CDS Flashcards

1
Q

Give 2 methods of topical fluoride application for an 8-year old child

A
  • 22600ppm duraphat varnish
  • SDF 44,800Pppm
  • fluoride gel
  • fluoride toothpaste 1450ppm
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2
Q

What mechanism does topical fluoride prevent cavities?

A
  • promotes reminerilazation of enamel
  • fluoride ions absorbed into enamel forming fluoroapetite, making it more resistant to decay
  • inhibits bacteria growth
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3
Q

Outline the rationale behind using antibiotics in periodontology

A
  • Periodontal disease primarily caused by a bacteria (P. ginigivalis)
  • patient may be immunocompromised, antibiotics can prevent systemic infection
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4
Q

Indications for antibiotics for periodontology

A
  • patient is immunocompromised
  • infection is aggressive
  • all other treatments have been exhausted
  • signs of systemic infection
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5
Q

Reasons for carrying out obturation

A
  • prevents bacteria remaining in root canal from escaping to periodontal space via apical Forman
  • prevents bacteria reaching and infecting root tissue from coronal leakage
  • prevents infection of root from peri-radicular exudate
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6
Q

Cold lateral compaction steps

A
  • choose appropriate GP master cone
  • mark length on cone to working length
  • place cone in canal and check for tug back
  • remove cone and coat in root sealer
  • place in canal
  • place accessory cones covered in sealer, utilising finger spreader to allow access
  • cut coronal end of gp and accessory cones using hot excavator just below acj
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7
Q

Minimum data that should be set on a record block

A
  • midline
  • canine line
  • alar-tragal line
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8
Q

Technical term for dry socket

A

alveolar osteitis

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9
Q

predisposing factors for dry socket

A
  • female
  • taking oral contraceptives
  • mandible
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10
Q

Dry socket signs and symptoms

A
  • dull aching pain
  • moderate to severe
  • bad taste
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11
Q

Dry socket management

A
  • la
  • analgesia
  • irrigation with warm saline
  • antiseptic pack
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12
Q

Factors affecting denture retention

A
  • depth of undercuts
  • thickness of alveolar ridge
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13
Q

2 materials that can be used for impressions on mandible

A
  • alginate
  • greenstick compound
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14
Q

Term for an unpleasant sensation or pain

A
  • dysaesthesia
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15
Q

Term for tingling

A

Paraesthesia

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16
Q

reduced sensation

A

hypoaesthesia

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17
Q

increased sensation

A

hyperaesthesia

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18
Q

neuropraxia

A

contusion of nerve
- continuity of epieneural sheath and axons maintained

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19
Q

Axonomesis

A

Axon damaged
- epieneural/myelin sheath intact

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20
Q

Neurotmesis

A
  • complete loss of nerve continuity
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21
Q

Types of tooth bleaching

A
  • external vital bleaching
  • internal non-vital bleaching
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22
Q

Active agent in vital external bleaching

A

Carbamide peroxide

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23
Q

Proportion of people with bleaching sensitivity

A

60%

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24
Q

Post-bleaching sensitivity risk factors

A
  • pre-existing sensitivity
  • high conc of bleaching agent
  • bleaching method
  • gingival recession
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25
Q

How can the pulp communicate with the PDL?

A
  • via apical foramen
  • via furcal canals
  • via lateral/accessory canals
  • via exposed dentine tubules
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26
Q

Best time to extract 6s

A

When furcations form on the 7s

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27
Q

Biofilm formation stages

A
  • Attachment
  • colonisation
  • accumulation to form complex community
  • dispersal
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28
Q

Reasons why a mesial overhang could occur when placing an amalgam restoration

A
  • poor matrix band adaption
  • amalgam condensed with too much force
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29
Q

Consequences of a digit sucking habit

A
  • proclained upper incisors
  • retroclined lower incisors
  • anterior open bite
  • narrow upper arch
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30
Q

What is meant by a localised cause of malocclusion

A

localised problem within either arch, usually confined to 1,2 or several teeth, causing a malocclusion

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31
Q

Types of supernumerary teeth

A
  • conical
  • tuberculate
  • supplemental
  • odontome
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32
Q

Stainless steel constituents and proportions

A
  • 72% iron
  • 18% chromium
  • 8% nickel
  • 1.7% titanium
  • 0.3% carbon
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33
Q

constituents of steel

A

> 98% iron
<2% carbon

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34
Q

disadvantages of self cured PMMA

A
  • poor mechanical properties
  • residual monomer may remain - can cause allergy
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35
Q

Factors which can result in tooth mobility

A
  • bruxism
  • trauma
  • Periodontal disease
  • dental abscess
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36
Q

Structures innervated by mental nerve

A

chin and lower lip

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37
Q

position of mental foramen

A

between lower 4 and 5

38
Q

Peri operative complications in extraction

A
  • difficult access
  • abnormal resistance
  • fracture of tooth
  • jaw fracture
  • soft tissue damage
  • haemorrhage
  • dislocation of TMJ
  • adjacent tooth damage
  • broken instruments
    -wrong tooth extracted
39
Q

preventative dental team management

A

raising concerns with parents, offering support, setting targets, record keeping and monitoring progress

40
Q

preventive multi-agency management

A
  • leasing with other professionals to see if concerns are shared
  • check if child is subject to child protection plan
  • agree joint plan of action
41
Q

Non accidental injury examples

A
  • black eyes
  • intra oral injuries
  • inner aspects of thighs
  • pinch marks on ears
  • soft tissue of cheeks
42
Q

oro-facial signs of physical abuse

A
  • brushing of face - punch, slap, pinch
  • bruising of ears - pinch, pull
  • abrasions and lacerations
  • burns
  • bites
  • choke marks on neck
  • eye injuries
  • hair pulling
  • fractures - nose, mandible, zygoma
43
Q

Aims of suturing

A
  • reposition tissues
  • cover bone
  • prevent wound breakdown
  • achieve haemostasis
  • encourage healing by primary intention
44
Q

Why is an electrical handpiece used in bone removal during a surgical extraction?

A

air driven handpiece may lead to surgical emphysema

45
Q

type of bur used for bone removal and tooth division in oral surgery

A

round or fissure tungsten carbide bur

46
Q

Oral surgery flap designs

A
  • semi-lunar
  • triangular
  • rectangular
47
Q

Silane coupling agent use in porcelain restorations

A
  • applied to etched porcelain surface
  • forms strong chemical bond between oxide groups on porcelain and silane
  • other end of silane molecules has C=C bond which reacts with composite resin luting agent
48
Q

Apixaban mechanism of action

A

inhibits prothrombinase activity

49
Q

Amoxycillin prescription dose and frequency

A

500mg 3 times daily for 7 days

50
Q

Metronidazole prescription dose and frequency

A

400mg 3 times daily for 5 days

51
Q

Drugs with possible interactions with warfarin

A
  • metronidazole
  • NSAIDs
  • azole antifungals
52
Q

MRONJ management

A
  • avoid invasive treatment
  • extractions in primary care setting
53
Q

MRONJ risk factors

A
  • duration and dose of bisphosphonate drug therapy
  • dental treatment - impact on bone
  • other concurrent medication e.g. steroids
54
Q

outline the differential pressure theory in relation to orthodontics

A
  • bone is resorbed in areas of compression
  • bone is deposited in areas of tension
55
Q

functional cusps

A
  • cusps that occlude with opposing teeth in the intercuspal position
  • lingual cusps of upper posterior teeth
  • buccal cusps of lower posterior teeth
56
Q

non-functional cusps

A
  • cusps that do not occlude with opposing teeth in the intercuspal position
  • buccal cusps of upper posterior teeth
  • lingual cusps of lower posterior teeth
57
Q

fossa

A
  • depression or concavity on tooth surface
58
Q

overbite

A
  • vertical overlap of incisors
59
Q

overjet

A

relationship between upper and lower teeth in horizontal plane

60
Q

cross bite

A

a condition where one or more teeth may be abnormally malpositioned bucally or labially with reference to opposing teeth

61
Q

anterior open bite

A

lack of vertical overlap of anterior teeth when posterior teeth are in full occlusion

62
Q

posterior open bite

A

failure of contact between the posterior teeth when the teeth are in full occlusion

63
Q

types of tooth movement

A
  • tipping
  • bodily movement
  • intrusion
  • extrusion
  • rotation
  • torque
64
Q

effects of light orthodontic forces

A
  • hyperaemia within PDL
  • remodelling of socket
  • PDL fibres reorganise
  • gingival fibres remain distorted
65
Q

Effects of moderate orthodontic forces

A
  • occlusion of vessels of PDL on pressure side
  • hyperaemia of vessels of PDL on tension side
  • cell free areas on pressure side
  • relatively rapid movement of tooth with bone deposition on tension side
  • tooth may become slightly loose
  • healing and remodelling of PDL
66
Q

Effects of excessive/heavy orthodontic forces

A
  • pain
  • necrosis and undermiming resorption resulting in permanent changes
  • anchorage loss
  • possible loss of tooth vitality
67
Q

Factors affecting response to orthodontic force

A
  • duration
  • magnitude
  • age
  • anatomy
68
Q

Posselts envelope: T

A

maximum opening
- no tooth contacts
- full translation of condyle over articular eminence

69
Q

Posselts envelope: ICP

A
  • Intercuspal position
  • maximum interdigitation of the teeth
  • best fit
  • also known as centric occlusion
70
Q

Posselts envelope: E

A
  • Edge to edge
  • incisal edges of upper and lower incisors touch
71
Q

Posselts envelope:: Pr

A
  • protrusion
  • condyle moves forwards and downwards on articular eminence
  • no posterior tooth contacts
  • only incisors +/- canines touch
72
Q

Posselts envelope: R

A

retruded axis position
- no tooth contacts
- terminal hinge axis
- most superior anterior position of condylar head in the fossa

73
Q

Posselts envelope: RCP

A

retruded contact position
- first tooth contact when mandible is in retruded axis position
- ICP approx 1mm anterior

74
Q

drug to treat candida in patient on warfarin and why

A
  • nystatin
  • azoles interact with warfarin enhancing effects
75
Q

Collimation Effects

A
  • lower surface area irradiated
  • lower volume of irradiated tissue
  • lower number of scattered photons produced in tissue
  • lower number of scattered photos interacting with receptor
  • loss of contrast on radiographic image
76
Q

why should a triangular collimator be used for a lateral cephalogram when not using a solid-state sensor?

A

to reduce exposure of the cranium

77
Q

Why is a rectangular collimator used over a circular?

A
  • it further restricts the size of the X-ray beam to the appropriate size of the intra-oral receptor
78
Q

ALARP stands for…

A

as low as reasonably possible

79
Q

How to assess antero-posterior skeletal relationship

A
  • palpating the mandible and maxilla
  • Frankfort mandibular plane angle
  • lateral cephalometry
80
Q

Types of supernumerary teeth

A
  • conical
  • tuberculate
  • supplemental
  • odontome
81
Q

Features of conical supernumerary

A
  • small, peg shaped
  • close to midline
  • may erupt
  • usually 1 or 2 in number
  • tend not to prevent eruption but may displace adjacent teeth
82
Q

features of a tuberculate supernumerary

A
  • tend not to erupt
  • paired
  • barrel shaped
  • usually extracted
  • one of main causes of failure of eruption of permanent upper incisors
83
Q

Supplemental supernumerary

A
  • extra teeth of normal morphology
  • most often upper laterals or lower incisors
  • often extract
84
Q

odontome supernumerary

A
  • compound
  • complex - disorganised mass of dentine, pulp and enamel
85
Q

Chronic oro-antral fistula management options

A
  • excise sinus tract
  • buccal advancement flap
  • buccal fat pad with buccal advancement flap
  • palatal flap
  • bone graft
86
Q

MRONJ management

A

prevent invasive treatment
extract in primary care setting

87
Q

infective endocarditis prophylaxis options

A
  • amoxycillin 3g oral powder sachet 60 mins before procedure
  • clindamycin capsules 2x 300mg 60 mins before procedure
  • azithromycin 200mg/5ml - 12.5ml/500mg 60 mins before
88
Q

local cause of malocclusion - define

A
  • a localised problem or abnormality within either arch, usually confined to one, two or several teeth, producing a malocclusion
89
Q

Types of local causes of malocclusion

A
  • variation in tooth number
  • variation in tooth size
  • local abnormalities of soft tissues
  • local pathology
  • abnormalities in tooth position
90
Q

Amoxycillin frequency and dose

A
  • 500mg 3x a day for 5 days
91
Q

Metronidazole frequency and dose

A

400mg 3x a day for 5 days

92
Q

Penicillin 5 frequency and dose

A

2x 250mg tablets 4x a day for 5 days