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3D1X2 > 3D172 Vol 1 > Flashcards

3D172 Vol 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic
Data Processing Test?

A

Computer Systems Programming.

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill
level?

A

Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

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3
Q

Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may
have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

A

Communications Focal Point.

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4
Q

What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

A

MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.

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5
Q

Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

A

at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

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6
Q

Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization
and is used as a tool to manage positions?

A

Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

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7
Q

Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system
or support function?

A

Program Element Code (PEC).

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager
(AFCFM)?

A

Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

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9
Q

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field
Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

A

MAJCOM Functional Manager.

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10
Q

Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training
Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training
resourcing?

A

Segment 2.

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11
Q

Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team
(STRT)?

A

Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

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12
Q

Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

A

AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.

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13
Q

What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan
(CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements
Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

A

Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).

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14
Q

What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with
an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

A

Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC)
monitor?

A

Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).

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16
Q

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

A

Flight Commander/Chief.

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17
Q

Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the
work center?

A

Job Qualification Standard.

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18
Q

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve
Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

A

120.

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19
Q

Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

A

Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in
the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at
the least possible cost.

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20
Q

How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

A

6

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21
Q

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

A

AF Form 55.

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22
Q

Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

A

Job Safety Training (JST).

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23
Q

Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?

A

Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

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24
Q

Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

A

AFTO Form 22.

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25
Q

Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

A

Flight commander/chief.

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26
Q

Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

A

American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

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27
Q

Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

A

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

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28
Q

Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

A

The authoring OPR’s supervisor.

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29
Q

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain
through all federal and non-federal systems?

A

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

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30
Q

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by
United States Code (USC) Title

A

10

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31
Q

Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are
established in United States Code (USC)

A

32

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32
Q

Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and
private websites?

A

Wing Commander.

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33
Q

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

A

misuse of position.

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34
Q

Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

A

Military Construction (MILCON).

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35
Q

What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and
Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

A

$750,000.

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36
Q

In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all
responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

A

64-117.

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37
Q

At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation,
administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

A

Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

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38
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC)
cardholders?

A

Funds accountability.

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39
Q

Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

A

AFI 10-401.

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40
Q

Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

A

Air Force Chief of Staff.

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41
Q

Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally
presented?

A

Wing.

42
Q

Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

A

36-2845.

43
Q

What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer
(SAF/CIO) annual awards?

A

1 October - 30 September.

44
Q

The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

A

63.

45
Q

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

A

Keyboard.

46
Q

A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

A

No more than 20.

47
Q

Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

A

Positive.

48
Q

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer
failure?

A

Norton Utilities.

49
Q

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System
Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

A

Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

50
Q

Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

A

Data Link.

51
Q

Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

A

Network.

52
Q

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

A

Transport.

53
Q

What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

A

Defense Information Systems Agency.

54
Q

Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

A

The customer.

55
Q

What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

A

Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.

56
Q

In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must
happen before data is transmitted between clients?

A

Connection establishment.

57
Q

What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

A

Sliding Window.

58
Q

Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?

A

Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

59
Q

How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

A

32

60
Q

What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

A

Class A.

61
Q

What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

A

Class C.

62
Q

What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?

A

Class D.

63
Q

What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

A

127.0.0.1

64
Q

Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

A

Colon Hexadecimal Format.

65
Q

The range of well-known port numbers is

A

0 to 1023.

66
Q

Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

A

Port 8080.

67
Q

The design of communications network is known as

A

network architecture.

68
Q

What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common
communications line within a small geographic area?

A

Local Area Network (LAN).

69
Q

What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or
region like a city?

A

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

70
Q

Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?

A

802.11b

71
Q

Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

A

802.11n.

72
Q

What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?

A

Physical.

73
Q

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized
component?

A

Star.

74
Q

Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of
transmission rates of

A

144 Kbps.

75
Q

A modem is a device that

A

modulates and demodulates data signals.

76
Q

What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

A

Bridge.

77
Q

Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and

A

transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork .

78
Q

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

A

2

79
Q

What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?

A

Link encryption.

80
Q

Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?

A

Coaxial cable.

81
Q

Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

A

Twisted pair cable.

82
Q

What is the most common wireless networking standard?

A

802.11.

83
Q

What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

A

Law, Authority, Policy.

84
Q

What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

A

Title 10.

85
Q

Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary
protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report
suspicious/malicious activity?

A

Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

86
Q

Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor?

A

Information Superiority.

87
Q

What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary’s, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

A

Careful planning.

88
Q

Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary’s use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

A

Electronic attack.

89
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

A

EW concerns radiated energy.

90
Q

Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

A

Incident Response.

91
Q

Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to
ensure timely delivery of critical information?

A

Proactive Defense.

92
Q

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

A

Supervisory System.

93
Q

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors
in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

A

Remote Terminal Unit.

94
Q

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

A

Spam.

95
Q

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

A

Patches.

96
Q

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

A

Biometrics.

97
Q

Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

A

Knowledge-based.

98
Q

What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

A

Capacity Planning.

99
Q

Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a
particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

A

Authorizing Official (AO).

100
Q

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement
summarizes

A

full cost and recommended course of action.

3D1X2 (7 decks)

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