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Biomed > Cell Biol > Flashcards

Cell Biol Flashcards

1
Q

Who came up with cell theory?

A

Shleider Schwann

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2
Q

Who first grew isolated cells?

A

Harrison

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3
Q

How do cells divide?

A

They double

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4
Q

What are the core abilities of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A

Metabolism
Response to stimuli
Reproduction
Protein synthesis

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5
Q

Who came up with the central dogma theory?

A

Francis Crick

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6
Q

What is mycoplasma laboratorium?

A

A synthetic species of bacterium derived from a synthetic genome transplanted into a mycoplasma mycoides cell

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7
Q

What are the limitations of central dogma?

A

One gene (one enzyme) is too simplistic

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8
Q

What is redundancy?

A

Many genes play a small part in most functions

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9
Q

What is the nucleus surrounded by?

A

Double membrane, nuclear envelope and nuclear pores

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10
Q

What is the nucleus involved in?

A

Synthesis of mRNA, rRNA and tRNA

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11
Q

What type of structure does DNA have?

A

Double helix

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12
Q

What are the two pyrimidines?

A

Thymine and cytosine

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13
Q

What are the two purines?

A

Adenine and guanine

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14
Q

What is the nucleoplasm?

A

Proteins and DNA suspended in aqueous medium

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15
Q

What is the nucleolus involved?

A

Ribosome synthesis

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16
Q

What is nuclear lamina?

A

Forms a thin layer underlying and supporting the in nuclear membrane

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17
Q

What are components of the nucleolus?

A

Fibrillar centre
Dense fibrillar component
Granular component

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18
Q

What is the gene present of the Y chromosome in males?

A

SRY gene

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19
Q

What is the dense version of chromatin?

A

Hetarochromatin

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20
Q

What is the less dense version of chromatin?

A

Euchromatin

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21
Q

Where are many active genes found?

A

Euchromatin

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22
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

A single DNA molecule complexed with an equal mass of protein?

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23
Q

What is DNA bound to to form chromatin?

A

Histones

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24
Q

What are topoisomers?

A

Genetically identical but topologically different isomers

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25
Q

How many chromosomes are in a single diploid human cell?

A

46

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26
Q

What’s a typical size of a eukaryotic cell?

A

10-100 micrometers

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27
Q

What composes 70% of our cells?

A

Cytosol

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28
Q

What makes up the cytoskeleton?

A

Filamentous protein structues

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29
Q

What is a cytoskeletons function?

A

Establishing a cells shape
Determine intracellular location
Transport
Specialise functions

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30
Q

What are filaments held in?

A

Bundles/ networks by cross linking proteins

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31
Q

What else can the cytoskeleton be used for?

A

Generating cell polarity

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32
Q

What’s a typical example of a filament?

A

Actin

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33
Q

Functions of actin

A

Mechanical strength
Anchoring organelles
Helps cells divide in cytokinesis

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34
Q

What are microtubules?

A

Long straight hollow cylinders built by the assembly of dimers of alpha and beta tubuling

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35
Q

How does a positive end of microtubules grow?

A

By polymerising tubular dimers

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36
Q

What causes niemann-pick C disease?

A

Mutation in NPC1 or NPC2 genes

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37
Q

What are typical symptoms of niemann-pick C disease?

A

Dementia
Behaviour problems
Epilepsy

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38
Q

What are cilia and flagella constructed from?

A

Microtubules

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39
Q

What do secretory vesicles carry?

A

Cargo

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40
Q

How do secretory vesicles carry cargo?

A

Collect cargo in buds arising from membranes

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41
Q

What happens when vesicles membrane becomes part of plasma membrane?

A

The vesicles contents are lost out of the cell

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42
Q

What are the two types of secretory pathways?

A

Constitutive and regulated

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43
Q

Two types of endocytosis

A

Pinocytosis and phagocytosis

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44
Q

What do endosomes mature into?

A

Lysosomes

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45
Q

What is the internal pH of endosomes?

A

Acidic

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46
Q

What are lysosomes?

A

Membrane enclosed organelles containing over 50 degradation acid hydrolase enzymes?

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47
Q

What does endocytosis use to degrade materials?

A

Endosomes

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48
Q

What is autophagy?

A

Digestion of obsolete components of the cell

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49
Q

Give an example of neurodegenerative disorder?

A

NPC disease

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50
Q

Does the SER have ribosomes?

A

No

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51
Q

What is the SER involved in?

A

Calcium storage and lipid metabolism

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52
Q

What is the RER?

A

ER consisting of cisternae which have ribosomes on the outer surface?

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53
Q

What are proteins?

A

Amino acid joined by peptide bonds into long chains

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54
Q

What is the important pathway for protein maturation?

A

Sequence-> confirmation-> funciton

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55
Q

How is protein maturation achieved?

A

By forming bonds linking different regions of polypeptide chains e.g disulphide chains

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56
Q

What is methylation?

A

Attachment of methyl groups to amino acids

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57
Q

What is myristoylation?

A

Attachment of fatty acids to proteins

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58
Q

What is glycosilation?

A

Attachment of sugars to proteins

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59
Q

What is proteolytic cleavage?

A

Removal of sections of the polypeptide chains that are not required in the mature protein?

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60
Q

What causes cystic fibrosis?

A

Misfolding of the proteins CFTR

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61
Q

What is the Golgi apparatus?

A

A collection of flattened membrane bound cysternae and small spherical vescicles

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62
Q

What is bulk flow?

A

Smooth ER
Cis Golgi network
Cis Golgi stack
Medial Golgi stack
Trans Golgi stack
Trans Golgi network

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63
Q

What happens in the trans Golgi network?

A

Where stack break up into different transport vesicles that are dispatched to their final destinations

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64
Q

Wheee are phospholipids and fatty acids synthesised?

A

The ER

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65
Q

Where are glycolipids and sphyngomyelin synthesised?

A

Golgi

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66
Q

What makes up the phospholipid bilayer?

A

Hydrophilic head
2 hydrophobic tails

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67
Q

What’s cholesterol?

A

A major plasma membrane component?

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68
Q

What are non steroid hormone receptors?

A

Integral transmembrane proteins

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69
Q

What is solubilisation?

A

Disruption of lipid bilayer by detergents

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70
Q

What is the electrochemical gradient?

A

Combined force of a concentration gradient or charge gradient

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71
Q

What is symport?

A

Two substrates moved in the same direction

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72
Q

What is anti port?

A

Two substrates moving in different directions

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73
Q

What’s a glycolipid?

A

Consists of polysaccharide chains attached to lipids/proteins

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74
Q

Where a glycolipids located?

A

Extracellular surface of plasma membrane

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75
Q

What are lipid rafts?

A

Organising centres for membrane assembly, influencing membrane fluidity and membrane protein trafficking

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76
Q

Where is the glycoalyx located?

A

The cytosilic surface

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77
Q

What is the mitochondria?

A

Organelles that oxidise fuel molecules to generate ATP via oxidative phosphorylation

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78
Q

What are peroxisomes?

A

Enzyme containing organelles which produce hydrogen peroxide

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79
Q

What is the role of mitochondria in metabolism?

A

Oxidative decarboxylation and ETC

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80
Q

6 criteria of living organisms

A

Organised structures
Metabolism
Growth
React to stimuli
Reproduction
Evolve

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81
Q

3 domains of life

A

Archea
Eubacteria
Eukaryotes

82
Q

What are archea?

A

Microbes that live in extreme environments

83
Q

What is the cell cycle?

A

The stages that cells have to progress through in the mechanism of asexual reproduction.

84
Q

What is the cell cycle made up of?

A

Mitosis and interphase

85
Q

Types of cells

A

Singular and multitude

86
Q

What is a singular cell?

A

Function and survive independently

87
Q

What are multitude cells?

A

Cells that do not survive once separated

88
Q

What is retinoblastoma?

A

Growth inhibitory TS protein

89
Q

What is cell fate?

A

Divide
Differentiate
Die

90
Q

What is mitosis comprised of?

A

Prophase
Pro metaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

91
Q

What happens during interphase?

A

Cell increase in size
Generates 2 chromatids
Centrosome is duplicated

92
Q

What is the centriole?

A

A hollow cylindrical, organelle

93
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

Duplicated DNA condense to form 2 sister chromatic
DNA becomes visible to light microscope
Cenreikwa more to opposite ends of poles
Cycling and cyclin dependent kinases are activated

94
Q

What happens during pro metaphase?

A

Complete dissolution of NM
Formation of spindle structure
Proteins attach to centromeres creating the kinetocjores
Kinetochores attach to the spindle microtubules and begin active movement

95
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

Microtubules form spindle pole body
Spindle fibres align chromosomes along equator
2 members of sister chromatid attach to a microtubules

96
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A

Sister chromatids move outward
Separation results in the formation of two daughter chromosomes
Pulled apart and slowly move towards the spindle pole
Kinetochore tubules get shorter and spindle pole moves outwards
Results in chromosome separation

97
Q

What happens during telophase?

A

Chromatids arrive at opposite ends of each pole
New M! Form around daughter nuclei through the action or phosphatases which remove the phosphate groups
Chromosomes begin to disperse
Spindle fibres begin to disperse
Beginning of cytokinesis

98
Q

What is cytokenesis?

A

Cellular segregation

99
Q

What happens during cytokenesis?

A

Cytoplasm divides into 2 by a contrile ring of Actin and myosin filaments
End of cell division generations two daughter cells

100
Q

Who discovered mitosis?

A

Walther Fleming

101
Q

What is tissue culture?

A

Method of studying the behaviour of a cell

102
Q

Why do we use tissue culture?

A

Cheaper
Reliable
Reproducible
Ethically acceptable

103
Q

What did we use before tissue culture?

A

Bacteria cell culture

104
Q

Why don’t we use bacterial cell culture anymore?

A

They failed to be representative models of humans and higher mammals and their respective diseases

105
Q

Three types of tissue culture

A

Organ culture
Primary explants
Cell culture

106
Q

Advantages of organ culture

A

Retain cell- cell interactions
Differentiated

107
Q

Disadvantage of organ culture

A

Heterogenous
Poor growth
Cannot be efficiently propagated
Poor sample reproducibility
Large amount of material requirements
High maintenance costs

108
Q

What cell is adherent?

A

Epithelial

109
Q

What cell is non-adherent?

A

Blood

110
Q

What is the major purpose on senescence?

A

Evolutionary aspect in the cellular prevention of cancer

111
Q

Common requirements of primary cell culture

A

Fat and necrotic tissue removes
Finely chopped tissue
Enzymes used for disaggregation should be removed
High cell concentrations are required
Preferably embryonic/ tumour tissue

112
Q

How to determine cell concentration?

A

Counted using a haemocytometer and trypan blue

113
Q

What does trypan blue do?

A

Indicates cell membrane permeability

114
Q

What are quiescent cells?

A

Are in a reversible cell cycle arrest and able to respond to mitosis stimuli

115
Q

What are optimum conditions for cell growth?

A

7.5 pH
37°c
Serum
Gas phase
Osmolality

116
Q

Types of cell culture

A

Finite (normal)
Continuous (abnormal)

117
Q

Advantages of using primary cell culture system

A

Differentiated into other cell types
Relevant to normal tissue
Provide for better models of investigation of disease

118
Q

Disadvantages of using primary cell culture

A

Finite growth span
Extremely sensitive to surroundings
Expensive to maintain
Heterogenous

119
Q

What happens to cells when they reach 100% confluency?

A

Undergo cellular stasis and are quiescent

120
Q

How do cells interact with each other?

A

Cell junction proteins

121
Q

What are the cell junction proteins?

A

Tight junctions
Adheren junctions
Desmosomes
Gap junctions
Focal adhesions
Hemidisomes

122
Q

What are cellular signals for quiescence and how are these signals propagated in the cell?

A

Structural proteins which are integral to the cell-cell interaction

123
Q

Components of extracellular matrix

A

Fibrous structural proteins
Water hydrated gels
Adhesive glycoproteins

124
Q

What are the different stem cells?

A

Totipotent
Pluripotent
Multipotent

125
Q

Why do stem cells continually divide?

A

Continusted presence of telomerase

126
Q

What the cell separation techniques?

A

Adherence
Density
Antibody

127
Q

What does adherence use?

A

Gravity

128
Q

What does density use?

A

Centriguation of total blood cells

129
Q

How to isolate stem cells

A

Using cellular surface protein markers?

130
Q

What does antibody use?

A

Fluorescent and magnetic

131
Q

What is a nucleoside?

A

Base and deoxyribose

132
Q

What is a nucleotide?

A

Nucleoside and phosphate

133
Q

What is a nucleid acid?

A

Polymer of nucleotides

134
Q

What is a pyrimidine?

A

A nitrogen containing a 6 member end single ring compound
Cytosine and thymine/uracil

135
Q

What is a purine?

A

A nitrogen containing a 9 member end single ring compound
Adenine and guanine

136
Q

How are nucleotides joined?

A

Phosphodiester bonds

137
Q

What does the 5’ end contain?

A

Free polar phosphate group

138
Q

What does the 3’ end contain?

A

A free polar hydroxyl group OH

139
Q

What is the sense strand?

A

5’-3’

140
Q

What is the anti sense strand?

A

3’-5’

141
Q

What are oligonicleotides?

A

Short nucleic acid chains

142
Q

What are polynucleotides?

A

Much longer chains

143
Q

Where is mRNA found?

A

Nucleus

144
Q

Where is rRNA found?

A

Cytoplasm

145
Q

Where is tRNA found?

A

Cytoplasm

146
Q

What is semi conservative replication?

A

Each daughter DNA duplex contains 1 strand from parent molecule and one newly synthesised DNA strand

147
Q

What is semi-discontinuous replication?

A

Only one leading strand is synthesised continuously

148
Q

What is semi-discontinuous replication?

A

Only one DNA strand is continued

149
Q

What is transcription?

A

Begins when an enzyme call RNA polymerase attaches to the template DNA strand and begins to catalyse the production of complementary RNA

150
Q

What are polymerases?

A

Large enzymes composed of a dozen subunits and when active on DNA they are usually complexed with other factors

151
Q

What are the 3 types of RNA polymerase?

A

RNA pol I
RNA pol II
RNA pol III

152
Q

What does RNA pol I do?

A

Transcribes the genes that encode most of the rRNAs

153
Q

What does RNA pol II do?

A

Transcribes the messenger RNA

154
Q

What does RNA pol III do?

A

Transcribes the genes for one small rRNA

155
Q

What is transcription?

A

Process by which DNA is copied to mRNA by RNA molecules

156
Q

What is splicing?

A

Removal of intron sequences

157
Q

What are stop codons?

A

TAA, TAG & TGA

158
Q

What is the start codon?

A

ATG

159
Q

What do all protein sequences begin with?

A

Methionine

160
Q

How is PCR used in medicine?

A

Carrier testing for genetic diseases
And prenatal diagnosis

161
Q

What are the types of artificial cloning?

A

DNA/gene cloning
Reproductive cloning
Therapeutic cloning

162
Q

What is DNA/gene cloning?

A

The transfer of a DNA fragment of interest from one organism to a self replicating genetic element such as a bacterial plasmid

163
Q

What is reproductive cloning?

A

A technology used to generate an animal that has the same nuclear DNA as another currently or previously existing animal

164
Q

What is therapeutic cloning?

A

Creating a cloned embryo to produce embryonic stem cells with the same DNA as the donor cell

165
Q

What is pharmacogenetics?

A

The study of how genes affect a persons response to drugs

166
Q

What are genes?

A

Units of hereditary that contain information that determine specific traits

167
Q

What are alleles?

A

Variations of the same gene

168
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of alleles controlled by?

A

Meiosis

169
Q

What is meiosis?

A

The process of cell division during gamete formation

170
Q

What is independent assortment?

A

The segregation of alleles of one gene is independent of the segregation of the alleles of another gene

171
Q

What is a dihybrid cross?

A

Mating between two strains differing in two characteristics

172
Q

What are the two main functions of meiosis?

A

Produces recombinant chromosomes or a mixture of genetic information from both parental chromosomes
Halves the number of chromosomes in a cell

173
Q

What is a rare example of genetic linkage in humans?

A

Nail-Patella syndrome and ABO blood groups

174
Q

When will recombination frequency be low?

A

If two genes are very close

175
Q

When will recombination frequency be high?

A

If two genes are very far apart

176
Q

What are autosomal recessive diseases?

A

PKU, sickle cell anaemia, albinism and CF

177
Q

What are autosomal dominant diseases?

A

Huntingtons disease, colour blindness and haemophiliacs

178
Q

What are X linked recessive disorders?

A

Colour blindness and haemophilia

179
Q

What are X linked dominant disorders?

A

Hypophosphotemia

180
Q

Frequency of an allele question

A

Number of copies of the allele/ number of copies of all alleles at the locus

181
Q

What is the Hardy-Weinberg equation?

A

P^2+2pq+q^2=1

182
Q

What is a genotype?

A

The inherited alleles of an individual

183
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

The physical characteristics of an individual

184
Q

What are two types of variation in human chromosomes?

A

Changes in chromosome structure
Changes in the number of chromosomes in a cell

185
Q

When does duplication occur?

A

When a chromosome segment is duplicated by mistake during chromosomal replication prior to cell division

186
Q

When does deletions occur?

A

When a fragment of chromosome is missing and can cause severe abnormal traits

187
Q

What is inversions?

A

When sequence of genes on a chromosome is reversed

188
Q

What is translocations?

A

Movement of a chromosomal segment from one chromosome to another

189
Q

What are diseases associated with translocations?

A

Leukaemia and Down’s syndrome

190
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

Three or more sets of the same chromosomes

191
Q

What is aneuploidu?

A

An increase or decrease of the number of individual chromosomes

192
Q

Examples of aneuploidy:

A

Nullisomy
Monosomy
Trisomy
Tetrasomy

193
Q

How does aneuploidy occur?

A

Caused by two homologous chromosomes not separating during meiosis

194
Q

What causes Down’s syndrome?

A

Extra copy of chromosome 21

195
Q

What is Jacob’s syndrome expressed as?

A

XYY

196
Q

What is Klinefelters syndrome expressed as?

A

XXY

197
Q

What is Trisomy X expressed as?

A

XXX

198
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome expressed as?

A

XO

199
Q

What causes Edwards syndrome?

A

An extra copy of chromosome 18

200
Q

Does cell division result in daughter cells during meiosis?

A

No

Biomed (3 decks)

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