Cell + Molec II Flashcards

1
Q

What is mismatch repair? (MMR)

A

The process where mismatches made by DNA polymerase are fixed to mirror the template strand

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2
Q

Where does a mutation need to occur for it to be passed down vertically

A

In the Germ line

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3
Q

mutations in cell cycle, DNA repair-protein genes can lead to…

A

Cancers

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4
Q

Genome instability

A

Contributed to by mutations, leads to an increased chance for cancers

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5
Q

Silent Mutation:

A

changes codon but not a.a.

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6
Q

Source types of DNA Damage or errors

A

Endogenous and
exogenous;
source is w/in cell or from environment

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7
Q

Mismatch?

A

DNA pol inserts the wrong dNTP

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8
Q

depurination and deamination

A

Spontaneous loss of a purine (A or G)
or
Spontaneous loss of an amino group from Cytosine, causing it to turn into a uracil

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9
Q

Thymine dymerization

A

a thymine dimer (covalent) forming b/w two adjacent pyrimidines due to UV light interference

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10
Q

All types of DNA repair and damage

A

mismatch, depurination, deamination, thymine dimers, and single or double breaks

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11
Q

NER

A

Nuceotide excision repair;
for issues on one strand of DNA, area is excised and repaired by putting new dNTPs and ligase fixing it.

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12
Q

two types of repair for DS breaks

A

homologous recombination
nonhomologous end joining

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13
Q

nonhomologous end joining

A

nuclease cuts the ends of the broken DNA and ligase patches them back together; some nucleotide loss

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14
Q

homologous recombination steps

A

A. ds DNA break
B. resection of 5’ ends by nucleases
C. strand invasion, D-loop formation
– coordinated by recA in bacteria, Rad52 in yeast
D. repair DNA polymerase elongates invading
strand
E. invading strand released, pairs with
damaged DNA
F. repair DNA polymerase elongates damaged
DNA
G. ss DNA nick ligation by DNA ligase

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15
Q

RNA pol I and II?

A

I is for prokaryotes, II is for eukaryotes

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16
Q

gene

A

DNA sequence that codes for a functional product

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17
Q

Transcription

A

DNA sequence of coding region* copied into messenger RNA (mRNA)

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18
Q

Translation

A

sequence of mRNA specifies a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

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19
Q

DNA structure

A

-H on 2’ Carbon, DEoxyribose
adenine w Thymine pairing
stable in environment
typically ds
typically very long
doesn’t form into stems and loops

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20
Q

RNA structure

A

-OH on 2’ Carbon, RIBOSE
A with U
degrades quickly
typically ss
typically shorter
folds into stems and loops

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21
Q

all types of RNA we cover

A

mRNA; transcript
rRNA; ribosomal
miRNA; regulation of gene expression
tRNA; transfer RNA (adapter for mRNA codons)
snRNA; spliceosomes

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22
Q

What is the enzyme of replication?

A

RNA Pol

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23
Q

Amplication

A

Making more of a product from DNA information

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24
Q

Initiation in prokaryotes

A

Sigma factor binds to the promoter and allows RNA pol to bind

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25
Q

Elongation in prokaryotes

A

RNA adds complementary RNA nucleotides starting from transcription site (+1 from promoter)
sigma factor released

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26
Q

Termination in Prokaryotes

A

Terminator sequence causesRNA pol to dissociate

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27
Q

Transcription initiation complex

A

Multiple general transcription factors needed for RNA pol II to bind in eukaryotes
(includes the TATA box)
assembles at the promoter

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28
Q

TFIID

A

alongside TBP (TATA box binding protein)
is part of the transcription initiation complex and is essential for RNA Pol II to bind

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29
Q

What happens to mRNA as it leaves the transcription initiation complex?

A

The tail is phosphorylated

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30
Q

Where is precursor mRNA modified?

A

the nucleus

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31
Q

what is precursor mRNA?

A

pre-RNA. the primary transcript (unmodified mRNA)

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32
Q

what is done to pre-RNA as part of RNA processing?

A

5’ m7G cap is added on as mRNA is produced

polyadenylation happens: 100s of As added to 3’ tail

RNA splicing; splicing exons, removing introns

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33
Q

what removes introns?

A

spliceosomes

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34
Q

snRNPs

A

small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles
are the product of snRNAs associating with proteins.

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35
Q

Alternative splicing

A

allows the making of multiple proteins from the same sequence being spliced differently (~95% of all human genes)

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36
Q

what else does RNA processing do>?

A

mark mRNAs for export out through the nuclear pore and not to be degraded

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37
Q

genetic code is…

A

correspondence b/w codons and a.a.s

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38
Q

tRNA parts

A

anticodon; complementary codons
amino acid bound

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39
Q

What is a ribosome made of?

A

ribosomal proteins and rRNA
(large and small subunit)

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40
Q

ribozyme

A

RNA enzyme
ex: ribosomes are 2/3 RNA by mass

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41
Q

what do the small and large ribosomal subunits do>?

A

small: binds to RNA
large: has 3 tNRA binding sites (EPA) and catalyzes the peptide bond thru em

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42
Q

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

A

an enzyme that attaches a.a. to tRNA

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43
Q

what is an RNA hairpin?

A

in ss RNA, its when the RNA folds back on itself

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44
Q

P site of ribosome

A

C-terminus of polypeptide uncoupled from tRNA and growing polypeptide stays here

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45
Q

E site function

A

spent tRNA is here and is then ejected

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46
Q

A site

A

charged tRNA with a.a.

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47
Q

initiator tRNA

A

methionine; has complementary anticodon to AUG start sequence in RNA

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48
Q

translation initiator factors and the rest of initiation

A

proteins match initiator, P-site of sm rRNA and 5’ cap of mRNA
then the small subunit searches for start codon in 5’-3’ direction
once found large subunit attaches

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49
Q

Termination

A

stop codons (UAA,UAG,UGA) have no tRNA associated with em
release factor; a protein that hydrolyzes peptide from last tRNA
ribosome disassembles

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50
Q

Start codon?

A

methionine AUG

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51
Q

Main contributor to redundancy?

A

almost all 3rd and some 1st codon positions can accept any nt of the same type

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52
Q

wobble:

A

some tRNAs pair with multiple codons
humans have 500 tRNAs but only 48 diff anticodons

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53
Q

housekeeping genes

A

almost unchanged across species; keep cell alive

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54
Q

Where can gene expression be regulated?

A

transcription, RNA processing, mRNA transport, mRNA degradation, translation, protein degradation, protein activity

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55
Q

how can a gene be regulated at TRANSCRIPTION

A

whether or not transcription initiation complex forms

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56
Q

how can a gene be regulated at NRA PROCESSING

A

no 5’ cap or poly-A tail, no export out of nucleus

57
Q

how can a gene be regulated at mRNA TRANSPORT

A

ribosomes don’t have to associate with it

58
Q

how can a gene be regulated at mRNA DEGREDATION

A

hydrolyzed before translation

59
Q

how can a gene be regulated at translation

A

ribosome chooses to not translate?

60
Q

how can a gene be regulated at Protein degredation?

A

hydrolyzing of protein

61
Q

how can a gene be regulated at PROTEIN ACTIVITY

A

allosteric regulation, phosphorylation

62
Q

promoter and operator

A

the operator is a regulatory sequence IN the promoter, heading a whole OPERON

63
Q

what is a repressor protein

A

binds to OPERATOR to PREVENT transcription

64
Q

Trp Operon process

A

if TRP high, repressor binds to operator, if TRP low the repressor is inactive and RNA pol can bind to transcribe

65
Q

Lac Operon process

A

lac repressor inactivated by lactose (on if lactose)

CAP activator has CAP binding site for RNA pol IF cyclicAMP present (signal for low glucose here)

cyclic amp is low when glucose high, and CAP is inactive

66
Q

Activator protein

A

helps RNA pol bind if active

67
Q

CAP stands for what?

A

catabolic activator protein

68
Q

What type of cells are enhancers in? what do they do?

A

eukaryotic cells
a regulatory DNA sequence bound by activators (transcription factors)

69
Q

Mediator

A

complex of proteins b/w activators and the transcription initiation complex
if activator not present, no mediator, no bending of DNA to get RNA pol to bind

70
Q

What happens when a repressors binds to the enhancer

A

stops transcription process from happening

71
Q

what remodels chromatin so RNA pol can transcribe?

A

transcription regulators attract proteins that remodel chromatin, histone modifying enzymes attaches acetyl groups to histones to provide binding sites.

72
Q

What is combinatorial control?

A

multiple TFs (transcription factors) needed for the mediator and each TF controls multiple genes

73
Q

What is special about gene duplication?

A

the new copy isn’t essential, so it can evolve new functions

74
Q

exon shuffling?

A

Swapping of protein domains (exons) from different genes, creates new proteins with new functions

75
Q

transposition affects what

A

mobile genetic elements contribute to mutations

76
Q

horizontal transfer

A

DNA passed form one cell to another

77
Q

genome duplication

A

duplication of whole gnome
i.e. going from diploid to tetraploid etc

78
Q

When do most mutations happen

A

cell division

79
Q

germline cells are what

A

cells that become gametes
NOT somatic cells

80
Q

Asexual mutations

A

all mutations are passed to offspring

81
Q

sexual mutations

A

ONLY germline mutations passed on

82
Q

All point mutations and what is means

A

when one nucleotide is replaced with another, like when a missmatch is replicated

examples; neutral mutations, silent mutations, missense mutations

83
Q

Deleterious mutations

A

lower fitness

84
Q

nonsense mutations

A

changes a codon t the STOP codon

85
Q

Missense mutations

A

change the final product amino acid

86
Q

what can point mutations in regulatory DNA do?

A

can change the expression of genes, like lactose-intolerance

87
Q

Misalignment during homologous recombination leads to what?

A

gene duplications and deletions
can be caused by transposable elements

88
Q

What can duplicated genes do?

A

diverge; either getting new functions or do nothing

89
Q

orthologous genes

A

homologous genes descended from a common ancestral species

90
Q

Paralogous genes

A

genes descended from a common ancestral GENE
example; globin family

91
Q

Pseudogene

A

inactive gene disabled by mutations

92
Q

gene family diversity example

A

lysozyme breaks down bacteria cell walls
alpha lactalbumin mammal milk protein

93
Q

How many times did the whole genome get duplicated in early vertebrate evolution?

94
Q

== FREE SPACE ==

95
Q

conserved genes and conserved islands

A

high degree of similarity and are normally important, the islands are functionally important sections of a gene

96
Q

Purifying selection

A

the fact that natural selection selects for conserving important genes

97
Q

conserved synteny

A

recognizable blocks of genes shared among genomes

98
Q

how much of human genome codes for what? (BIG)

A

2% -> proteins
20% -> introns
50% -> repetitive DNA
|—> 6% simple repeats
|—> the rest is transposable elements

99
Q

DNA-only transposons vs retrotransposons

A

no RNA intermediate; code for protein transposase
and
with RNA intermediate (only in eukaryotes, more common)

100
Q

what uses reverse transcriptase and what is it?

A

makes DNA from RNA template, and is used by retrotransposons

101
Q

LINEs vs SINES

A

long and short interspersed nuclear elements

15 and 10% of genome respectively

short are too long to code for proteins, LINEs code for reverse transcriptase, SINEs don’t

102
Q

where is a virus’s genetic code stored?

A

the capsid

103
Q

Gene cloning

A

insert target gene into bacterial plasmid (making the DNA recombinant)

Transform bacteria with plasmid

let e. coli duplicate

104
Q

restriction enzymes do what

A

cut DNA at restriction sites (normally palindromes)
leaving sticky ends, helpful because you can get new DNA in with same restriction sites, and the same restriction enzyme can later remove the amplified gene

105
Q

How to isolate target gene from all of the others

A

gel electrophoresis

106
Q

probe definition

A

labeled complementary sequence that will hybridize with target sequence

107
Q

genomic library process

A

whole genome cut up with restriction enzyme

plasmid and DNA fragments mixed with ligase

plasmids mixed with competent DNA

(for cDNA library); reverse transcribe mRNA into DNA so you only have exons

108
Q

what do you need for PCR

A

polymerase chain reaction requires; template DNA, DNA polymerase, DNA primers, lots of nucleotides.

109
Q

What are primers?

A

a 15-20nt strand at the 5’ end of ea strandof target DNA

110
Q

how long does PCR take?

A

30-35 cycles

111
Q

steps of PCR

A

denature at 95 degrees

anneal (cool) primers hybridize

extend (warmer) DNA pol extends primers to make complementary strand

(after 3 runs, mostly making copies of target DNA)

112
Q

Taq

A

archaea DNA pol from thermus aquaticus

113
Q

Sanger Sequencing

A

takes product of PCR but adds dideoxynucleotides that are fluorescenty labeled and cause strand termination, gel electrophoresis organizes and lazer reads and makes base calls

114
Q

Shotgun sequencing

A

lots of diff methods
divide genome into many small fragments amplify and sequence
assemble contiguous fragments

115
Q

in situ hybridization

A

can show the locations of specific nucleotide sequences

use labeled probe complementary to target DNA

116
Q

FISH

A

fluorescent in situ hybridization

probes modified with chemical groups recognized by antibodies with labels

117
Q

immunofluorescence

A

created antibodies w fluorescent labels
-: you can only look at dead preserved cells

118
Q

reporter gene

A

insert gene for easily visualized product
inserted after promoter

119
Q

we used to learn genetics based off of genetic _____

120
Q

transgenic organism

A

genome altered and new genes are inserted

121
Q

RNAi

A

based on mechanism post-transcriptional control

use siRNAs to degrade foreign RNA

122
Q

miRNA

A

have RNA-induce silencing complex to effectively degrade a specific protein in cells

123
Q

What is CRISPR

A

a bacterial anti-viral system
clustered regularly interspersed short palindromic repeats

stem loops are encoded for Cas to recognize and guide them to cut DNA

124
Q

Cas9 endonuclease

A

an engineered protein that can insert a transgene if there is guide RNA

125
Q

conditional knnockout

A

insert 2 genes to regulate expression
recombinase
and a gene flanked by nt that recombinase can recognize

126
Q

3 main components of PM

A

lipid bilayer, membrane proteins, carbohydrates

127
Q

hydrophilic

A

can make hydrogen bonds with water
and are CHARGED or POLAR

128
Q

hydrophobic force

A

minimizes interactions b/w hydrophobic and hydrophilic molecules
i.e. fat dropelets

129
Q

components of a phospholipid

A

charged phosphate head and two hydrocarbon tails

130
Q

kinked hydrocarbon tails;

A

unsaturated

131
Q

scramblase

A

an enzyme that randomly flips phospholipidsto even them out

132
Q

flippase

A

flip specific phospholipids to the cytosolic monolayer

133
Q

types of membrane proteins and % of lipid bilayer

A

transporter, channel, anchor, receptor, enzyme. 50% of mass

134
Q

if the membrane protein is facing the lumen of the golgi, where are they going to go?

A

first to a vesicle and then will be exposed on the non-cytosolic side of the PM

135
Q

Where do membrane proteins start?

136
Q

how to isolate membrane proteins

A

use amphipathic detergents

137
Q

Peripheral proteins usually have what structure, and what is it called if its made up of the other secondary structure?

A

alpha helices

beta barrels

138
Q

what is the glycocalyx

A

a layer of carbohydrates surrounding cells

involved with cell recognition and lubrication and protection

139
Q

cell cortex