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LAM > CEBRA notes LA Exam 1 > Flashcards

CEBRA notes LA Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the ICF have high concentrations of?

A

potassium and phosphorus

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2
Q

What does the ECF have high concentrations of?

A

sodium, chloride and albumin

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3
Q

1 L=

A

1kg

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4
Q

At what percent dehydration will large animals appear clinically normal?

A

6%

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5
Q

Why are RBC indices and blood TP so variable in LA?

A

horses have splenic contractions

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6
Q

If an animal is in shock, what is the highest amount of fluids they can receive asap (within 1 hr)?

A

up to their blood volume so
6% of their body weight so 0.06 x bw in kgs

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7
Q

What ions are lost by the body rapidly via anorexia for ex?

A

potassium and chloride

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8
Q

When would I use 7% NaCl (hypertonic saline)

A

animals that are having a severe hypovolemic crisis

remember to follow with more conventional fluids

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9
Q

What type of fluids are most effective for shock caused by acute blood loss?

A

Hypertonic fluids

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10
Q

Other than a hypovolemic crisis, when else would using hypertonic fluids be helpful?

A

hyponatremia
hypochloremia

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11
Q

What is a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis (secretional) so bicarb loss, going to respond the best to fluid wise?

A

fluids containing a base

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12
Q

What is the cut off value for blood pH that warrants correction to maintain enzyme function? What should you give?

A

blood pH < 7.25
give bicarb!

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13
Q

What is normal blood bicarb?

A

24 mEq/L

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14
Q

Why is it important to only give 50% of the bicarb deficit as a bolus or to give the entire deficit of a 2-4 hour period?

A

to prevent paradoxical cerebral acidosis

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15
Q

A patient with metabolic alkalosis should be given what type of fluid?

A

a fluid with no base buffer such as 0.9%NaCl because these patients already have too much base!

Treat any deficits slowly!

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16
Q

What is hypernatremia and hyperchloremia best treated with in regard to fluids?

A

fluids that mimick normal plasma so Normasol or LRS

acute derangements can be txd with 5% dextrose or 0.45% saline

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17
Q

What fluids should be used to tx hyponatremia?

A

isotonic polyionic fluids OR hypertonic fluids containing supplemental NaCl or NaHCO3

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18
Q

What is an extremely common electrolyte abnormality that you will see in hoofstock that have been off feed for any length of time?

A

hypokalemia!

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19
Q

What does too rapid of administration of potassium pose a risk for and why?

A

bradycardia and cardiac arrest

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20
Q

What is the general rule of thumb for how much potassium supplementation a LA will receive?

A

0.5 mEq/kg bw/hr

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21
Q

What may be used to combat severe hyperkalemia?

A

dextrose containing fluids + insulin

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22
Q

Why should calcium be administered slowly?

A

bc its cardiotoxic

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23
Q

What should I avoid mixing banamine with?

A

calcium
LRS

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24
Q

What is the normal Ca2+ value in LA

A

10 mEq/dL

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25
Q

What is the equiation for calcium deficit?

A

Deficit= ECFx Bw in kgs x (desired calcium - measured) x 10 dl/L x 1L/kg x 1gm/1000 mg

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26
Q

Hypoproteinemia is the result of what

A

loss of vascular oncotic pressure

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27
Q

Blood and plasma should be given through what type of IV

A

a filtered IV set

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28
Q

What is the daily water requirement for horses and cows

A

Horses: 4-6% bw
cattle: 7-10% bw

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29
Q

What is the neonate requirement for fluids?

A

10% of their body weight per day

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30
Q

How much does the water requirement increase when there is fever, high ambient temp. activity, lactation, etc.?

A

2-3 fold

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31
Q

What is the daily potassium requirement of hoofstock?

A

1.2 mEq/kg/day

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32
Q

What is the maintenence amount of IV fluids for an adult horse?

A

5% of their bw/day

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33
Q

What type of virus is papular stomatitis?

A

parapox virus (DS DNA)

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34
Q

What is the underlying mechanism of papular stomatitis?

A

epidermitis

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35
Q

What should we see via biopsy that is diagnostic for Papular stomatitis?

A

eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies

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36
Q

What is an important thing to note about the lesions papular stomatitis creates?

A

they have a raised rim and may be ulcerated/eroded in the center of the lesion

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37
Q

What is the scientific name of Orf and what type of virus is it?

A

Contagious Ecthyma
parapox virus (DS DNA)

38
Q

What is the underlying mechanism of Contagious Ecthyma?

A

epidermitis

39
Q

Where are ORF lesions most common?

A

muccocutaneous lesions of the face, coranary band, vulvular and teats

40
Q

Should the vaccine be given to a flock that has not yet had orf? why?

A

NO it is a live form of the virus that is given at the mucocutaneous site and should only be used in flocks that have an ORF problem.

41
Q

Is Contagious Ecythma zoonotic?

A

yes wear gloves!

42
Q

How do you diagnose ORF?

A

histopath of lesions will show intracytoplasmic inclusions

43
Q

Is vesicular stomatitis a reportable disease? What type of virus is it?

A

YES!
Rhabdovirus (SS RNA)

44
Q

What is the underlying mechanism of vesicular stomatitis?

A

has up to a 2 week incubation period then there is epidermitis that leads to transient vesicles

45
Q

How should I diagnose Vesticular Stomatits?

A

I won’t! i call the state vet.

46
Q

What age group of animals are most commonly affected by Vesicular Stomatitis?

A

older cows

horses get a mild oral form of the disease

47
Q

What reportable disease are horses resistant to?

A

Foot and Mouth Disease

48
Q

How long will cattle with FMD shed the virus?

A

up to three years

49
Q

Who diagnoses FMD?

A

the state vet

50
Q

what is the underlying mechanism of Bluetongue?

A

vasculitis

51
Q

What type of virus is bluetongue?

A

orbivirus- it is a reportable disease!

52
Q

What two diseases are thought to be spread by Culicoides (midges)

A

bluetongue + epizootic hemorrhagic disease

BOTH OF THESE ARE REPORTABLE DISEASES

53
Q

What is the underlying mechanism in epizootic hemorrhagic disease?

A

vasculits

54
Q

What species is epizootic hemorrhagic disease enzootic in?

A

white tail deer

55
Q

What type of virus is BVD?

A

Pestivirus (SS RNA).
THIS IS A REPORTABLE DZ

56
Q

What are the two main syndromes that impact the GI tract of BVD and which do we see most commonly?

A

muccosal and acute BVD
muccosal more common

57
Q

What clinical signs do we see with BVD?

A

transient high fever, diarrhea, leukopenia, oral ulcers, oculonasal discharge

58
Q

In what animals do we see mucosal disease BVD in?

A

in persistantly infected animals that subsequently become exposed to a non-cytopathic virus in utero btw 42-125 dys of gestation

59
Q

What type of virus is Malignant Catarrhal Fever and why is this important?

A

it is a herpes virus therefore it has a period of latency
-infected cattle can serve as the source of infection

60
Q

What animals are susceptible to Malignant Catarrhal fever?

A

cattle, bison
there are wildebeest and sheep associated forms

61
Q

What is the underlying mechanism of Malignant Catarrhal fever?

A

Vasculitis

62
Q

What are clinical signs of Malignant Catarrhal fever

A

conjunctivitis with corneal edema, diarrhea, hematuria, encephalitis, lymphandenopathy

63
Q

What is lumpy jaw

A

its chronic osteomyelitis caused by actinomyces bovis that leads to lysis of bone on the mandible resulting in a bony swelling.

64
Q

Where do patients get exposed to actinomyces bovis?

A

it is thought to be a commensal oropharyngeal bacteria that invades bone via mucosal lesions or erupting teeth

65
Q

Is actinomyces bovis gram + or -?

A

gram +

66
Q

How do you diagnose lumpy jaw? How do you tx it?

A

radiographs
iodides but don’t have great efficacy against bone lesions

67
Q

What type of bacteria causes wooden tongue?

A

actinobacillus lignieressi

68
Q

What is the difference between the mass in lumpy jaw and wooden tongue?

A

wooden tongue will have a ST mass; lumpy jaw will have a hard bony mass

69
Q

Where does wooden tongue most commonly affect sheep?

A

the lip
dz is rare in goats

70
Q

What happens if ruminants are unable to swallow their saliva?

A

rapidly dehydrate, develop metabolic acidosis and become electrolyte depleted

71
Q

How much of the animals bodyweight is due to the rumen + reticulum? What is the capacity?

A

20% in adult cattle
150-250 L

72
Q

What type of epithelium is the forestomach lined with? What does it quickly absorb?

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
non-ionized lipid soluble molecules quickly

73
Q

What are the 5 products of fermentation

A

Butyrate
Acetate (makes up 60% Of VFA produced
Proprionate
water
Carbon dioxide
Methane

74
Q

What product of fermentation is higher when a cow is on a high grain content diet?

A

Propionate

75
Q

What product of fermentation is higher with more fibrous diets?

A

Butyrate (remember this is what helps develop the rumen!)

76
Q

What size particles can pass into the omentum

A

6 mm and smaller

77
Q

what controls rumen contractions neurologically?

A

medulla oblangata
the rumen has no innate motility

78
Q

Sensory and motor input to the rumen pass along _?

A

the vagus nerves

79
Q

What factors increase rumen contraction?

A

-low threshold tension receptor (decently full rumen)
-very acidic abomasum
-Scratch factor
-Chewing

80
Q

What factors decrease rumen contraction or have inhibitory input?

A

high threshold tension receptors (overfilling of rumen)
rumen acidity
pain

81
Q

What does successful eructation require?

A

clearance of ingesta from the cardia

82
Q

Role of omasum

A

resorbs fluid and filters back large particles
regulator of transport from forestomach to true stomach

83
Q

Role of abomasum

A

acid digestion
pH of 2-4

84
Q

Role of spiral colon

A

water reabsorption

85
Q

What animals have a poorly developed spiral colon

A

“mountain ruminants” - cattle only have 3 loops whereas sheep and goats have 10

86
Q

What does a heart rate over 96 suggest?

A

volvulus, pain or toxemia

87
Q

What is the normal hr?

A

60-80

88
Q

What is the scooch test

A

cow will ventroflex after you squeeze the withers
if p has cranial abdominal pain they won’t scooch

89
Q

What is the normal rumen pH

A

6.5

90
Q

The increase in pH due to _____ is far greater than any decrease due to _______

A

anorexia; abomasal reflux

91
Q

What does the new methylene blue test tell you? (eval of rumen consistency)

A

gives you an estimate of anaerobic microbial fxn
NMB should be gone in 5 min

92
Q

What does a “normal” sedimentation test look like? (eval of rumen consistancy)

A

normal fluid should stay in suspension for over 5 minutes

LAM (6 decks)

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