3D172 Vol 1

Question 1

Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic
Data Processing Test?

Answer 1

Computer Systems Programming.

Question 2

Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill
level?

Answer 2

Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

Question 3

Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may
have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

Answer 3

Communications Focal Point.

Question 4

What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

Answer 4

MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.

Question 5

Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

Answer 5

at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

Question 6

Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization
and is used as a tool to manage positions?

Answer 6

Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

Question 7

Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system
or support function?

Answer 7

Program Element Code (PEC).

Question 8

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager
(AFCFM)?

Answer 8

Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

Question 9

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field
Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Answer 9

MAJCOM Functional Manager.

Question 10

Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training
Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training
resourcing?

Answer 10

Segment 2.

Question 11

Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team
(STRT)?

Answer 11

Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

Question 12

Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Answer 12

AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.

Question 13

What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan
(CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements
Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Answer 13

Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).

Question 14

What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with
an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

Answer 14

Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

Question 15

Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC)
monitor?

Answer 15

Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).

Question 16

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

Answer 16

Flight Commander/Chief.

Question 17

Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the
work center?

Answer 17

Job Qualification Standard.

Question 18

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve
Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

Answer 18

120.

Question 19

Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Answer 19

Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in
the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at
the least possible cost.

Question 20

How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Answer 20

6

Question 21

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

Answer 21

AF Form 55.

Question 22

Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

Answer 22

Job Safety Training (JST).

Question 23

Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?

Answer 23

Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

Question 24

Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

Answer 24

AFTO Form 22.

Question 25

Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

Answer 25

Flight commander/chief.

Question 26

Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

Answer 26

American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

Question 27

Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Answer 27

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

Question 28

Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

Answer 28

The authoring OPR's supervisor.

Question 29

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

Answer 29

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

Question 30

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

Answer 30

10

Question 31

Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC)

Answer 31

32

Question 32

Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

Answer 32

Wing Commander.

Question 33

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

Answer 33

misuse of position.

Question 34

Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

Answer 34

Military Construction (MILCON).

Question 35

What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

Answer 35

$750,000.

Question 36

In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

Answer 36

64-117.

Question 37

At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

Answer 37

Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

Question 38

Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

Answer 38

Funds accountability.

Question 39

Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

Answer 39

AFI 10-401.

Question 40

Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

Answer 40

Air Force Chief of Staff.

Question 41

Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

Answer 41

Wing.

Question 42

Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

Answer 42

36-2845.

Question 43

What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

Answer 43

1 October - 30 September.

Question 44

The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

Answer 44

63.

Question 45

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

Answer 45

Keyboard.

Question 46

A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

Answer 46

No more than 20.

Question 47

Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

Answer 47

Positive.

Question 48

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

Answer 48

Norton Utilities.

Question 49

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

Answer 49

Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

Question 50

Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Answer 50

Data Link.

Question 51

Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Answer 51

Network.

Question 52

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Answer 52

Transport.

Question 53

What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

Answer 53

Defense Information Systems Agency.

Question 54

Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

Answer 54

The customer.

Question 55

What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

Answer 55

Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.

Question 56

In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

Answer 56

Connection establishment.

Question 57

What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

Answer 57

Sliding Window.

Question 58

Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?

Answer 58

Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

Question 59

How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

Answer 59

32

Question 60

What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Answer 60

Class A.

Question 61

What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

Answer 61

Class C.

Question 62

What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?

Answer 62

Class D.

Question 63

What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

Answer 63

127.0.0.1

Question 64

Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Answer 64

Colon Hexadecimal Format.

Question 65

The range of well-known port numbers is

Answer 65

0 to 1023.

Question 66

Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

Answer 66

Port 8080.

Question 67

The design of communications network is known as

Answer 67

network architecture.

Question 68

What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

Answer 68

Local Area Network (LAN).

Question 69

What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

Answer 69

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

Question 70

Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?

Answer 70

802.11b

Question 71

Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

Answer 71

802.11n.

Question 72

What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

Answer 72

Physical.

Question 73

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

Answer 73

Star.

Question 74

Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of

Answer 74

144 Kbps.

Question 75

A modem is a device that

Answer 75

modulates and demodulates data signals.

Question 76

What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

Answer 76

Bridge.

Question 77

Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and

Answer 77

transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork .

Question 78

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

Answer 78

2

Question 79

What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?

Answer 79

Link encryption.

Question 80

Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?

Answer 80

Coaxial cable.

Question 81

Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

Answer 81

Twisted pair cable.

Question 82

What is the most common wireless networking standard?

Answer 82

802.11.

Question 83

What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

Answer 83

Law, Authority, Policy.

Question 84

What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

Answer 84

Title 10.

Question 85

Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

Answer 85

Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

Question 86

Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?

Answer 86

Information Superiority.

Question 87

What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

Answer 87

Careful planning.

Question 88

Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

Answer 88

Electronic attack.

Question 89

Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

Answer 89

EW concerns radiated energy.

Question 90

Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

Answer 90

Incident Response.

Question 91

Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

Answer 91

Proactive Defense.

Question 92

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

Answer 92

Supervisory System.

Question 93

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

Answer 93

Remote Terminal Unit.

Question 94

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

Answer 94

Spam.

Question 95

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

Answer 95

Patches.

Question 96

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

Answer 96

Biometrics.

Question 97

Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

Answer 97

Knowledge-based.

Question 98

What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

Answer 98

Capacity Planning.

Question 99

Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

Answer 99

Authorizing Official (AO).

Question 100

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

Answer 100

full cost and recommended course of action.