CATS Flashcards
Cat specific questions
What is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis?
Chlamydophila felis. However, it can’t be distinguished from feline Herpesvirus-1 based on clinical appearance alone. Diagnosis of Chlamydophila felis is made by visualizing typical elementary bodies in the cytoplasm of conjunctival epithelial cells or obtaining a positive fluorescent antibody (FA) test on a conjunctival scraping.
What clinical finding is most supportive of hyperthyroidism in a cat?
Palpable nodule in the area of the thyroid gland. Other clinical exam findings include: weight loss, low BCS, hyperactivity, polyphagia, dull haircoat, PU/PD, vomiting, diarrhea, and aggression.
In mild to moderate cases of constipation what is the treatment plan?
Aggressive re-hydration, increased water consumption, an enema, laxatives and cisapride.
Toxoplasmosis gondii
What is it, what problems does it cause
is a protozoal organism that the cat is a definitive host for. Most cats become infected when they consume an exposed rodent with bradyzoites encysted in their tissues. Only recently infected cats generally shed oocyts in their stool and cats typically only shed these oocysts for 1-2 weeks. Toxoplasmosis can cause birth defects to human children who’s mothers have been exposed to Toxoplasmosis. If an owner has owned cats for a long while, it is possible that they may have previously been exposed and therefore have mounted an immune response to the organism. If so, the owner should have Toxoplasma antibody titers done and if they have sufficient antibody titer it will mean the client is protected from infection during the first trimester.
What is the treatment for a prolapsed uterus?
One option would be to anesthetize the cat and reduce the uterus with lubrication and external pressure followed by flushing the uterus with saline. Another option would be an Ovariohysterectomy and removal of the external portion - likely necessary in cases with marked edema and tissue trauma present.
What breeds of cats are prone to amyloidosis?
Abyssinian, Siamese, and Oriental Shorthair
How do you obtain a diagnosis of Amyloidosis?
Renal or liver biopsies can confirm the diagnosis. Congo red staining of biopsy samples should be requested because hematoxylin and eosin staining do not always show amyloid deposits.
What is a positive Marcus Gunn sign?
Flashlight test used in ophthalmologic exams to check pupillary response
When light is directed into the ABNORMAL eye, the pupil in the normal eye stays dilated.
Normally, when light is directed into the eye, the signal is transferred from the retina, through the optic nerve, past the chiasm and down the optic tract. From there, it is directed to both oculomotor nerves to cause pupil CONSTRICTION BILATERALLY. When there is a pre-chiasmal lesion, light shining in the ABNORMAL eye will have an interrupted signal that cannot get past the chiasm and BOTH pupils stay dilated. When light is shone into the normal eye, both pupils will constrict due to cross-over fibers that stimulate the oculomotor nerve of the abnormal eye.
Cuterebra Infestation
What is it, how does it occur and what is the treatment
Cuterebra are large bee-like flies that do not bite or feed. They lay eggs on stones, vegetation, or near the openings of animal burrows. The larvae can attach to animal fur and enter the body during grooming or via open wounds. They don’t typically enter through the skin, but migrate and localize to the skin of the neck, head and trunk. The larva should be carefully removed and the wound should be enlarged enough to allow the entire larva to be removed without breaking it, retained parts can cause anaphylactic shock.
How is Demodex gatoi diagnosed?
Superficial skin scrape. This is the only Demodex that is contagious. It is also very itchy. It infects the epithelium .
How is Demodex cati diagnosed?
Deep skin scrape. Demodex cati is a long slender mite that infects the hair follicle. Does not typically cause pruritis.
How do you test for dermatophytes and follicular mites?
Trichogram - refers to analyzing the hair.
What is the best feeding treatment for pancreatitis?
Feed a regular commercial diet if eating. Cats do not require a low-fat nor a low-protein diet and usually do not require a period of being NPO. Withholding food for an extended period may be likely to induce hepatic lipidosis in some cats.
What are the characteristics of a benign skin mass?
well circumscribed, slow-growing, with minimal inflammation incited.
What are the characteristics of a malignant tumor?
tend to have more ill-defined margins, grow faster, have more associated inflammation, may ulcerate, and tend to be fixed to underlying tissues.
What patient could you consider a DDAVP trial on?
A DDAVP trial is generally performed in animals that are PU/PD after ruling out other causes (Diabetes mellitus, renal insufficiency, hypercalcemia, liver failure, hyperadrenocorticism, hyperthyroidism, etc) to determine if PU/PD is due to diabetes insipidus or psychogenic polydipsia. Patient should have normal renal values and a LOW specific gravity in the face of adequate hydration. Dehydrated patients should not be started on DDAVP. Patients with elevated renal values and isosthenuric urine should also not be tested because renal insufficiency is the likely cause of their PU/PD. Patients with concentrated urine also do not need a DDAVP trial because they are able to concentrate their urine.
Calicivirus
What is it and what signs does it cause
This is an upper respiratory tract pathogen that is known for causing oral ulcers in cats along with nasal discharge, chemosis, and other upper respiratory signs. Highly virulent and often lethal feline calicivirus infections have been seen, which is referred to as “Virulent systemic feline calicivirus”. Typically cats develop severe acute upper respiratory disease followed by characteristic signs of cutaneous edema and ulcerative lesions on the skin and paws. Edema is located mainly on the head and limbs. Some cats may be jaundiced due to hepatic necrosis and/or pancreatitis. Thromboembolism and coagulopathy caused by DIC may be observed including petechiae, ecchymoses, epistaxis or hematochezia.
What is the treatment plan for a cat in renal failure?
IV fluids, gastric protectants, appetite stimulant (miratazapine) especially if the cat is eating small amounts on their own. An E-tube would only be considered if the cat is not eating.
What cell type is least likely to be infected by feline immunodeficiency virus?
Platelet. The following cells: B cell, Macrophage, T helper (CD4+), and Cytotoxic T-cell (CD8+) are affected. After inoculation, replication occurs in lymphoid and salivary tissues. Eventually, the virus spreads to mononuclear cells, while viremia is suppressed by the host immune response (asymptomatic carrier phase) that can last several years. A slow decline in the number of CD4+ cells is seen, resulting in failure of the immune system. Cats are often about 10-15 years old by the time this occurs.
What is the treatment for hydrocephalus?
Treatment is aimed at reducing the formation of CSF. Medical treatments include prednisolone, furosemide, oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and surgical placement of a shunt from the ventricles of the brain into the peritoneal cavity. Anti-convulsant drugs may be recommeded if seizures occur.
What is hydrocephalus?
Dome shaped head, patients are often ataxic when walking. The cause can be genetic, particularly in Siamese cats or due to exposure to toxins, such as griseofulvin during gestation or exposure to the feline panleukopenia virus during gestation.
Unilateral Facial Nerve
Paresis
Most common cause is idiopathic; however in cats it can sometimes be caused by things such as nasopharyngeal polyps, neoplasia and trauma. Prognosis for recovery is guarded and the clinical signs are typically permanent. The unaffected facial nerve can become affected as well. Treatment for idiopathic disease is supportive including eye lubrication, and management of corneal ulcers. Drooling usually resolves over several weeks. Otitis media-interna and chronic ear disease can make animals a higher risk for nerve paralysis and a CT of the bulla is recommended rather than radiographs. Bulla osteotomy may be recommended for animals with middle ear diseae or those prone to chronic otitis media-interna.
Lice
Lice are host specific and therefore not considered zoonotic. They spend their entire life-cycle, which is approximately 21 days, on the host. Lice will lay their eggs (nits) on hair shafts which may be identified as white flakes on the hair shafts. There are two types of lice: Anoplura (sucking louse) and Mallophaga (biting louse). They are very susceptible to most insecticides (selamectin, ivermectin, imidacloprid, pyrethrin spray, fipronil, lime sulfur dip, etc.) It is recommended that treatment be repeated 10-14 days after the initial treatment to eliminate any nits that may have hatched after the first treatment. It is also a good idea to clean any bedding and the environment and treat all animals of the same species in the household.
What are post-operative complications of thyroidectomy in cats?
Hypocalcemia can occur due to damage or excision of the parathyroid glands. Horner’s syndrome occurs when the sympathetic trunk running through the neck is damaged. Laryngeal paralysis occurs with damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve running through the neck. Hypothyroidism can occur secondary to removal of the affected thyroid gland or glands.
Describe the appearance of eosinophilic granuloma?
Linear granulomas and are pink-yellow in color. Typically, they don’t crust and are not usually pruritic.
What are the common disorders that cause pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck and ears?
Notoedres acariasis, insect bite hypersensitivity, dermatophytosis.
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
signs, diagnosis, treatment
Signs: PU/PD, anorexia, weight loss, azotemia, cystitis, dehydration, ketonuria, and hyperglycemia.
Diagnosis: metabolic acidosis (occurs due to the presence of ketone bodies, which act as acids); electrolyte disturbances (hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hypokalemia); serum osmolality is usually increased due to the elevated glucose; pre-renal azotemia may be present due to dehydration and the elevated BUN in that case will also contribute to elevated serum osmolality
Treatment: correct dehydration with isotonic crystalloids such as lactated ringer’s solution supplemented with potassium. Concurrently with correction of dehydration, insulin therapy should be initiated with regular insulin at approximately 1 unit/kg/day with monitoring of blood glucose. This can be done with intermittent dosing or a continuous infusion of insulin.
What is atelectasis?
Atelectasis is the incomplete expansion of a lung due to loss of air from alveoli and is a common complication of prolonged recumbency and inhalation anesthesia. The other main cause of atelectasis is decreased pulmonary surfactant in newborns or in SARDS or near drownings.
What is another pulmonary complication that is likely to occur from prolonged recumbency and anestheisa besides atelectasis?
Aspiration penumonia
What is lobar consolidation?
Refers to the filling of airways with fluid. This usually occurs in inflammation.
Why does pulmonary mineralization occur?
It can occur due to inflammation, infection, or neoplasia in the lung parenchyma.
Why do pulmonary contusions usually occur?
Trauma
What is the treatment for mast cell tumors histiocytic subtype?
Monitor as the lesions will most likely spontaneously regress. As long as the patient is not suffering it is reasonable to wait for these to resolve on their own. In general, it is safe to say that feline mast cell neoplasia is much less aggressive than mast cell tumors seen in dogs. Cutaneous mast cell tumors do not need the aggressive surgical margins that are typically recommended for Grade II or III canine mast cell tumors. Furthermore, follow-up radiation therapy is rarely indicated.
Acromegaly
What is it, clinical signs, diagnosis
This condition results from growth hormone (GH) secreting pituitary tumor.
Clinical signs: weight gain, prognathism (an extension or bulging out (protrusion) of the lower jaw (mandible)), organomegaly, and diabetes mellitus that is difficult to control.
Advanced imaging techniques are the most reliable way to diagnose a pituitary mass - MRI of the brain.
Treatment: external beam radiation therapy - most effective way to treat a pituitary tumor.
Feline Asthma
Clinical signs, diagnosis and treatment
Clinical signs: acute onset of coughing and dyspnea, open mouth breathing, marked abdominal effort, and increased respiratory rate.
Radiographic findings: diffuse bronchial pattern consisting of airway thickening appearing as so called “tracks and doughnuts.”
Treatment: Terbutaline (beta-2 agonist that allows bronchial smooth muscle relaxation) and oxygen are the two important aspects of the emergency management of feline asthma in a cat in acute respiratory distress.
Tritrichomonas foetus
What is it, what age does it affect, treatment
T. foetus is a protozoal infection that causes large bowel diarrhea in cats. It typically affects young cats; even if left untreated, most cats will outgrow their symptoms within 2 years. T. foetus resembles Giardia on a wet mount but can be distinguished from Giardia by it’s “falling leaf” pattern. Ronidazole is the most effective treatment (20mg/kg PO q24 hours for 14 days) it can cause neurotoxicity at higher doses.
Cryptococcus
what is it, clinical signs, how is it treated
Cryptococcus is a fungal disease. Clinical signs: sneezing, nasal discharge, weight loss, lethargy, anorexia, ocular discharge, neurologic abnormalities, cutaneous lesions. Treatment: Amphotericin B is the most effective (0.5mg/kg/day as a CRI three times a week) +/- Fluconazole (5-15mg/kg PO q12-24hrs) If a cat has liver failure they should not be treated with ketoconazole because it is hepatotoxic and causes vomiting and diarrhea in cats. Treatment typically lasts 3-5 months to a year - 2 months post clinical signs.
What is an ocular lesion that occurs with taurine deficiency?
Feline central retinal degeneration (FCRD). This is because photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine and cats cannot synthesize it. The classic lesion is an elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting in the area centralis dorsolateral to the optic disk that progresses to a horizontal band that eventually can involve the entire fundus. Cardiomyopathy can also occur.
What causes thiamin deficiency?
Cats fed raw fish diets. When Thiaminase is depleted in the body, neurologic symptoms will arise.
What causes arginine deficiency?
Results from the build up of ammonia and the signs are similar to hepatic encephalopathy.
What are signs of niacin deficiency?
weight loss, anorexia, poor hair coat, ulceration and erythema of the tongue and palate, and diarrhea.
What are signs of cobalamin deficiency?
inappetance, lethargy, failure to thrive
Lymphoma - small cell or low-grade
history, clinical signs, treatment
History: weight loss and progressive vomiting for 2 months duration.
Clinical signs/PE: intestines diffusely thickened, low BCS
Diagnosis: low albumin, normal kidney and thyroid values, abdominal US confirms diffusely thickened intestines and several mildly prominent and hypoechoic mesenteric lymph nodes
Treatment: Chlorambucil (oral alkylating agent that is usually well tolerated with few side effects) and prednisolone
Lymphoma large cell or high-grade
treatment
Cyclophosphamide, vincristine, doxorubicin, and prednisolone (CHOP) chemotherapy protocol used to treat high grade or large cell lymphoma, which more commonly manifests as a large focal mass rather than diffusely thickened intestines.
Acetominophen Toxicity
Causes oxidative damage to hemoglobin due to the cat’s inability to metabolize the drug efficiently. The drug is toxic to the liver and red blood cells and can cause hepatic necrosis, Methemoglobinemia - heinz bodies are present and blood is grossly brown in color, methemoglobinuria, anemia, and hypoxemia.
Initial presenting signs can vary from asymptomatic if ingestion is recent to moribund or comatose if greater than 12 hours.
Treatment: decontamination if caught early to hospitalization, blood transfusions, liver support, oxygen support and N-acetylcysteine administration IV multiple times.
Feline Ondontoclastic Resorption Lesions (FORL)
Cause, clinical signs, treatment
The exact etiology of FORL is not known, but studies have shown an association of FORL and diets low in calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, and potassium. Periodontal disease is also often found in association with FORL. The lesions can be internal and external, so dental radiographs should be taken to further investigate the extent of the lesions. The lesions are usually very painful and are more common now than in the past. Up to 67% of cats presenting for dental care may be affected. Treatment: address periodontal disease and possibly extraction of teeth affected by deep lesions.
Cerebellar Dysfunction
clinical signs
Cerebellar dysfunctin results in inability to regulate and measure motor function. Clinical signs: ataxia, dysmetria, vestibular signs, delayed postural reactions, and sometimes upper motor neuron signs in the limbs. In utero or perinatal infection of kittens with feline panleukopenia virus often results in cerebellar hypoplasia, leading to the clinical signs listed above.
Cervical ventroflexion
Cervical ventroflexion is a general sign of weak ness. The most common cause for this presentation is hypokalemia (low potassium), which can be caused by a variety of reasons (such as chronic renal failure). Other conditions that can cause this weakness include: myasthenia gravis; polymyopathies caused by toxoplasmosis, immune-mediated disease, or hyperadrenocorticism; and neuropathies caused by organophosphate poisoning thiamine deficiency, or botulism. Clinical signs: lethargy, depression, weakness, inability to lift head.
Hepatic Lipidosis
age of risk, clinical signs, lab findings, treatment
Cats that are greater than 2 years of age and obese have the greatest risk for hepatic lipidosis. Often these cats are indoor-only and have had a recent stress in their life. Clinical signs: obese cat that is not eating, weight loss, jaundice of skin and sclera. Labwork: ALP elevation that is greater in magnitude than GGT. Treatment: esophagostomy tube feeding.
What is the most common endocrine disease in cats over 8 years old?
Hyperthyroidism
Tapeworm infection
The most common tapeworms in cats are Taenia taeniaeformis and Dipylidium caninum. Tapeworm segments are typically flat and white and small and resemble a grain of rice. The only medication that treats both types of tapeworms is Praziquantel (Droncit). A flea control would also be recommended since Diplidium is transmitted by ingestion of an infected flea. Taenia is transmitted through eating an infected prey.
Gnathostoma Investation
what are they? life cycle, clinical effects, control
Nematode with spine-covered heads. The life cycle of Gnathostoma involves a small copepod intermediate host. Copepods are small crustaceans that are found in fresh water habitats. Eggs passed in the feces are not infectious unless first ingested by copepods so proper disposal of feces prevents transmission to other animals.
Clinical effects: adult worms live in the mucosa of the stomach and cause gastritis. They can also create nodules in the stomach which can ulcerate and lead to severe peritonitis.
Control: typically achieved by preventing cats from hunting in areas where the parasite is found. Albendazole is also effective.
What is the causative agent of Feline Infectious Anemia?
Mycoplasma haemofelis
What is the test of choice to diagnose Mycoplasma haemofelis? How is it treated?
PCR; antibiotics such as doxycycline or enrofloxacin. Occasionally, glucocorticoids and blood transfusion are required if the anemia is severe.
What does an ECG associated with hyperkalemia look like?
Lack of P waves, widened QRS complex, increased P-R interval, tall tented T waves
How do you decifer a prolapsed rectum from a colorectal intussusception?
Pass a blunt probe between the protruding mass and anus. If the probe contacts a fornix within a couple centimeters it is likely a rectal prolapse, but if it passes 5-6 centimeters easily then an intussusception is more likely. Exploratory surgery would be indicated for the treatment if it is an intussusception.
What disease is most commonly associated with aortic thromboembolism (saddle thrombus)?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). This disease tends to lead to dilation of the left atrium with blood stasis in the chamber. Thrombi form there and frequently lodge at the bifurcation of the aorta, leading to acute paraparesis and pain.
How does hyperkalemia occur in a cat with a urinary obstruction?
Hyperkalemia results from the inability to excrete potassium in the urine. Hyperkalemia changes the ability of the cell wall to repolarize, resulting in decreased cell membrane potential. This can result in decreased myocardial excitability and conduction and then severe bradycardia.
What are plications of the small intestines on radiographs indicative of?
String foreign body or any linear foreign body that is anchored in one location and unable to pass through the intestines.
What is the rationale for adding epinephrine to lidocaine before administering lidocaine as a local anesthetic?
Epinephrine prolongs the duration of lidocaine’s effects. Epinephrine causes local vasoconstriction, which prevents rapid systemic absorption. It can also decrease systemic uptake and toxicity.
Chylothorax
radiographic findings, fluid appearance, treatment for cat in distress
Radiographic findings: rounded lung lobes with bilateral pleural effusion.
Fluid: milky white with an elevated triglyceride:cholesterol ratio
Treatment for cat in respiratory distress: tap both sides of the chest to evacuate as much fluid as possible; sheets of fibrous connective tissue will often cause pocketing of fluid on both sides of the chest, thus it is important to tap both sides to adequately drain enough fluid to relieve dyspnea. Most cases will require surgery which is usually a combination of ligation of the thoracic duct and a sub-total pericardiectomy.
How would you confirm the suspicion that a substance removed via thoracocentesis is chyle?
Measure triglycerides on the effusion as compared to peripheral blood. Chyle has a high triglyceride content and if the effusion has a higher triglyceride value than the concurrent peripheral blood sample, this is most diagnostic.
What is the percentage of malignancy of mammary tumors?
70-90% of ALL feline mammary tumors are malignant. Spaying a cat before 6 months of age reduces the risk for mammary tumors by 7 fold.
What are common sequelas of HCM in cats?
Thromboembolism, Left heart failure and systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Thromboemboli occur due to stasis of blood in the dilated left atrium. Left heart failure occurs as the left ventricle becomes stiffer, and blood backs up into the pulmonary vasculature. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve occurs when the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve blocks the left ventricular outflow tract during systole due to thickening of the ventricle wall and displacement of the valve leaflet.
Protein-losing nephropathy (PLN)
PLN is less common in cats as compared to dogs. It commonly occurs in conjunction with FIV infections. Other causes of PLN include: glomerulonephritis, amyloidosis, and inflammatory conditions such as pyelonephritis.
Clinical signs: weight loss, lethargy, cachexic (loss of muscle mass), unkempt haircoat
Diagnostics: protein found in urinalysis - urine protein:creatinine ratio (UPC) should be performed to determine if the proteinuria is real.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)
Commonly occur in white cats and UV exposure is an predisposing factor. Usually occurs as an ulcerative lesion around eyes, ear margins and in the mouth. Depending on the size they can be treated with surgery or radiation. If small enough, the treatment of choice is a single dose of radiation with a Strontium-90 probe which delivers high doses of radiation but does not penetrate more than a couple of millimeters and can only be used for small lesions.
Feline Infectious Peritonitis
is NOT a contagious disease. It is a disease that is caused by a mutation of feline enteric coronavirus. It is unknown why in some patients this virus mutates and causes the FIP syndrome. It is most likely to occur in young or immunocompromised cats. FIP attacks the intestinal tract and causes GI upset.
What are the signs of Horner’s Syndrome?
Protrusion of the nictitating membrane, miotic pupil, droopy upper eyelid, enophthalmus, nystagmus and sometimes head tilt
Cryptococcus neoformans
Fungal disease that occurs when the organism is inhaled and is disseminated to skin, eyes, CNS, lungs or other areas. The respiratory tract is most often involved and symptoms can include: nasal discharge, sneezing, swelling over the nose, and regional lymphadenopathy. The disease has been thought to be transmitted most often through infected pigeon droppings.
Treatment: Itraconazole, fluconazole or amphotericin B are the anti-fungals of choice.
When performing a subtotal colectomy, what blood vessel limits the amount of colon that you are able to remove?
Ileocolic artery
What is the primary problem with HCM?
Thickening of the wall of the left ventricle which impairs diastolic filling. There is usually no problem with contractility and systolic function. Slowing the heart rate provides for longer diastolic filling, allowing the left ventricle to fill more effectively. Decreasing the heart rate also decreases the severity of systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve.
Medications to slow heart rate: beta-blockers (atenolol or metoprolol); calcium channel blockers: diltiazem
What is the holding layer of the abdomen of a cat?
External rectus sheath
What is the holding layer for most of the gastrointestinal tract?
Submucosa
Fibrosarcoma
cause, treatment
Most often associated with a vaccine and are slow tumors to metastasize, but extremely locally aggressive.
Treatment: radical excision of the mass.
Ovarian Remnant Syndrome
Occurs when an ovarian remnant is left behind during an ovariohysterectomy. The syndrome can occur anywhere from weeks to years after OVH and typically the clinical signs are consistent with estrus.
Diagnostic tests: vaginal cytology which shows cornified epithelial cells. Serum estrogen levels (>70pmol/L) indicate the cat has estrogen production from the ovary. Serum progesterone (>6nmol/L). Testing for serum LH levels (<1ng/mL) can also help confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment: exploratory laporatomy
What hormone is responsible for feline mammary hyperplasia (hypertrophy)?
Progesterone
What do you have to pay attention to post-operatively after removing a mass from the pancreas?
-monitoring the patient for increased vomiting and abdominal pain
-bilirubin levels to monitor for extrabiliary obstruction
-renal values to watch for signs of acute or chronic renal failure
What percentage of the kidneys need to be damaged before kidney values go up?
75%
What is the following parasite?
Capillaria; they look similar to trichuris eggs but are smaller and have asymmetric terminal plugs.
The card shown below is used for determining feline blood types. On the card, the circle on the left has antibodies against the type B feline antigen. The circle on the right has antibodies agaainst the type A feline antigen. 50 ul of anticoagulated blood from a cat has been mixed with 50 ul of saline and added to each circle on the card. What is the cat’s blood type?
AB, B, A, Mik
Type A. The presence of agglutination as seen in the circle on the right occurs because the anti-A antibodies on the card bind the type A antigen present in the cat’s red blood cells. Agglutination in both wells would indicated AB blood, which is rare. Mik is a recently identified feline blood group antigen; a proportion of type A cats lack expression of Mik and have a serum alloantibody for Mik. This can be a cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction in cats, even if they are matched for their blood type. This card and most typing kits do not test for Mik.
A 5 yr old female spayed Tonkinese cat presents for increased respiratory effort, anorexia and occasional open mouth breathing. The cat has a grade III/VI sternal systolic murmur. No arrhythmias are noted and pulses are synchronous. What is the best next step?
Diagnostics, treatment?
Echocardiography and diuretic therapy. The next step is to determine the type of cardiomyopathy causing clinical signs and heart failure. The increased interstital pattern in the cranioventral lung lobes indicates that there is cardiac decompensation. Diuretics are an appropriate therapy to treat heart failure pending diagnosis.
A 7 yr old male castrated cat presents for respiratory distress with open mouth breathing. What is your diagnosis?
Left sided congestive heart failure. The cardiac silhouette is tall suggestive of left ventricular enlargement and there is an alveolar pattern in the lung fields. The pulmonary vasculature is also dilated. There is edema distributed in patchy infiltrates throughout the lungs (which makes asthma less likely plus no bronchial pattern).
A 3 yr old male intact cat presents with progressive history of coughing for the past 3 months. The cat lives indoors and outdoors and is not on any medications. Blood work shows aa moderately elevated neutrohil count with a mild lymphopenia. Chest rads show a moderate bronchointerstitial pattern. A transtracheal wash is performed. What is the organism and what is the treatment?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus and Ivermectin. The feline lungworm in cats is Aelurostrongylus abstrusus. Treatment with ivermectin and fenbendazole have been reported successful.
