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CB Flashcards

0
Q

Max. airspeed with one engine inoperative

90:
Airspeed limits

A

Max. airspeed with one engine inoperative

120 KIAS

80 KIAS

65 Knots

50 KIAS

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1
Q

93:

What will be your action if you get a full scale deviation on localizer on an ILS approach below 500 ft?

A

Execute Missed approach

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2
Q

88:

What is maximum allowed fuel imbalance between fuel tanks?

A

700 lbs

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3
Q

84:

What is Vmini (minimum airspeed for instrument flight)?

A

50 KIAS

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4
Q

70:

What is the transponder code for Hi-jacking?

A

7500

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5
Q

55:

At the Audio Control Panel, you have selected COM2 for transmitting. What about audio for the same radio ?

A

Audio is automatically turned on, and level may be adjusted, even if the selector is IN (the OFF position.)

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6
Q

69 & (new) 50:

Below what rotor RPM will the LOW ROTOR aural alert sound?

A

95%

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7
Q

52:

Where is the VHF Comm 1 antenna located ?

A

On the top of the fuselage

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8
Q

49:

What password do you enter if you want to change some of the preset frequency for COM and NAV in the RTU ?

A

No password needed for this

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9
Q

47:

What is the normal alignement time for the AHRS on ground and in air?

A

30 sec on ground and 2 min in air.

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10
Q

42:

Who provide/calculate Vertical Speed data?

A

The ADC in combination with the AHRS.

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11
Q

39:

Is it technically possible to select PFD layout at all of the MFD at the same time?

A

Yes

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12
Q

36:

What will be the reference airspeed for the AFCS if an engine fails during flight?

A

The Bucket speed

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13
Q

35:

What may be the situation if all the selected modes for FD are shown in yellow text at the upper part of the PFD?

A

The FD is active, but not coupled to the AP(s).

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14
Q

32:

Radio Altimeter is one of the inputs to the AFCS. For which modes are the RA input used?

A

R-ALT and DCL

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15
Q

29:

AC Generators and Hydraulic Pumps are driven by the:

A

Accessory Modules

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16
Q

28:

The IGB/TGB oil level detection system operates:

A

With WOW and rotors not running

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17
Q

8:

Immediate actions regarding Emergency Engine Restart are

A 
APU Control Switch ON (if time permits)
	Air Source Heat/Start ENGINE
	Engine Ignition AUTO
	Fuel Selector DIRECT or CROSSFEED
	Throttle (affected engine) OFF
	Engine Start Button PRESS
	Throttle (affected engine) FLY (when TGT is below 150°C or sooner if the situations dictates).
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18
Q

5:

Pilot Flying Immediate actions regarding Dual Engine Failure in Cruise/Departure are:

A

Autorotation enter and establish 80-100kts/105%Nr
Search light ON/ADJUST
At 100 feet FLARE
Imm.after water contact FLOTATION DEPLOY

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19
Q

12:

Immediate actions Los Of Tail Rotor Thrust In Hover:

A

1- Aircraft Attitude LEVEL/MIN. G/S/NO DRIFT
2- Both Throttles *) STOP (5-10feet)
3- Collective INCREASE TO CUSHION LANDING

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20
Q

18:

PIC Immediate actions regarding Emergency Evacuations -Sea:

A 
1- Engines and Rotor SECURED
2- Cockpit Window JETTISON
3- Life Rafts ARM/DEPLOY
4- Cockpit LEAVE
5- Last to enter R/H raft

If time permits: Bring A/C Documents and HUMS card

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21
Q

25:

During flight the ROTOR BRAKE cautions message will illuminate if:

A

More than 8 psi pressure in brake system and one piston is not fully retracted

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22
Q

43:

Which Caution corresponds to which failure:

A

“ENG 1 A-ICE DGRD” Caution = ENG 1 A-ICE is bleed air

“INLT 1 A-ICE FAIL” Caution = INLT 1 A-ICE is electrical heater mats

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23
Q

31 (new 24):

The Fuzz Burn feature on the Chip/Temp detectors are deactivated when:

A

When the Oil HOT caution is activated

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24
Q

45:

What extra functions does the TCAS II have, compered to TCAS I ?

A

A vertical Resolution Advisory (RA) function.

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25
Q

44: & (new 33)
Why is it necessary to have an area of 270 deg. and 100 feet in front of the helicopter,wchich is free of personell and reflecting surfaces, when per…

A

The Radar is transmitting during test

&

The Weather Radar generates microwave radiation

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26
Q

51:

What is the purpose of the MB SENS knob/switch at the ICS panel ?

A

This switch toggels the Marker Beacon sensitivity between high and low.

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27
Q

54:

Is It possible to transmitt at the VHF No 1 Radio when the RADIO GUARD switch is in the GUARD position ?

A

No, the switch must be in the NORMAL position to transmit.

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28
Q

56:

Who is responsibel to mark unavailable systems with an INOP sticker, if the flight is planned with a MEL release ?

A

The PIC.

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29
Q

61:

What is max airspeed for windshield wiper operation ?

A

100 KIAS

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30
Q

75:
At which height above the airfield elevation should you start to reduce your speed on a Commander monitored approach, when the visibility is below 10…

A

1000

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31
Q

81:

What is maximum airspeed with floats armed ?

A

80 KIAS

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32
Q

92:

Give a full take-off briefing for a long runway take-off.

A
  • This will be a long runway take-off on RWY 17 with TDP of 15 feet and 45 KIAS.
  • We will fly ADADI 4C departure with initial turn at 700 feet and climb 2000 feet. Set Vtoss bug on 45.

-In case of major malfunctions before I have called “committed” we will land back. In a case of major malfunctions after I have called “committed” we will continue.
You will advise me of Nr, Radalt and IAS.

  • Only immediate actions may be performed before reaching safe altitude or speed (500 feet and Vy).
  • We will use standard calls.
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33
Q

(juni15 72:) 91:
Altitude limits:

Enroute =

Minimum altitude for coupled operations with airspeed above 120 KIAS =

Minimum altitude for coupled operations with airspeed below 120 KIAS =

Flight in icing conditions is limited up to =

A

Enroute = 15,000 density altitude

Minimum altitude
for coupled operations
with airspeed
above 120 KIAS = 200 feet AGL

Minimum altitude
for coupled operations
with airspeed
below 120 KIAS = 50 feet AGL

Flight in icing conditions
is limited up to = 10,000 feet pressure altitude

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34
Q

3:

Immediate actions regarding Engine Fire In Flight are:

A

1- Fire Confirm
2- Collective Adjust to single engine power
3- Throttle (affected engine) STOP
4- FIRE/ARMED pushbutton (affected engine) PUSH IN
5- FIRE EXTG MAIN/RESERVE as required

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35
Q

17:

Copilot Immediate actions regarding Emergency Evacuations - Sea:

A 
1- ELT ACTIVATE
2- Cockpit Window JETTISON
3- Cockpit LEAVE A/R
4- First Aid/Torch BRING
5- Door/Windows OPEN A/R
6- Life Rafts DEPLOY/MON.BOARDING

If time permits; Bring A/C Documents and HUMS card.

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36
Q

22:

The correct action if you have BMS message upon landing offshore shall be:

A

Temp Level 1 or 2 or Vibration level 2, shut down and contact Technical Department

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37
Q

24:

Which components has oil level indicated in cockpit (rotor stopped)

A

The Intermediate and the Tail Gear Box

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38
Q

33:

Why does the FCC´s receive torque and engine data from the FADEC ?

A

To limit the collective axis when coupled to altitude or V/S modes

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39
Q

37:

What does a Yellow ADC 1 indication in the upper left hand corner of the PFD indicates ?

A

The PFD is receiving ADC data from the offside ADC.

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40
Q

53:
The Cockpit Voice Recorder has an ERASE function.
Which criteria must be met to enable this?

A

W-ON-W and Rotor Brake ON.

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41
Q

67:

What is normal rotor speed operating range, dual engine?

A

104 - 106 %

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42
Q

64 (new 45):

After engine start, engine oil pressure should be allowed to drop below what value before advancing the throttle?

A

100 psi

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43
Q

68:

Select the correct statement:

A

Each liferaft can carry 14 people, with an overcapacity of 21

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44
Q

74:

What is maximum airspeed for activation of the landing gear emergency blowdown ?

A

90

45
Q

Name the items in the A-manual that dictates a mayday call?

A

 Dual Engine Failure
 Engine fire
 Fire/smoke on-board
 Helicopter control problems due to failure of vital systems
 Pilot Incapacitation
 Low on fuel/less than final reserve before landing
 Unruly passengers endangering flight safety
 Failure of systems or indications that may develop into a critical situation.

46
Q

Give a complete example of a correct PAN-call

A 
 PAN, PAN, PAN
 Name of station addressed
 Call sign
 Nature of distress
 Present position, altitude and heading
 Intention of Commander
47
Q

Below 500´and Vy the PM shall concentrate mainly on:

A 
 Power setting (t/o power);
 Rate of climb;
 Heading (flight path); and
 Supporting the PF with deviation calls, corrective action and information about flight path to be
followed (heading, altitude, etc.).
48
Q

At minima, the PM calls “Minima, ……” followed by which statements?

A 
Minima, 
“I have control” 
“Visual continue” 
“Visual look ahead, Runway at........” 
“Negative contact, Go-Around”
49
Q

Name all deviations from intended flight path that require a Deviation Call from PM

A

10 Kts from intended IAS (if required)
+50’ / -20’ from altitude (height) on MDA(H)
100’ below assigned/intended altitude/height in cruise
5 degree from assigned/intended heading/track
Bank angle more than 30° AEO or 20°OEI
1000’/min ROD or 600’/min ROD below 500ft
1 dot on LOC and/or G/S

50
Q

What is the difference between VFR and VMC?

A

VFR: Visual Flight Rules

VMC: Visual Meteorological Conditions

51
Q

(new) 88:

A helideck is per definition a unstable / moving landing area when the:

A

pitch or roll exceeds 1 degree either side
AND
the vertical movement exceeds 2 metres.

52
Q

Light signal from tower

STEADY GREEN:

STEADY RED:

GREEN FLASHES:

RED FLASHES:

WHITE FLASHES:

RED PYROTECHNIC LIGHT:

A

LIGHT SIGNAL: -IN FLIGHT =ON GROUND
Steady green: -“Cleared to land” =“Cleared for take-off”

Steady red: -“Give way to other aircraft and continue landing pattern” =“Hold position / Stop”

Series of green flashes: -“Return for landing” (this signal will be followed by steady green). =“Taxi to holding position / parking place”

Series of red flashes: -“Aerodrome unserviceable / Forbidden to land” =“Leave landing area”

Series of white flashes: -“Land here, and park on parking area” =”Return to starting point at the aerodrome”

Red pyrotechnic light:
-“Landing not advisable until further”


53
Q

What is standard call for PM when passing transition altitude?

A

Set 1013, Baralt reads…….

54
Q

What is immediate action on “ENGINE OVERSPEED”

A
  1. Safe Speed, Altitude and Heading __ OBTAIN
  2. Throttle affected engine __ IDLE
  3. Confirm Nr and remaining engine Np ___NORMAL
  4. Throttle (affected engine) ___STOP
55
Q

21:

Give a full Emergency Passenger Brief

A

This is an emergency announcement.

Please check that your seatbelts are securely fastened.

Place the hood of your survival suit over your head and pull up the zipper.

On the command BRACE – BRACE - BRACE, assume and maintain the brace position until the helicopter has come to a complete stop and follow the instructions.

56
Q

How much fuel is left if FUEL (1 or 2) LOW caution illuminate?

A

215 +/- 45 pounds

57
Q

What light will accompany BATT HOT caution?

A

BATT CHARGE FAIL

58
Q

Airspeed limitation on APU start?

A

150 KIAS

59
Q

Statements of intent

A

Before “TDP/Committed” - “Landing”

After “TDP/Committed” - “Continuing” or “Ditching”

Before “LDP/Committed” - “Going Around” or “Landing”

After “LDP/Committed” - “Landing”

60
Q

Multiple approaches limitations

A

2 attempts
(3 ILS with LOC and G/S coupling)

must receive significant improvement in landing conditions from the controlling authority

61
Q

What visibility for Commander Monitored Approach?

A

less than 1500 m.

62
Q

4:

Immediate actions regarding APU fire on ground are:

A

1: Fire confirmed
2: APU CTRL OFF
3: APU FIRE push button PUSH
4: FIRE EXT MAIN/RESERVE as required

63
Q

41:

At what IVS split value will the IVS Miscompare symbol be displayed at the MFD´s ?

A

There is no miscompare for IVS.

64
Q

48:
There is a position (lat/long) displayed in the upper center part of the NAV display.
What does this position indicate?

A

This is the present position calculated by the selected FMS.

65
Q

50 (new 36):
What will be the caution from the EGPWS if the Radio Alt is less than 150 feet, the AirSpeed is above 60 kts, and the landing gear is in the up position?

A

“TOO LOW TERRAIN” aural alert,

and a yellow “TERRAIN” caution on the ADI.

66
Q

72:

What effect will a failure of a single tail rotor control cable, have upon yaw control of the helicopter?

A

There will be no effect upon yaw control.

67
Q

87:

What is maximum wind speed for rotor engagement?

A

45 kts

69
Q

(juni15) 10:

Immediate actions regarding Engine Hot Start:

A

1: Throttle affected engine IDLE THEN STOP
2: Engine Starter Button PRESS
3: Motor engine until TGT BELOW 250 degrees

69
Q

(new) 28:

What will be the reference airspeed for the AFCS if an engine fails during flight?

A

the Vy

70
Q

(juni15) 11:

Immediate actions regarding Engine Overspeed_

A

1: Safe speed, Altitude and Heading OBTAIN
2: Throttle affected engine IDLE
3: Confirm Nr and remaining engine Np NORMAL
4: Throttle (affected engine) STOP

71
Q

(new) 31:

What aircraft systems will provide/compute the data for the IVSI?

A

The indication is based on the ADC and computed by the AHRS.

72
Q

(new) 54:

What is standard call when PM considers action is recuired to avoid contact with the surface, both for PF and PM?

A

PULL UP

73
Q

(juni15) 52:

What will initially happen when the dual engine takeoff limit is reached and the pilot still demands more power?

A

The FADEC will limit the fuel flow, causing the NR to droop.

74
Q

(new) 120:

What is maximum airspeed with one engine inoperative?

A

120 KIAS

75
Q

(new/juni15) 66:

What is maximum load in the baggage compartment?

A

1000 lbs

76
Q

(new) 93:

The highest priority during an emergency landing should be the following item:

A

Maintain control and fly the aircraft

77
Q

(new/juni15) 78:
The PM calls “Check bank angle”.
What deviation from planned flight path has happened?

A

Bank angle of more than 20 degree OEI

and 30 degree AEO

79
Q

(new/juni15) 99:
In case of a WOW switch failure, which aircraft systems/functions are not available or limited.
Two answers are correct!

A
  • AFCS ATT mode, WX Radar

- TCAS, continious RIPS operation, LDG gear retraction

79
Q

(new) 114:

The position report on an offshore shall contain the following information:

A 
callsign, 
position and time,
altitude/flightlevel,
ETO next reporting point,
next reporting point if it is a special point.
80
Q

(new/juni15) 104:
In regard to the Communication with ATC, what are the phrases to be used when a TCAS RA is commenced and after its completion?

A

“BHLxxx, TCAS RA” - “BHLxxx, RA complete, descending / climbing to x thousand feet”

81
Q

(new) 7:

Immediate actions regarding Dual Engine Failure in Hover are:

A

1: Hold the aircraft in level attitude.
2: Increase the collective as required to cushion the landing.

82
Q

(new) 14:

Pilot Monitoring Immediate actions regarding Loss Of Tail Rotor Thrust IN FLIGHT:

A

1: APU start
2: Throttles and Fuel AS REQ
3: Landing gear DOWN
4: Passenger WARN
5: Distress Alert MAYDAY/EMERG ON ADS/ 7700
6: Flotation AS REQ/ARM BELOW 80 KTS
7: Call out radalt Below 1000 feet

83
Q

(new) 16:

Pilot Monitoring Immediate actions regarding Ditching:

A

1: APU start
2: Throttles and Fuel AS REQ
3: Landing gear DOWN
4: Passengers WARN
5: Distress Alert MAYDAY/EMERG ON ADS/ 7700
6: Flotation AS REQ/ARM BELOW 80 KTS
7: Call out radalt Below 1000 feet

84
Q

(new) 26:

Why does the FADEC´s provide torque, engine temperature, Np, Ng and fuel flow to the AFCS?

A

To limit the collective axis when coupled to altitude or vertical speed modes

85
Q

(new) 41:

What is maximum airspeed with the cargo ramp open?

A

Flight with the cargo ramp open is not allowed.

86
Q

(new) 43:

What is maximum groundspeed for brake application?

A

35 knots

87
Q

(new) 61:

Give statement of intent in case of major malfunction before TDP/COMMITTED

A

LANDING

88
Q

(new) 85:

What are the critical phases of a flight in the context of a sterile cockpit?

A 
Ground operation (taxi or on deck),
take-off,
departure,
approach,
landing,
abnormal/emergency situation
89
Q

(new) 86:

When performing an offshore flight both flight crew member shall wear the lifejacket

A

Rett ihht prøven: CONSTANTLY

rett ihht OMA: unless they wear a survival suit, which is accepted as a floating device

90
Q

(new) 99:

In the context of handling over the flight controls, which phrases should be used according to the OM A?

A

“My controls” / “Your controls”

91
Q

(new) 109:

The rotor RPM to achieve the best rate of climb (forward climb performance) during a single engine operation should be:

A

100% Nr

92
Q

(new) 111:
The RTU 2 has failed.
Are you able to control all the respective radio/navigation equipment?

A

Yes, after pushing the 1/2 key on the RTU 1

93
Q

(new) 119:

What is the maximum torque setting to couple IAS to avoid the risk of an overtorque?

A

Take off and climb 75%,
cruise 75%,
descend 70%

94
Q

(juni15) 31:

What aircraft systems will provide/compute the data for the IVSI?

A

The indication is based on the ADC and computed by the AHRS

95
Q

(juni15) 33:
Why is it necessary to have a 270 degree / 100 feet forward sector of the nose of the helicopter, which is free of personnel, reflecting surfaces and…

A

The Weather Radar generates microwave radiation

96
Q

(juni15) 39:

In case of lost communication with the Aircraft on the ground the lights from ATC means?

A

Steady green = Cleared for take off

Steady red = Hold position / Stop

Series of green flashes = Taxi to holding position / parking place

Series of red flashes = Leave landing area

Series of white flashes = Return to starting point at the aerodrome

97
Q

(juni15) 54:

What is standard call when PM considers action is required to avoid contact with surface, both for PF and PM?

A

PULL UP

98
Q

(juni 15) 50:

Below what rotor RPM will LOW ROTOR aural alert sound?

A

95%

99
Q

(juni15) 70:

What is maximum airspeed with one engine inoperative?

A

120 KIAS

100
Q

(juni15) 93:

The highest priority during an emergency landing should be the following item:

A

Maintain control and fly the aircraft

101
Q

(juni15) 114:

The position report on an offshore shall contain the following information?

A

callsign, position and time, altitude/flight level, ETO next reporting point, next reporting point if it is a special point

102
Q

(juni15) 24:

The Fuzz Burn feature on the Chip/Temp detectors are deactivated when?

A

When the Oil HOT caution is activated

103
Q

(juni15) 3:

Immediate action regarding Engine Fire In Flight are:

A

1) Fire Confirm
2) Collective Adjust to single engine power
3) Throttle (affected engine) STOP
4) FIRE/ARMED pushbutton (affected engine) PUSH IN
5) FIRE EXTG MAIN/RESERVE as required

104
Q

19:

What is the purpose of the drive shaft damper (snubber) installed on drive shaft section No 3 and No 4?

A

Dampen radial movements of the shafts at speeds that cause harmonics

105
Q

77

The PM calls “sink rate high”.
What deviation from the planned flight path has happened?

A

ROD more than 600 ft/min below 500 ft or more than 1000 ft/min

106
Q

79:

By what deviations from the intended HDG, IAS and on an ILS approach is a deviation call required?

A

More than: 5 degree from the intended HDG, 10 kts from the intended IAS and more than 1 dot on LOC and/or G/S

107
Q

102:

In theory it could happen that you are in a flight path which will result in a CFIT and having another aircraft coming as close to trigger TCAS aural…

A

YES

108
Q

114:

Where can you find an overview about light signals given to an aircraft in case of communication failure?

A

OM A chapter 12 Rules of the air

109
Q

115:

Having a PITOT 1 HEAT caution in icing condition which results in clogged pitot system. How will this influence the IAS during a descend?

A

IAS will decrease to 0

daffisinFromFlashcardlet (3 decks)

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