyclins work?

A
  • they bind to cyclin dependent kinases CDKs
  • the activated complex phosphorylates proteins involved in specific cell cycle events
  • after the event occured, the cyclin is degraded and the cyclin dependent kinase is rendered active
100
Q

Function of cyclins

A

Cyclins regulate the cell cycle by binding to and activating cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs), controlling progression through cell cycle phases, regulating mitosis, and monitoring cell cycle checkpoints.

101
Q

What is metastis?

A

Spread of cancer from an original site to a new body location (forming a secondary tumor).

102
Q

Tumors

A

the resulting abnormal cell growths. they might remain in their original location (benign) or spread and invade the neighboring tissues (malignant).

103
Q

What causes cancers?

A
  1. Mutagens are agents that change the genetic material of cells:
    - can be physical (UV), chemical, and biological in origin (viruses)
  2. Genetics:
    - proto-oncogenes stimulate cell growth
    - tumor suppressor genes repress cell cycle progression
104
Q

What are the two mechanisms of cell death:

A
  • necrosis (cell homicide) - the cell loses the functional control due to injury and the cell bursts and then releases its contents (inflammation).
  • apoptosis (cell suicide) - controlled event triggered by mitochondrial proteins, the cell fragments are recycled.
105
Q

What are two sources of stem cells commonly used in therapeutic treatments?

A
  • Embryonic Stem Cells
  • Pluripotent Stem Cells
106
Q

How mitotic index can be used in the diagnosis of cancer?

A

The mitotic index helps doctors identify how quickly cancer cells are dividing, which can indicate how aggressive the cancer is.

107
Q

Definition and formula of mitotic index

A

Measure of proliferative status of a cell population - type of prognostic tool. Formula:
- cells that undergo mitosis/ all cells x 100%

108
Q

Explain the cell cycle

A

The cell cycle is an ordered set of events that culminates in cell division. It includes the interphase and M phase

109
Q

Interphase

A

an active phase of the cell cycle where many metabolic reactions occur and it consists of G1, G2, and S stages.

110
Q

What processes occur in interphase?

A
  • DNA replication
  • Cell growth
  • Transcription and translation
  • Respiration
111
Q

M phase

A

The period of a cell cycle in which the cell and contents divide. It is the division of diploid nucleus into two identical diploid nuclei. It includes:
- prophase
- metaphase
- anaphase
- telophase
- cytokinesis

112
Q

What is supercoiling?

A

Chromatin condense via supercoiling to become tightly packed chromosomes. Due to replication, chromosomes consist of identical sister chromatids (joined at centromere).

113
Q

What is chiazma?

A

an intersection or crossing of two traits in the form of the letter X

114
Q

What is chiazmata?

A

X-shaped structure of paired chromatids visible in the prophase

115
Q

What is the function of mitosis?

A

tissue repair, organism growth, asexual reproduction

116
Q

Cytokinesis process

A

Cytoplasm division where a cell splits in two. It occurs with telophase and differs in plants and animals

117
Q

What is the difference between cytokinesis in animals and in plants?

A

plants: microtubules form a ring and contract towards the centre (centripetal)

animals: vesicles form at the cell centre and fuse outwards to form cell plate (centrifugal)

118
Q

What happens in the prophase?

A
  • DNA supercoils and condenses (forms visible chromosomes)
  • the nuclear membrane dissolves
  • centrosomes move to poles and begin to produce spindle fibers
119
Q

What happens in the metaphase?

A
  • spindle fibers attach to centromere of each chromosome
  • spindle fibers contract and move the chromosomes towards the cell centre
  • chromosomes form a line along the middle of the cell
120
Q

What happens in the anaphase?

A
  • spindle fibers continue to contract
  • sister chromatids separate and move to the opposite sites of the cell
  • sister chromatids are regarded as two separate chromosomes
121
Q

What happens in the telophase?

A
  • chromosomes decondense - DNA forms chromatin
  • nuclear membranes form around the two identical chromosomes sets
122
Q

What happens in the cytokinesis?

A
  • cytoplasmis division occurs to divide the cell into two daughter cells
  • each of the daughter cell contains one copy of identical sister chromatid
  • daughter cells are genetically identical
123
Q

Primary tumour

A

original site of a cancerous growth of cells

124
Q

What allows the cell cycle to continue dividing?

A

high levels of cyclins

125
Q

What are the parts of chromosome?

A
  • kinetochore
  • chromatid
  • centromere
126
Q

If a cell that has 20 chromosomes undergoes mitosis, then what will be created?

A

two daughter cells will be created and each will have 20 chromosomes

127
Q

When spindle forms?

A

prophase

128
Q

Compared to X chromosome, the Y chromosome is…

A

much smaller

129
Q

What can be determined from karyotypes?

A

the number of chromosomes present

130
Q

What occurs during mitosis in plant cells

A

condensation of chromosomes

131
Q

4 types of potency of stem cells

A
  • totipotent
  • pluripotent
  • multipotent
  • unipotent

Chlorophyll me up :) (7 decks)

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