Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A320 > CBT > Flashcards

CBT Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum pavement width for 180 turn (A320)?

A

22,90 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which part of the aircraft requires the greatest clearance during a turn?

A

The wingtip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Altitude limit for Flaps operation?

A

FL200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Flight envelope protection (bank and pitch)

A

Bank: 67 degrees
Pitch: +30 degrees, -15 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mach number displayed if >___

A

0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

DMC

A

Display management computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SDAC

A

System data acquisition concentrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

From what reference is the digital wind direction?

A

True north

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

From what reference is the analog wind direction?

A

Magnetic north

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When does the takeoff memo appear?

A

Two minutes after the second engine start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When does the landing memo appear and disappear?

A

Appears < 2000 ft (gear down)
or < 800 ft (gear up)

Disappears < 80 kt after landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When does the DECEL light below the speed tape appear?

A

When at least 80% of the selected deceleration is reached and it disappears when it falls below 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DFDR

A

Digital flight data recorder system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FDIU

A

Flight data interface unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

QAR

A

Quick access recorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Takeoff inhibit bis wann?

A

Bis 1500 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Landing inhibit von wann bis wann?

A

Ab 800 ft AGL bis 80 kt am Boden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Seat belts AUTO: Wann gehen sie aus und wann gehen sie wieder an?

A

Aus: Slat retraction
An: Slat Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All signs ON irrespective of switch position if cabin ALT >___?

A

11300 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Wann gehen die RWY turnoff lights und nose lights automatisch aus?

A

Mit gear retraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When does the APU AVAIL light go on?

A
  • APU at least 2s at 95% operating speed
  • GEN and BLEED available
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

APU shutdown delay after usage of APU BLEED? Why?

A
  • 60 - 120s for thermal stabilization
  • APU continues running with MASTER switch OFF
    (Exception: pushing APU fire switch)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

APU EMER SHUT DOWN when?

A
  • Fire detection on ground
  • APU SHUT OFF pb on external power panel
  • APU FIRE pb on overhead panel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ECB

A

Electronic control box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens when the APU master switch is selected ON?

A
  • the intake flap opens
  • the fuel isolation valve opens
  • the APU fuel pump operates if no tank pump is running
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When is the APU starter de-energized?

A

After 55% N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is the water service panel?

A

At the aft left fuselage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where is the waste service panel?

A

At the lower right side of the fuselage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the water tank capacity?

A

200l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the waste tank capacity?

A

170l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does the waste flushing work?

A

With differential pressure or a vacuum generator on ground and below 16000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

FMGS

A

Flight management and Guidance system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a pseudo waypoint?

A

A point that is not geographically fixed eg. TOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

FCU 1+2 Fault what does the ND show?

A
  • Rose Mode, Range 80NM
  • Needle 1 —> VOR 1
  • Needle 2 —> ADF 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What happens if you push the A/THR disconnect push button for more than 15 seconds?

A

The A/THR functions inclusive alpha floor protection is lost (recovered only on ground at next FMGC power up)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a common mode?

A

A combination of literal and vertical modes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the functions of the FAC?

A
  • yaw damping/ rudder travel limitation
  • Display of speeds (S, F, green dot)
  • responsible for triggering alpha floor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When do you have alpha floor protection?

A
  • from T/O until 100ft RA at landing
  • normal law and A/THR available
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When do you get a low energy warning?

A
  • between 100 and 2000 ft RA
  • config 2, 3, FULL
  • Normal law
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When does the FAC give you wind shear detection?

A
  • in all configs
  • from 1300 ft until 50 ft
  • independent of p/b on overhead panel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Required NAV accuracy (enroute, terminal, approach)?

A

Enroute: 3.41 NM
terminal: 2.07 NM
approach: 0.61 NM (VOR/DME)
0.36 NM (other cases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which FMGC modes are there?

A
  • Dual
  • single
  • Independent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When does the Automatic speed mode protection activate?

A
  • Vmax + 4 kt
  • Vls - 2 kt
  • FDs werden removed (im manual flight)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When is the autoland warning light armed?

A
  • below 200ft RA
  • LAND or FLARE on FMA in green
  • at least one AP engaged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When does the auto land warning light flash?

A
  • both APs fail
  • G/S between 200 ft and 100 ft > 1 dot
  • LOC between 200 ft and 100 ft > 0,25 dot
  • difference between RA 1 and 2 > 15 ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What happens if FCU 1+2 fail? (Ragarding Altimeter)

A

Baro 1013 is set automatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does it mean if the ADIRU fault light is steady on?

A

The IR (intertial reference) Part is completely lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does it mean if the ADIRU fault light is flashing?

A

It means that only the navigation capability is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Can you auto tune/manual tune when only one RMP is in Backup tuning?

A

No (es reicht wenn nur einer Backup tuned damit der andere über seine MCDU nichts mehr tunen kann)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Welche Sicherungen sind Monitored/not monitored?

A

Black = not monitored
Green = monitored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How much battery capacity equals 25.5 V?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is the AC bus supplying priority?

A
  1. Onside generator
  2. External power
  3. APU
  4. Offside generator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Above which airspeed does the RAT extend automatically?

A

> 100 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How long do the batteries last with Power on batteries only?

A

22 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Wie werden AC und DC ESS BUS versorgt solange die RAT noch nicht draußen ist?

A
  • BAT 1 supplies AC ESS BUS + AC inverter
  • BAT 2 supplies DC ESS BUS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Welche Hydraulic wird von der RAT betrieben?

A

B HYD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Wenn die RAT draußen ist und ein Generator geresetted werden konnte, übernimmt dieser?

A

Erstmal nicht, erst mit Gear down übernimmt er

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How are the hydraulic systems pressurized?

A

By engine 1 or Xbleed duct (all reservoirs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Welche fault lights bleiben bei einem Reservoir overheat am overhead panel an?

A

Das Licht der entsprechenden Pumpe und das der PTU (bei G/B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Wie viele ELACs, SECs und FACs gibt es?

A

2 ELACs
3 SECs
2 FACs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

By which flight control computer is the elevator and stabilizer control normally done?

A

ELAC 2 (if inop ELAC 1)

62
Q

What different servo jack modes are there?

A
  • active
  • damping
  • centering
63
Q

In what situation are both jacks in active mode?

A

If there is a high G load demand

64
Q

By which flight control computer is the THS normally trimmed?

A

ELAC 2

65
Q

By which flight control computer is aileron control normally done?

A

ELAC 1 (if inop ELAC 2)

66
Q

How many jacks does an aileron have?

A

2

67
Q

How many jacks does a spoiler have?

A

1

68
Q

Which flight control computer controls the spoilers?

A

SEC 1/2/3

(Roll order comes from ELAC)

69
Q

Which flight control computer controls rudder trim?

A

FAC 1 (if inop FAC 2)

70
Q

In case of FAC 1+2 fault the Rudder travel limit stays at the present limit. When is full rudder authority recovered?

A

At select extension

71
Q

Which spoilers are roll spoilers?

A

2-5

72
Q

Which spoilers are used for the speed break?

A

2-4

73
Q

When is the speed break inhibited?

A

When AOA protection is active or if FLAPS FULL

74
Q

How is ground condition defined?

A
  • Wheel Speed > 72 kt
  • RA < 6 ft and both MLG compressed
75
Q

Which hydraulic is needed for the ailerons?

A

B G —— G B

76
Q

Which hydraulic is needed for the spoilers?

A

G Y B Y G ——— G Y B Y G

77
Q

Which hydraulic is needed for the elevator?

A

B G ——— Y B

78
Q

Which hydraulic is needed for the THS?

A

G — Y

79
Q

Wann kommt die overspeed warning?

A

Vmo + 4 kt MMO +0.006 M

80
Q

ALTN LAW (reduced protection): Was ist low und high speed stability?

A

Leichte nose up/down Inputs vom Flieger, die man aber overriden kann

81
Q

Wann ist die Transition von ground Mode zu Flight Mode?

A
  • 5s nach liftoff
  • Pitch > 8
82
Q

Was passiert im Flare Mode?

A
  • attitude is memorized in 50ft
  • < 30ft the attitude is reduced to 2 pitch
83
Q

Wann geht es von Flare Mode in den ground Mode?

A
  • Aircraft on ground for > 5s
  • Pitch < 2,5
  • (in case of go around back to flight mode if >50ft)
84
Q

Im Normal law flight mode max roll rate?

A

15 degrees per s

85
Q

Max loadfactor?

A

Clean: 2,5 to - 1
All other configs: 2 to 0

86
Q

Flight envelope protection (Pitch):
CONFIG 0-3?
CONFIG FULL?

A

0-3: 30 degrees (25 at low speed)
FULL: 25 degrees (20 at low speed)

87
Q

Wie schaut die high Speed Protection aus?

A

Automatic pitch up moment, kein Thrust change if A/THR not active

88
Q

When does the low speed stability activate?

A

10s before the stall warning (ALTN law reduced protections)

89
Q

Wenn du F2 hast und F1 selectest, was passiert?

A
  • < 210 kt —> F1+F
  • > 210 kt —> F1
90
Q

Wann fahren die Flaps von 1+F automatisch auf 1?

A

210 kt

91
Q

When is Slat retraction from 1 to 0 inhibited?

A

If
- speed < 148 kt
- high AOA
- alpha Lock

92
Q

Vfe F1

A

230

93
Q

Vfe F1+F

A

215

94
Q

Vfe F2

A

200

95
Q

Vfe F3

A

185

96
Q

Vfe FULL

A

177

97
Q

How does the auto restow function work? (Regarding reverser)

A
  • at least one door I uncommanded open
  • engine running on ground with N1>70%
98
Q

EGT Green below ___?

A

855

99
Q

Above what N2 is FADEC self powered?

A

~ 12% N2

100
Q

Welche valves steuert der engine Master Lever direkt?

A

LP und HP FUEL valve

101
Q

How long is the fuel supply cut between automatic FADEC engine start attempts?

A

7 s

102
Q

Will the FADEC abort an engine start in flight?

A

No only on ground

103
Q

Was bedeutet ein Fault light unterm engine master?

A

Es gibt ein disagree zwischen Engine Master Position und dem HP fuel valve

(Das low pressure fuel valve sehe ich auf der Fuel page)

104
Q

Wo im Triebwerk sind die sensing Elements für die Fire detection?

A
  • pylon nacelle
  • engine core
  • fan section
105
Q

Was passiert bei einem APU Fire on ground?

A
  • automatic shutdown
  • automatic bottle discharge after 3s
106
Q

Wie viele smoke detectors gibt es pro cargo compartment?

A

1

107
Q

Was closed der ENG FIRE PB alles?

A
  • LP FUEL valve
  • HYD FIRE valve
  • ENG BLEED valve
  • PACK FLOW control valve
  • deactivates generator
  • cuts off FADEC power supply
108
Q

Ab welcher Temperatur wird die Nacellen Temperatur am SD angezeigt? (Advisory)

A

Ab 240 Grad

109
Q

Was passiert wenn man den GEN 1 line pb Switch ausschaltet?

A
  • one fuel pump per wing tank is supplied
  • AC BUS 1 supplied by GEN 2
110
Q

Kann man einen APU FIRE Test machen während die APU läuft?

A

Ja

111
Q

Was ist bei der caution ENG FIRE DET FAULT kaputt?

A

Both loops of the engine fire detection

112
Q

Was passiert, wenn beide Loops innerhalb von 5s failen?

A

Es gibt eine ENG FIRE warning

113
Q

Wie weit ist bei einer TA der CPA entfernt?

A

40s

114
Q

Wie weit ist bei einer RA der CPA entfernt?

A

15-35 s

115
Q

TCAS: What is the (vertical) tracking range and what is the normal display range?

A

Tracking: +-9900 ft
Display: +- 2700 ft

116
Q

What is the reaction time for the first and the second RA?

A

First: 5 s. (1500 fpm)
Second: 2,5 s (2500 fpm)

117
Q

Wann wird das armen des TCAS inhibited?

A
  • < 900 ft
  • WS, Stall, TAWS
118
Q

Von welcher LGCIU kommen die Green Triangels?

A

LGCIU 1

119
Q

Max Speed für gear extension?

A

260 kt
(Die Speed Info kommt von ADR1+3, also wenn die nicht gehen geht das gear auch nicht raus (nur mit Gravity Extension also))

120
Q

Wann kommt die L/G NOT DOWN Warnung?

A
  • RA < 750 ft and all Engines < 75% N1
  • RA < 750 ft and Flaps 1, 2, 3, FULL
  • Both RAs failed and F3, FULL
121
Q

Max NWS Angle?

A
  • if disconnected: 95 Grad
  • Handwheel: 75 Grad
  • Rudder: 6 Grad
122
Q

Ab welcher Geschwindigkeit lässt sich das Nosewheel nicht mehr steuern?

A
  • Handwheel ab 70 kt
  • Rudder ab 130 kt
123
Q

Wann geht nach dem takeoff die Autobrake aus?

A

10 s nach liftoff

124
Q

Wann greift die autobrake nach der Landung?

A

Low: 4 s
Med: 2 s

Jeweils nach Ground Spoiler deployment

125
Q

Ab welcher Temperatur gibt es einen green arc über einer Bremse auf der wheel page?

A

Ab 100 Grad

126
Q

Wie wird das gear über bzw. unter 260 kt oben gehalten?

A
  • über 260 kt: gear rests auf den Doors
  • unter 260 kt: by green hydraulic
127
Q

Geht bei ALTN Breaking anti Skid?

A

Ja allerdings eingeschränkt. Beide Seiten werden von dem rutschensten Reifen beeinflusst (dh. Sobald ein Reifen rutscht wird der Bremsdruck bei ALLEN Reifen verringert)

128
Q

Ab welcher Temperatur kommt eine BRAKES HOT Caution?

A

Ab 300 Grad

129
Q

Wann ist der gear lever locked in der down position?

A
  • LGCIU „on Ground“
  • Nose Wheel not centered
130
Q

Was bewirkt der A/SKID NWS Switch?

A

Der Cutted die Power zur BSCU

131
Q

Hat der A321 CTR TK PUMPS? (Gilt teilweise auch für A320)

A

Nur eine Jet Pump, die mit „Motive Flow“ von den Wing Tanks läuft und den Sprit vom CTR TK in den Wing Tank pumpt

132
Q

Was ist das FTIS?

A
  • Fuel Tank inerting System
  • provides oxygen depleted air in center tank
  • starts automatically when engines running
133
Q

Ist der Druck der CTR TK PUMPS oder der WING TK PUMPS größer?

A

Der Druck der CTR TK PUMPS ist grösser

134
Q

Wann werden die CTR TK PUMPS automatisch abgeschaltet?

A

Mit Slats extended

135
Q

Wie werden die Packs inflight und am Boden gekühlt?

A
  • Inflight mit cooling air
  • am Boden mit einem cooling fan
136
Q

Wie reguliert der Pack Controller die Temperatur?

A
  • Turbine bypass valve
  • cooling air
  • outlet flaps
137
Q

Sind beide Cargo compartments ventilated?

A

Nein nur das aft

138
Q

Was steuert der aft Isolation valve pb?

A
  • blower fan
  • inlet isolation valve
  • extract fan
  • outlet isolation valve
139
Q

Bei welchem Druck öffnet das safety valve?

A
  • 8,6 PSI
  • -1 PSI
140
Q

Welche Temperatur herrscht in der Mixing Unit?

A

Die niedrigste eingestellte Temperatur

141
Q

Wann ist bezüglich avionics Ventilation die Open bzw. closed Configuration vorhanden?

A
  • Skin temp > 12 degrees on gnd (open)
  • Skin temp < 9 degrees on gnd (closed)
  • intermediate inflight > 35 degrees
142
Q

When does the CPC change after landing?

A

3 min

143
Q

How many motors does the outflow valve have?

A

3 (2 for automatic operation, 1 for manual operation)

144
Q

Which valves does the Ram air on control?

A
  • ram air valve
  • outflow valve
145
Q

Was passiert mit den anti ice valves, in case of electrical power loss

A
  • engine anti ice —> ON
  • wing anti ice —> OFF
146
Q

An welchen Slats gibt es WING AI?

A

3,4,5

147
Q

Darf ich Wing anti ice von der APU Zapfen?

A

Nein

148
Q

Was passiert, wenn man WING AI am Boden anschaltet?

A

The valves open for a 30s test cycle, thereafter it is armed for Takeoff

149
Q

Wann ist window heat ON in Auto Mode?

A

With at least one engine running or inflight

(Windshield heat on ground in low power, inflight in normal power)

150
Q

Max wiper speed?

A

230 kt

151
Q

When is the CVR activated?

A

With first engine start

152
Q

When does the CVR switch off?

A

5 mins after last engine shutdown

A320 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions