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3D1X2 > CDC Z3D152 > Flashcards

CDC Z3D152 Flashcards

1
Q

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

A

Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

A

Technical security

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3
Q

What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

A

Core competency

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4
Q

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

A

25

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5
Q

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

A

Stress

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6
Q

What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

A

Risk management

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7
Q

How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

A

Five

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8
Q

Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

A

Apply the RM process continuously

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9
Q

An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

A

I

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10
Q

How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

A

Two

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11
Q

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

A

install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

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12
Q

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

A

6

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13
Q

Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

A

IP telephony

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14
Q

You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

A

consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).

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15
Q

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

A

passive and active.

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16
Q

Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

A

passive only.

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17
Q

One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

A

uses very few network resources.

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18
Q

The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

A

consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

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19
Q

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

A

Network-based.

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20
Q

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

A

Host-based.

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21
Q

What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

A

Open.

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22
Q

What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

A

Set a login ID and password combination for access.

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23
Q

What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

A

Digital.

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24
Q

The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

A

the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

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25
Q

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

A

B

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26
Q

Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone

A

C

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27
Q

What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

A

Distance and angle

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28
Q

Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

A

Zoning

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29
Q

Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

A

It is expensive.

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30
Q

Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form.

A

Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

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31
Q

Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

A

Electrical.

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32
Q

What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

A

10 ohms or less.

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33
Q

Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

A

1 milliohm.

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34
Q

What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

A

Mechanical

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35
Q

Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

A

Cable.

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36
Q

Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 - 999 volts?

A

Class I.

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37
Q

Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

A

Walking across carpet.

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38
Q

Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

A

Spike.

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39
Q

Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as “offline”?

A

Passive standby.

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40
Q

Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?

A

Double conversion.

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41
Q

How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

A

Three.

42
Q

What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial alternate current [AC] power available)?

A

They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.

43
Q

Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?

A

The number of AC converters required for the facility.

44
Q

Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

A

TO 31-10 series.

45
Q

How are connectorized cables labeled?

A

The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

46
Q

The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable

A

does not radiate energy.

47
Q

Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

A

Shielded.

48
Q

The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a

A

binder.

49
Q

What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

A

Tip and Ring.

50
Q

Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

A

White/orange.

51
Q

What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?

A

Crossover.

52
Q

What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

A

RJ-45.

53
Q

What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

A

The use of light-emitting diodes.

54
Q

What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?

A

1,000°C.

55
Q

Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?

A

Multimode step index fiber.

56
Q

What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable?

A

Scribe.

57
Q

When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

A

flat and level.

58
Q

When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

A

Common.

59
Q

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

A

Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

60
Q

The purpose of a breakout box is to

A

allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.

61
Q

The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to

A

allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

62
Q

What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?

A

Cross-patching of individual interface conductors.

63
Q

What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?

A

Distortion.

64
Q

What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

A

Microprocessor.

65
Q

What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

A

Real-time.

66
Q

What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?

A

The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.

67
Q

What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

A

Bipolar violation.

68
Q

Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

A

Receiver.

69
Q

When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?

A

Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.

70
Q

What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

A

Packet internetwork groper (PING).

71
Q

What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

A

Trace route.

72
Q

What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

A

Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

73
Q

Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

A

Filter.

74
Q

Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

A

Blackout.

75
Q

What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?

A

Protocol statistics.

76
Q

What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

A

Node discovery.

77
Q

What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

A

Core, cladding, and jacket.

78
Q

Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

A

5

79
Q

Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

A

Noise.

80
Q

What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

A

Protection from lightning.

81
Q

Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

A

Lightning protection.

82
Q

To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

A

All personnel.

83
Q

Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

A

Nuclear.

84
Q

When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

A

they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

85
Q

When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

A

supervisor.

86
Q

Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

A

457.

87
Q

Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

A

CURSORS control.

88
Q

What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?

A

Sample mode.

89
Q

Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

A

waveform points.

90
Q

How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?

A

12-24 hours.

91
Q

Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

A

Upper.

92
Q

What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

A

Shielding.

93
Q

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the “signal ground” and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

A

Signal reference.

94
Q

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

A

Fault protection.

95
Q

What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

A

Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

96
Q

Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD’s TEMPEST program?

A

7700.

97
Q

What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

A

7000.

98
Q

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

A

3.

99
Q

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

A

7.

100
Q

Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

A

Voice network systems.

3D1X2 (7 decks)

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