CEBRA notes LA Exam 1

Question 1

What does the ICF have high concentrations of?

Answer 1

potassium and phosphorus

Question 2

What does the ECF have high concentrations of?

Answer 2

sodium, chloride and albumin

Question 3

1 L=

Answer 3

1kg

Question 4

At what percent dehydration will large animals appear clinically normal?

Answer 4

6%

Question 5

Why are RBC indices and blood TP so variable in LA?

Answer 5

horses have splenic contractions

Question 6

If an animal is in shock, what is the highest amount of fluids they can receive asap (within 1 hr)?

Answer 6

up to their blood volume so
6% of their body weight so 0.06 x bw in kgs

Question 7

What ions are lost by the body rapidly via anorexia for ex?

Answer 7

potassium and chloride

Question 8

When would I use 7% NaCl (hypertonic saline)

Answer 8

animals that are having a severe hypovolemic crisis

remember to follow with more conventional fluids

Question 9

What type of fluids are most effective for shock caused by acute blood loss?

Answer 9

Hypertonic fluids

Question 10

Other than a hypovolemic crisis, when else would using hypertonic fluids be helpful?

Answer 10

hyponatremia
hypochloremia

Question 11

What is a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis (secretional) so bicarb loss, going to respond the best to fluid wise?

Answer 11

fluids containing a base

Question 12

What is the cut off value for blood pH that warrants correction to maintain enzyme function? What should you give?

Answer 12

blood pH < 7.25
give bicarb!

Question 13

What is normal blood bicarb?

Answer 13

24 mEq/L

Question 14

Why is it important to only give 50% of the bicarb deficit as a bolus or to give the entire deficit of a 2-4 hour period?

Answer 14

to prevent paradoxical cerebral acidosis

Question 15

A patient with metabolic alkalosis should be given what type of fluid?

Answer 15

a fluid with no base buffer such as 0.9%NaCl because these patients already have too much base!

Treat any deficits slowly!

Question 16

What is hypernatremia and hyperchloremia best treated with in regard to fluids?

Answer 16

fluids that mimick normal plasma so Normasol or LRS

acute derangements can be txd with 5% dextrose or 0.45% saline

Question 17

What fluids should be used to tx hyponatremia?

Answer 17

isotonic polyionic fluids OR hypertonic fluids containing supplemental NaCl or NaHCO3

Question 18

What is an extremely common electrolyte abnormality that you will see in hoofstock that have been off feed for any length of time?

Answer 18

hypokalemia!

Question 19

What does too rapid of administration of potassium pose a risk for and why?

Answer 19

bradycardia and cardiac arrest

Question 20

What is the general rule of thumb for how much potassium supplementation a LA will receive?

Answer 20

0.5 mEq/kg bw/hr

Question 21

What may be used to combat severe hyperkalemia?

Answer 21

dextrose containing fluids + insulin

Question 22

Why should calcium be administered slowly?

Answer 22

bc its cardiotoxic

Question 23

What should I avoid mixing banamine with?

Answer 23

calcium
LRS

Question 24

What is the normal Ca2+ value in LA

Answer 24

10 mEq/dL

Question 25

What is the equiation for calcium deficit?

Answer 25

Deficit= ECFx Bw in kgs x (desired calcium - measured) x 10 dl/L x 1L/kg x 1gm/1000 mg

Question 26

Hypoproteinemia is the result of what

Answer 26

loss of vascular oncotic pressure

Question 27

Blood and plasma should be given through what type of IV

Answer 27

a filtered IV set

Question 28

What is the daily water requirement for horses and cows

Answer 28

Horses: 4-6% bw cattle: 7-10% bw

Question 29

What is the neonate requirement for fluids?

Answer 29

10% of their body weight per day

Question 30

How much does the water requirement increase when there is fever, high ambient temp. activity, lactation, etc.?

Answer 30

2-3 fold

Question 31

What is the daily potassium requirement of hoofstock?

Answer 31

1.2 mEq/kg/day

Question 32

What is the maintenence amount of IV fluids for an adult horse?

Answer 32

5% of their bw/day

Question 33

What type of virus is papular stomatitis?

Answer 33

parapox virus (DS DNA)

Question 34

What is the underlying mechanism of papular stomatitis?

Answer 34

epidermitis

Question 35

What should we see via biopsy that is diagnostic for Papular stomatitis?

Answer 35

eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies

Question 36

What is an important thing to note about the lesions papular stomatitis creates?

Answer 36

they have a raised rim and may be ulcerated/eroded in the center of the lesion

Question 37

What is the scientific name of Orf and what type of virus is it?

Answer 37

Contagious Ecthyma parapox virus (DS DNA)

Question 38

What is the underlying mechanism of Contagious Ecthyma?

Answer 38

epidermitis

Question 39

Where are ORF lesions most common?

Answer 39

muccocutaneous lesions of the face, coranary band, vulvular and teats

Question 40

Should the vaccine be given to a flock that has not yet had orf? why?

Answer 40

NO it is a live form of the virus that is given at the mucocutaneous site and should only be used in flocks that have an ORF problem.

Question 41

Is Contagious Ecythma zoonotic?

Answer 41

yes wear gloves!

Question 42

How do you diagnose ORF?

Answer 42

histopath of lesions will show intracytoplasmic inclusions

Question 43

Is vesicular stomatitis a reportable disease? What type of virus is it?

Answer 43

YES! Rhabdovirus (SS RNA)

Question 44

What is the underlying mechanism of vesicular stomatitis?

Answer 44

has up to a 2 week incubation period then there is epidermitis that leads to transient vesicles

Question 45

How should I diagnose Vesticular Stomatits?

Answer 45

I won't! i call the state vet.

Question 46

What age group of animals are most commonly affected by Vesicular Stomatitis?

Answer 46

older cows horses get a mild oral form of the disease

Question 47

What reportable disease are horses resistant to?

Answer 47

Foot and Mouth Disease

Question 48

How long will cattle with FMD shed the virus?

Answer 48

up to three years

Question 49

Who diagnoses FMD?

Answer 49

the state vet

Question 50

what is the underlying mechanism of Bluetongue?

Answer 50

vasculitis

Question 51

What type of virus is bluetongue?

Answer 51

orbivirus- it is a reportable disease!

Question 52

What two diseases are thought to be spread by Culicoides (midges)

Answer 52

bluetongue + epizootic hemorrhagic disease BOTH OF THESE ARE REPORTABLE DISEASES

Question 53

What is the underlying mechanism in epizootic hemorrhagic disease?

Answer 53

vasculits

Question 54

What species is epizootic hemorrhagic disease enzootic in?

Answer 54

white tail deer

Question 55

What type of virus is BVD?

Answer 55

Pestivirus (SS RNA). THIS IS A REPORTABLE DZ

Question 56

What are the two main syndromes that impact the GI tract of BVD and which do we see most commonly?

Answer 56

muccosal and acute BVD muccosal more common

Question 57

What clinical signs do we see with BVD?

Answer 57

transient high fever, diarrhea, leukopenia, oral ulcers, oculonasal discharge

Question 58

In what animals do we see mucosal disease BVD in?

Answer 58

in persistantly infected animals that subsequently become exposed to a non-cytopathic virus in utero btw 42-125 dys of gestation

Question 59

What type of virus is Malignant Catarrhal Fever and why is this important?

Answer 59

it is a herpes virus therefore it has a period of latency -infected cattle can serve as the source of infection

Question 60

What animals are susceptible to Malignant Catarrhal fever?

Answer 60

cattle, bison there are wildebeest and sheep associated forms

Question 61

What is the underlying mechanism of Malignant Catarrhal fever?

Answer 61

Vasculitis

Question 62

What are clinical signs of Malignant Catarrhal fever

Answer 62

conjunctivitis with corneal edema, diarrhea, hematuria, encephalitis, lymphandenopathy

Question 63

What is lumpy jaw

Answer 63

its chronic osteomyelitis caused by actinomyces bovis that leads to lysis of bone on the mandible resulting in a bony swelling.

Question 64

Where do patients get exposed to actinomyces bovis?

Answer 64

it is thought to be a commensal oropharyngeal bacteria that invades bone via mucosal lesions or erupting teeth

Question 65

Is actinomyces bovis gram + or -?

Answer 65

gram +

Question 66

How do you diagnose lumpy jaw? How do you tx it?

Answer 66

radiographs iodides but don't have great efficacy against bone lesions

Question 67

What type of bacteria causes wooden tongue?

Answer 67

actinobacillus lignieressi

Question 68

What is the difference between the mass in lumpy jaw and wooden tongue?

Answer 68

wooden tongue will have a ST mass; lumpy jaw will have a hard bony mass

Question 69

Where does wooden tongue most commonly affect sheep?

Answer 69

the lip dz is rare in goats

Question 70

What happens if ruminants are unable to swallow their saliva?

Answer 70

rapidly dehydrate, develop metabolic acidosis and become electrolyte depleted

Question 71

How much of the animals bodyweight is due to the rumen + reticulum? What is the capacity?

Answer 71

20% in adult cattle 150-250 L

Question 72

What type of epithelium is the forestomach lined with? What does it quickly absorb?

Answer 72

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium non-ionized lipid soluble molecules quickly

Question 73

What are the 5 products of fermentation

Answer 73

Butyrate Acetate (makes up 60% Of VFA produced Proprionate water Carbon dioxide Methane

Question 74

What product of fermentation is higher when a cow is on a high grain content diet?

Answer 74

Propionate

Question 75

What product of fermentation is higher with more fibrous diets?

Answer 75

Butyrate (remember this is what helps develop the rumen!)

Question 76

What size particles can pass into the omentum

Answer 76

6 mm and smaller

Question 77

what controls rumen contractions neurologically?

Answer 77

medulla oblangata the rumen has no innate motility

Question 78

Sensory and motor input to the rumen pass along _?

Answer 78

the vagus nerves

Question 79

What factors increase rumen contraction?

Answer 79

-low threshold tension receptor (decently full rumen) -very acidic abomasum -Scratch factor -Chewing

Question 80

What factors decrease rumen contraction or have inhibitory input?

Answer 80

high threshold tension receptors (overfilling of rumen) rumen acidity pain

Question 81

What does successful eructation require?

Answer 81

clearance of ingesta from the cardia

Question 82

Role of omasum

Answer 82

resorbs fluid and filters back large particles regulator of transport from forestomach to true stomach

Question 83

Role of abomasum

Answer 83

acid digestion pH of 2-4

Question 84

Role of spiral colon

Answer 84

water reabsorption

Question 85

What animals have a poorly developed spiral colon

Answer 85

"mountain ruminants" - cattle only have 3 loops whereas sheep and goats have 10

Question 86

What does a heart rate over 96 suggest?

Answer 86

volvulus, pain or toxemia

Question 87

What is the normal hr?

Answer 87

60-80

Question 88

What is the scooch test

Answer 88

cow will ventroflex after you squeeze the withers if p has cranial abdominal pain they won't scooch

Question 89

What is the normal rumen pH

Answer 89

6.5

Question 90

The increase in pH due to _____ is far greater than any decrease due to _______

Answer 90

anorexia; abomasal reflux

Question 91

What does the new methylene blue test tell you? (eval of rumen consistency)

Answer 91

gives you an estimate of anaerobic microbial fxn NMB should be gone in 5 min

Question 92

What does a "normal" sedimentation test look like? (eval of rumen consistancy)

Answer 92

normal fluid should stay in suspension for over 5 minutes