CCRN CARDIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Atrial pressure is reflective of the end-diastolic pressure for _________________

A

the respective ventricles in the absence of AV valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Right atrial pressure (RAP) reflects

A

Right Ventricular Preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Left atrial pressure (LAP) reflects

A

Left Ventricular Preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pulmonary artery occlusive pressure (PAOP ) is an indirect measurement of?

A

Left atrial pressure (LAP) and therefore left ventricular end-diastolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Normal Pulmonary artery occlusive pressure (PAOP )

A

8 to 12mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pulmonary artery systolic pressure (PAs) is reflective of

A

The right ventricle because it is the pressure generated by the right ventricle to open the pulmonic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pulmonary artery dyastolic pressure (PAd) is reflective of

A

The pulmonary valsculature because it is the pressure in the pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor?

A

Prevents the enzyme from removing neurotransmitters norepinephrine, serotonine and dopamine from the brain making the chemicals available to effect changes in both cells and circuits that have been impacted by depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What kind of test is helpful to show myocardial damage

A

echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why would myocardial contusion cause dysrythmias?

A

trauma -> inflammation -> irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ASA inhibits what

A

platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does a BETA BLOCKER decrease myocardial O2 consumption?

A

decreasing heart rate and contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does a NITRATES decrease myocardial O2 consumption?

A

decreasing preload primarily and maybe afterload (depends on the dosage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does a CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKER decrease myocardial O2 consumption?

A

decreasing preload and afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is preload?

A

The volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole also known as the end diastolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is sterling’s law of the heart

A

preload determines the stretch on the myofibrils (filaments that run parallel to form muscle fibers) and the subsequent force of the next contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is afterload?

A

The pressure against which the ventricle must pump. The pressure required to open the semilunar valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

1st line of management to treat chronic HTN

A

diuretics and/or beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the 2nd line of tx for chronic HTN?

A

ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the goal in treating hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Decrease contractility and afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hypertrophy of the heart muscle results in what?

A

Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What class of meds is frequently prescribed in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Calcium channel blockers - verapamil (calan)

Beta Blockers - propranolol (inderal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

All murmurs are load except

A

mitral and tricuspid stenosis

24
Q

What causes the murmur of mitral valve prolapse?

A

mitral regurgitation

25
Describe the sound of mitral regurgitation murmurs
``` high pitched blowing systolic murmur loudest at apex radiates to axilla midsystolic click heard apex murmur follows the click i.e S1, click, murmur, S2 ```
26
Where is the apex of the heart?
Left inferior anterior | 5th left intercostal space @ MCL
27
Where is the base of the heart?
Right superior posterior | 2nd intercostal space
28
Where is the heart located?
in the mediastinum between the sternum and spine
29
What are the layers of the heart?
pericardium - outer wall of pericardial cavity (serous & firbous) epicardium - cover outer surface of heart (visceral pericardium) epicardial fat myocradium - muscle portion of heart endocardium - covers inner surface of heart
30
Flow of blood through heart
superior/inferior venae cavae, R atrium, tricuspid valve, R ventricle, pulmonic valve, pulmonary artery, pulmonary capillary, pulmonary veins, L atrium, mitral valve, L ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
31
What are the AV valves?
tricuspid and mitral
32
What are the semilunar valves?
aortic and pulmonic
33
What causes the first heart sound?
Closure of AV valves
34
AV valves open and close during
Open passively during diastole | Close during systole when heart contracts
35
What causes the second heart sound?
Closure of semilunar valves
36
Semilunar valves open and close during
Push open with systole | Close during diastole
37
Where are coronary arteries located?
On the epicardium but penetrates to myocardium and subendocardium.
38
What determines the blood flow through the coronary arteries?
autoregulation in response to metabolic needs of myocardium
39
What's the percentage of of cardiac output received by myocardium?
5%
40
Myocardial blood flow is increased by
Dilation of coronary arteries
41
Coronary artery perfusion pressure (CAPP) is equal to
the diastolic BP minus the pulmonary artery occlusive pressure (PAOP)
42
Normal CAPP value
60-80mm Hg
43
What determines myocardial O2 demand
preload afterload HR contractility
44
What determines myocardial O2 supply?
``` patent arteries diastolic pressure diastolic time O2 extraction (Hgb and SaO2) imbalances between supply and demand ```
45
A split S2 is abnormal during which one? Inspiration or expiration?
Expiration
46
Which drug is an alpha- and noncardioselective beta-blocker that is used for heart failure?
Carvedilol (Coreg)
47
Which drug is an alpha- and noncardioselective beta-blocker used most often for hypertension?
Labetalol (trandate)
48
Which facial nerve is checked after carotid endarterectomy and how do you assess it?
Cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) | Ask patient to smile and check for symetry
49
What are the therapeutic goals in acute heart failure?
To decrease preload, To decrease afterload, To increase contractility To decrease myocardial oxygen demand.
50
Which medication is given during acute heart failure to cause venodilation and to reduce preload?
Morphine sulfate
51
Which heart sound is an indication of diastolic dysfunction?
S4 | which is caused by ventricular noncompliance (inability of the heart to fill adequately)
52
Which heart sound is an indication of systolic dysfunction?
S3
53
Which heart sound is an indication of intracardiac turbulence such as a septal defect or valve problem?
Murmur
54
Which heart sound is an indication mitral valve prolapse?
Midsystolic click
55
A great way to remember what happens in the heart during diastole is to remember that
diastole equals filling
56
What are signs of cardiac tamponade?
Pulsus paradoxus Hypotension | Jugular venous distention
57
Which are two significant adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors (e.g., captopril [Capoten])?
Hyperkalemia & Proteinuria ACE inhibitors may cause hyperkalemia by inhibiting the secretion of aldosterone triggered by angiotensin II. Proteinuria also may occur, even leading to nephrotic syndrome and renal failure. Monitor serum potassium, and monitor urine for proteinuria.