CATS Flashcards
Cat specific questions
1
Q
What is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A
Chlamydophila felis. However, it can’t be distinguished from feline Herpesvirus-1 based on clinical appearance alone. Diagnosis of Chlamydophila felis is made by visualizing typical elementary bodies in the cytoplasm of conjunctival epithelial cells or obtaining a positive fluorescent antibody (FA) test on a conjunctival scraping.
2
Q
What clinical finding is most supportive of hyperthyroidism in a cat?
A
Palpable nodule in the area of the thyroid gland. Other clinical exam findings include: weight loss, low BCS, hyperactivity, polyphagia, dull haircoat, PU/PD, vomiting, diarrhea, and aggression.
3
Q
In mild to moderate cases of constipation what is the treatment plan?
A
Aggressive re-hydration, increased water consumption, an enema, laxatives and cisapride.
4
Q
Toxoplasmosis gondii
What is it, what problems does it cause
A
is a protozoal organism that the cat is a definitive host for. Most cats become infected when they consume an exposed rodent with bradyzoites encysted in their tissues. Only recently infected cats generally shed oocyts in their stool and cats typically only shed these oocysts for 1-2 weeks. Toxoplasmosis can cause birth defects to human children who’s mothers have been exposed to Toxoplasmosis. If an owner has owned cats for a long while, it is possible that they may have previously been exposed and therefore have mounted an immune response to the organism. If so, the owner should have Toxoplasma antibody titers done and if they have sufficient antibody titer it will mean the client is protected from infection during the first trimester.
5
Q
What is the treatment for a prolapsed uterus?
A
One option would be to anesthetize the cat and reduce the uterus with lubrication and external pressure followed by flushing the uterus with saline. Another option would be an Ovariohysterectomy and removal of the external portion - likely necessary in cases with marked edema and tissue trauma present.
6
Q
What breeds of cats are prone to amyloidosis?
A
Abyssinian, Siamese, and Oriental Shorthair
7
Q
How do you obtain a diagnosis of Amyloidosis?
A
Renal or liver biopsies can confirm the diagnosis. Congo red staining of biopsy samples should be requested because hematoxylin and eosin staining do not always show amyloid deposits.
8
Q
What is a positive Marcus Gunn sign?
Flashlight test used in ophthalmologic exams to check pupillary response
A
When light is directed into the ABNORMAL eye, the pupil in the normal eye stays dilated.
Normally, when light is directed into the eye, the signal is transferred from the retina, through the optic nerve, past the chiasm and down the optic tract. From there, it is directed to both oculomotor nerves to cause pupil CONSTRICTION BILATERALLY. When there is a pre-chiasmal lesion, light shining in the ABNORMAL eye will have an interrupted signal that cannot get past the chiasm and BOTH pupils stay dilated. When light is shone into the normal eye, both pupils will constrict due to cross-over fibers that stimulate the oculomotor nerve of the abnormal eye.
9
Q
Cuterebra Infestation
What is it, how does it occur and what is the treatment
A
Cuterebra are large bee-like flies that do not bite or feed. They lay eggs on stones, vegetation, or near the openings of animal burrows. The larvae can attach to animal fur and enter the body during grooming or via open wounds. They don’t typically enter through the skin, but migrate and localize to the skin of the neck, head and trunk. The larva should be carefully removed and the wound should be enlarged enough to allow the entire larva to be removed without breaking it, retained parts can cause anaphylactic shock.
10
Q
How is Demodex gatoi diagnosed?
A
Superficial skin scrape. This is the only Demodex that is contagious. It is also very itchy. It infects the epithelium .
11
Q
How is Demodex cati diagnosed?
A
Deep skin scrape. Demodex cati is a long slender mite that infects the hair follicle. Does not typically cause pruritis.
12
Q
How do you test for dermatophytes and follicular mites?
A
Trichogram - refers to analyzing the hair.
13
Q
What is the best feeding treatment for pancreatitis?
A
Feed a regular commercial diet if eating. Cats do not require a low-fat nor a low-protein diet and usually do not require a period of being NPO. Withholding food for an extended period may be likely to induce hepatic lipidosis in some cats.
14
Q
What are the characteristics of a benign skin mass?
A
well circumscribed, slow-growing, with minimal inflammation incited.
15
Q
What are the characteristics of a malignant tumor?
A
tend to have more ill-defined margins, grow faster, have more associated inflammation, may ulcerate, and tend to be fixed to underlying tissues.
16
Q
What patient could you consider a DDAVP trial on?
A
A DDAVP trial is generally performed in animals that are PU/PD after ruling out other causes (Diabetes mellitus, renal insufficiency, hypercalcemia, liver failure, hyperadrenocorticism, hyperthyroidism, etc) to determine if PU/PD is due to diabetes insipidus or psychogenic polydipsia. Patient should have normal renal values and a LOW specific gravity in the face of adequate hydration. Dehydrated patients should not be started on DDAVP. Patients with elevated renal values and isosthenuric urine should also not be tested because renal insufficiency is the likely cause of their PU/PD. Patients with concentrated urine also do not need a DDAVP trial because they are able to concentrate their urine.
17
Q
Calicivirus
What is it and what signs does it cause
A
This is an upper respiratory tract pathogen that is known for causing oral ulcers in cats along with nasal discharge, chemosis, and other upper respiratory signs. Highly virulent and often lethal feline calicivirus infections have been seen, which is referred to as “Virulent systemic feline calicivirus”. Typically cats develop severe acute upper respiratory disease followed by characteristic signs of cutaneous edema and ulcerative lesions on the skin and paws. Edema is located mainly on the head and limbs. Some cats may be jaundiced due to hepatic necrosis and/or pancreatitis. Thromboembolism and coagulopathy caused by DIC may be observed including petechiae, ecchymoses, epistaxis or hematochezia.
18
Q
What is the treatment plan for a cat in renal failure?
A
IV fluids, gastric protectants, appetite stimulant (miratazapine) especially if the cat is eating small amounts on their own. An E-tube would only be considered if the cat is not eating.
19
Q
What cell type is least likely to be infected by feline immunodeficiency virus?
A
Platelet. The following cells: B cell, Macrophage, T helper (CD4+), and Cytotoxic T-cell (CD8+) are affected. After inoculation, replication occurs in lymphoid and salivary tissues. Eventually, the virus spreads to mononuclear cells, while viremia is suppressed by the host immune response (asymptomatic carrier phase) that can last several years. A slow decline in the number of CD4+ cells is seen, resulting in failure of the immune system. Cats are often about 10-15 years old by the time this occurs.
20
Q
What is the treatment for hydrocephalus?
A
Treatment is aimed at reducing the formation of CSF. Medical treatments include prednisolone, furosemide, oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and surgical placement of a shunt from the ventricles of the brain into the peritoneal cavity. Anti-convulsant drugs may be recommeded if seizures occur.
21
Q
What is hydrocephalus?
A
Dome shaped head, patients are often ataxic when walking. The cause can be genetic, particularly in Siamese cats or due to exposure to toxins, such as griseofulvin during gestation or exposure to the feline panleukopenia virus during gestation.
22
Q
Unilateral Facial Nerve
Paresis
A
Most common cause is idiopathic; however in cats it can sometimes be caused by things such as nasopharyngeal polyps, neoplasia and trauma. Prognosis for recovery is guarded and the clinical signs are typically permanent. The unaffected facial nerve can become affected as well. Treatment for idiopathic disease is supportive including eye lubrication, and management of corneal ulcers. Drooling usually resolves over several weeks. Otitis media-interna and chronic ear disease can make animals a higher risk for nerve paralysis and a CT of the bulla is recommended rather than radiographs. Bulla osteotomy may be recommended for animals with middle ear diseae or those prone to chronic otitis media-interna.
23
Q
Lice
A
Lice are host specific and therefore not considered zoonotic. They spend their entire life-cycle, which is approximately 21 days, on the host. Lice will lay their eggs (nits) on hair shafts which may be identified as white flakes on the hair shafts. There are two types of lice: Anoplura (sucking louse) and Mallophaga (biting louse). They are very susceptible to most insecticides (selamectin, ivermectin, imidacloprid, pyrethrin spray, fipronil, lime sulfur dip, etc.) It is recommended that treatment be repeated 10-14 days after the initial treatment to eliminate any nits that may have hatched after the first treatment. It is also a good idea to clean any bedding and the environment and treat all animals of the same species in the household.
24
Q
What are post-operative complications of thyroidectomy in cats?
A
Hypocalcemia can occur due to damage or excision of the parathyroid glands. Horner’s syndrome occurs when the sympathetic trunk running through the neck is damaged. Laryngeal paralysis occurs with damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve running through the neck. Hypothyroidism can occur secondary to removal of the affected thyroid gland or glands.
25
Describe the appearance of eosinophilic granuloma?
Linear granulomas and are pink-yellow in color. Typically, they don't crust and are not usually pruritic.
26
What are the common disorders that cause pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck and ears?
Notoedres acariasis, insect bite hypersensitivity, dermatophytosis.
27
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
| signs, diagnosis, treatment
Signs: PU/PD, anorexia, weight loss, azotemia, cystitis, dehydration, ketonuria, and hyperglycemia.
Diagnosis: metabolic acidosis (occurs due to the presence of ketone bodies, which act as acids); electrolyte disturbances (hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hypokalemia); serum osmolality is usually increased due to the elevated glucose; pre-renal azotemia may be present due to dehydration and the elevated BUN in that case will also contribute to elevated serum osmolality
Treatment: correct dehydration with isotonic crystalloids such as lactated ringer's solution supplemented with potassium. Concurrently with correction of dehydration, insulin therapy should be initiated with regular insulin at approximately 1 unit/kg/day with monitoring of blood glucose. This can be done with intermittent dosing or a continuous infusion of insulin.
28
What is atelectasis?
Atelectasis is the incomplete expansion of a lung due to loss of air from alveoli and is a common complication of prolonged recumbency and inhalation anesthesia. The other main cause of atelectasis is decreased pulmonary surfactant in newborns or in SARDS or near drownings.
29
What is another pulmonary complication that is likely to occur from prolonged recumbency and anestheisa besides atelectasis?
Aspiration penumonia
30
What is lobar consolidation?
Refers to the filling of airways with fluid. This usually occurs in inflammation.
31
Why does pulmonary mineralization occur?
It can occur due to inflammation, infection, or neoplasia in the lung parenchyma.
32
Why do pulmonary contusions usually occur?
Trauma
33
What is the treatment for mast cell tumors histiocytic subtype?
Monitor as the lesions will most likely spontaneously regress. As long as the patient is not suffering it is reasonable to wait for these to resolve on their own. In general, it is safe to say that feline mast cell neoplasia is much less aggressive than mast cell tumors seen in dogs. Cutaneous mast cell tumors do not need the aggressive surgical margins that are typically recommended for Grade II or III canine mast cell tumors. Furthermore, follow-up radiation therapy is rarely indicated.
34
Acromegaly
| What is it, clinical signs, diagnosis
This condition results from growth hormone (GH) secreting pituitary tumor.
Clinical signs: weight gain, prognathism (an extension or bulging out (protrusion) of the lower jaw (mandible)), organomegaly, and diabetes mellitus that is difficult to control.
Advanced imaging techniques are the most reliable way to diagnose a pituitary mass - MRI of the brain.
Treatment: external beam radiation therapy - most effective way to treat a pituitary tumor.
35
Feline Asthma
| Clinical signs, diagnosis and treatment
Clinical signs: acute onset of coughing and dyspnea, open mouth breathing, marked abdominal effort, and increased respiratory rate.
Radiographic findings: diffuse bronchial pattern consisting of airway thickening appearing as so called "tracks and doughnuts."
Treatment: Terbutaline (beta-2 agonist that allows bronchial smooth muscle relaxation) and oxygen are the two important aspects of the emergency management of feline asthma in a cat in acute respiratory distress.
36
Tritrichomonas foetus
| What is it, what age does it affect, treatment
T. foetus is a protozoal infection that causes large bowel diarrhea in cats. It typically affects young cats; even if left untreated, most cats will outgrow their symptoms within 2 years. T. foetus resembles Giardia on a wet mount but can be distinguished from Giardia by it's "falling leaf" pattern. Ronidazole is the most effective treatment (20mg/kg PO q24 hours for 14 days) it can cause neurotoxicity at higher doses.
37
Cryptococcus
| what is it, clinical signs, how is it treated
Cryptococcus is a fungal disease. Clinical signs: sneezing, nasal discharge, weight loss, lethargy, anorexia, ocular discharge, neurologic abnormalities, cutaneous lesions. Treatment: Amphotericin B is the most effective (0.5mg/kg/day as a CRI three times a week) +/- Fluconazole (5-15mg/kg PO q12-24hrs) If a cat has liver failure they should not be treated with ketoconazole because it is hepatotoxic and causes vomiting and diarrhea in cats. Treatment typically lasts 3-5 months to a year - 2 months post clinical signs.
38
What is an ocular lesion that occurs with taurine deficiency?
Feline central retinal degeneration (FCRD). This is because photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine and cats cannot synthesize it. The classic lesion is an elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting in the area centralis dorsolateral to the optic disk that progresses to a horizontal band that eventually can involve the entire fundus. Cardiomyopathy can also occur.
39
What causes thiamin deficiency?
Cats fed raw fish diets. When Thiaminase is depleted in the body, neurologic symptoms will arise.
40
What causes arginine deficiency?
Results from the build up of ammonia and the signs are similar to hepatic encephalopathy.
41
What are signs of niacin deficiency?
weight loss, anorexia, poor hair coat, ulceration and erythema of the tongue and palate, and diarrhea.
42
What are signs of cobalamin deficiency?
inappetance, lethargy, failure to thrive
43
Lymphoma - small cell or low-grade
| history, clinical signs, treatment
History: weight loss and progressive vomiting for 2 months duration.
Clinical signs/PE: intestines diffusely thickened, low BCS
Diagnosis: low albumin, normal kidney and thyroid values, abdominal US confirms diffusely thickened intestines and several mildly prominent and hypoechoic mesenteric lymph nodes
Treatment: Chlorambucil (oral alkylating agent that is usually well tolerated with few side effects) and prednisolone
44
Lymphoma large cell or high-grade
| treatment
Cyclophosphamide, vincristine, doxorubicin, and prednisolone (CHOP) chemotherapy protocol used to treat high grade or large cell lymphoma, which more commonly manifests as a large focal mass rather than diffusely thickened intestines.
45
Acetominophen Toxicity
Causes oxidative damage to hemoglobin due to the cat's inability to metabolize the drug efficiently. The drug is toxic to the liver and red blood cells and can cause hepatic necrosis, Methemoglobinemia - heinz bodies are present and blood is grossly brown in color, methemoglobinuria, anemia, and hypoxemia.
Initial presenting signs can vary from asymptomatic if ingestion is recent to moribund or comatose if greater than 12 hours.
Treatment: decontamination if caught early to hospitalization, blood transfusions, liver support, oxygen support and N-acetylcysteine administration IV multiple times.
46
Feline Ondontoclastic Resorption Lesions (FORL)
| Cause, clinical signs, treatment
The exact etiology of FORL is not known, but studies have shown an association of FORL and diets low in calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, and potassium. Periodontal disease is also often found in association with FORL. The lesions can be internal and external, so dental radiographs should be taken to further investigate the extent of the lesions. The lesions are usually very painful and are more common now than in the past. Up to 67% of cats presenting for dental care may be affected. Treatment: address periodontal disease and possibly extraction of teeth affected by deep lesions.
47
Cerebellar Dysfunction
| clinical signs
Cerebellar dysfunctin results in inability to regulate and measure motor function. Clinical signs: ataxia, dysmetria, vestibular signs, delayed postural reactions, and sometimes upper motor neuron signs in the limbs. In utero or perinatal infection of kittens with feline panleukopenia virus often results in cerebellar hypoplasia, leading to the clinical signs listed above.
48
Cervical ventroflexion
Cervical ventroflexion is a general sign of weak ness. The most common cause for this presentation is hypokalemia (low potassium), which can be caused by a variety of reasons (such as chronic renal failure). Other conditions that can cause this weakness include: myasthenia gravis; polymyopathies caused by toxoplasmosis, immune-mediated disease, or hyperadrenocorticism; and neuropathies caused by organophosphate poisoning thiamine deficiency, or botulism. Clinical signs: lethargy, depression, weakness, inability to lift head.
49
Hepatic Lipidosis
| age of risk, clinical signs, lab findings, treatment
Cats that are greater than 2 years of age and obese have the greatest risk for hepatic lipidosis. Often these cats are indoor-only and have had a recent stress in their life. Clinical signs: obese cat that is not eating, weight loss, jaundice of skin and sclera. Labwork: ALP elevation that is greater in magnitude than GGT. Treatment: esophagostomy tube feeding.
50
What is the most common endocrine disease in cats over 8 years old?
Hyperthyroidism
51
Tapeworm infection
The most common tapeworms in cats are Taenia taeniaeformis and Dipylidium caninum. Tapeworm segments are typically flat and white and small and resemble a grain of rice. The only medication that treats both types of tapeworms is Praziquantel (Droncit). A flea control would also be recommended since Diplidium is transmitted by ingestion of an infected flea. Taenia is transmitted through eating an infected prey.
52
Gnathostoma Investation
| what are they? life cycle, clinical effects, control
Nematode with spine-covered heads. The life cycle of Gnathostoma involves a small copepod intermediate host. Copepods are small crustaceans that are found in fresh water habitats. Eggs passed in the feces are not infectious unless first ingested by copepods so proper disposal of feces prevents transmission to other animals.
Clinical effects: adult worms live in the mucosa of the stomach and cause gastritis. They can also create nodules in the stomach which can ulcerate and lead to severe peritonitis.
Control: typically achieved by preventing cats from hunting in areas where the parasite is found. Albendazole is also effective.
53
What is the causative agent of Feline Infectious Anemia?
Mycoplasma haemofelis
54
What is the test of choice to diagnose Mycoplasma haemofelis? How is it treated?
PCR; antibiotics such as doxycycline or enrofloxacin. Occasionally, glucocorticoids and blood transfusion are required if the anemia is severe.
55
What does an ECG associated with hyperkalemia look like?
Lack of P waves, widened QRS complex, increased P-R interval, tall tented T waves
56
How do you decifer a prolapsed rectum from a colorectal intussusception?
Pass a blunt probe between the protruding mass and anus. If the probe contacts a fornix within a couple centimeters it is likely a rectal prolapse, but if it passes 5-6 centimeters easily then an intussusception is more likely. Exploratory surgery would be indicated for the treatment if it is an intussusception.
57
What disease is most commonly associated with aortic thromboembolism (saddle thrombus)?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). This disease tends to lead to dilation of the left atrium with blood stasis in the chamber. Thrombi form there and frequently lodge at the bifurcation of the aorta, leading to acute paraparesis and pain.
58
How does hyperkalemia occur in a cat with a urinary obstruction?
Hyperkalemia results from the inability to excrete potassium in the urine. Hyperkalemia changes the ability of the cell wall to repolarize, resulting in decreased cell membrane potential. This can result in decreased myocardial excitability and conduction and then severe bradycardia.
59
What are plications of the small intestines on radiographs indicative of?
String foreign body or any linear foreign body that is anchored in one location and unable to pass through the intestines.
60
What is the rationale for adding epinephrine to lidocaine before administering lidocaine as a local anesthetic?
Epinephrine prolongs the duration of lidocaine's effects. Epinephrine causes local vasoconstriction, which prevents rapid systemic absorption. It can also decrease systemic uptake and toxicity.
61
Chylothorax
| radiographic findings, fluid appearance, treatment for cat in distress
Radiographic findings: rounded lung lobes with bilateral pleural effusion.
Fluid: milky white with an elevated triglyceride:cholesterol ratio
Treatment for cat in respiratory distress: tap both sides of the chest to evacuate as much fluid as possible; sheets of fibrous connective tissue will often cause pocketing of fluid on both sides of the chest, thus it is important to tap both sides to adequately drain enough fluid to relieve dyspnea. Most cases will require surgery which is usually a combination of ligation of the thoracic duct and a sub-total pericardiectomy.
62
How would you confirm the suspicion that a substance removed via thoracocentesis is chyle?
Measure triglycerides on the effusion as compared to peripheral blood. Chyle has a high triglyceride content and if the effusion has a higher triglyceride value than the concurrent peripheral blood sample, this is most diagnostic.
63
What is the percentage of malignancy of mammary tumors?
70-90% of ALL feline mammary tumors are malignant. Spaying a cat before 6 months of age reduces the risk for mammary tumors by 7 fold.
64
What are common sequelas of HCM in cats?
Thromboembolism, Left heart failure and systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Thromboemboli occur due to stasis of blood in the dilated left atrium. Left heart failure occurs as the left ventricle becomes stiffer, and blood backs up into the pulmonary vasculature. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve occurs when the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve blocks the left ventricular outflow tract during systole due to thickening of the ventricle wall and displacement of the valve leaflet.
65
Protein-losing nephropathy (PLN)
PLN is less common in cats as compared to dogs. It commonly occurs in conjunction with FIV infections. Other causes of PLN include: glomerulonephritis, amyloidosis, and inflammatory conditions such as pyelonephritis.
Clinical signs: weight loss, lethargy, cachexic (loss of muscle mass), unkempt haircoat
Diagnostics: protein found in urinalysis - urine protein:creatinine ratio (UPC) should be performed to determine if the proteinuria is real.
66
Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)
Commonly occur in white cats and UV exposure is an predisposing factor. Usually occurs as an ulcerative lesion around eyes, ear margins and in the mouth. Depending on the size they can be treated with surgery or radiation. If small enough, the treatment of choice is a single dose of radiation with a Strontium-90 probe which delivers high doses of radiation but does not penetrate more than a couple of millimeters and can only be used for small lesions.
67
Feline Infectious Peritonitis
is NOT a contagious disease. It is a disease that is caused by a mutation of feline enteric coronavirus. It is unknown why in some patients this virus mutates and causes the FIP syndrome. It is most likely to occur in young or immunocompromised cats. FIP attacks the intestinal tract and causes GI upset.
68
What are the signs of Horner’s Syndrome?
Protrusion of the nictitating membrane, miotic pupil, droopy upper eyelid, enophthalmus, nystagmus and sometimes head tilt
69
Cryptococcus neoformans
Fungal disease that occurs when the organism is inhaled and is disseminated to skin, eyes, CNS, lungs or other areas. The respiratory tract is most often involved and symptoms can include: nasal discharge, sneezing, swelling over the nose, and regional lymphadenopathy. The disease has been thought to be transmitted most often through infected pigeon droppings.
Treatment: Itraconazole, fluconazole or amphotericin B are the anti-fungals of choice.
70
When performing a subtotal colectomy, what blood vessel limits the amount of colon that you are able to remove?
Ileocolic artery
71
What is the primary problem with HCM?
Thickening of the wall of the left ventricle which impairs diastolic filling. There is usually no problem with contractility and systolic function. Slowing the heart rate provides for longer diastolic filling, allowing the left ventricle to fill more effectively. Decreasing the heart rate also decreases the severity of systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve.
Medications to slow heart rate: beta-blockers (atenolol or metoprolol); calcium channel blockers: diltiazem
72
What is the holding layer of the abdomen of a cat?
External rectus sheath
73
What is the holding layer for most of the gastrointestinal tract?
Submucosa
74
Fibrosarcoma
| cause, treatment
Most often associated with a vaccine and are slow tumors to metastasize, but extremely locally aggressive.
Treatment: radical excision of the mass.
75
Ovarian Remnant Syndrome
Occurs when an ovarian remnant is left behind during an ovariohysterectomy. The syndrome can occur anywhere from weeks to years after OVH and typically the clinical signs are consistent with estrus.
Diagnostic tests: vaginal cytology which shows cornified epithelial cells. Serum estrogen levels (>70pmol/L) indicate the cat has estrogen production from the ovary. Serum progesterone (>6nmol/L). Testing for serum LH levels (<1ng/mL) can also help confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment: exploratory laporatomy
76
What hormone is responsible for feline mammary hyperplasia (hypertrophy)?
Progesterone
77
What do you have to pay attention to post-operatively after removing a mass from the pancreas?
-monitoring the patient for increased vomiting and abdominal pain
-bilirubin levels to monitor for extrabiliary obstruction
-renal values to watch for signs of acute or chronic renal failure
78
What percentage of the kidneys need to be damaged before kidney values go up?
75%
79
How do you diagnose exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)?
Measure serum fTLI (trypsin-like immunoreactivity) concentration.
80
What plant is potently nephrotoxic in cats?
Stargazer lily; a single exposure can cause severe acute renal failure.
81
Poinsettia toxicity in cats
minimally toxic; generally limited to oral irritation and/or mild gastrointestinal upset.
82
Bartonella
Bartonella "Cat scratch fever" is transmitted to humans primarily via scratches and occasionally bites. However, cat-to-cat transmission occurs via arthropod vectors, particularily the cat flea - Ctenocephalides felis.
83
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
abnormality where blood flows from the left ventricle to the right ventricle; with very small defects the prognosis is good and no treatment is needed. Some will close by themselves within the first year of life. It is unlikely that a small VSD will cause any significant problems such as heart failure, though follow-up evaluation is warranted to monitor cardiac size and function. Large VSDs carry a guarded prognosis and require cardiac bypass for surgical correction or novel device closure via transcatheter techniques; neither of which are commonly employed in animals. Clinical signs: holosystolic murmur.
84
Retinal Detachment
| age affected, clinical signs, diagnostics
In older cats it is often due to hypertension, likely secondary to renal and/or thyroid disease.
Clinical signs: sudden total loss of sight and hyphema, non-painful
Diagnostics: fundic exam, systolic blood pressure measurement, chemistry panel, thyroid hormone levels
85
What breathing pattern is the hallmark of feline asthma?
expiratory push; asthma causes expiratory dyspnea, or a marked abdominal push seen on expiration with normal inspiration. This occurs as a result of collapse of the lower airways during expiration. This occurs in asthmatics because negative intrathoracic pressure (exerted during expiration) can more easily cause collapse of the thickened and weak bronchial walls. This traps air inside the alveoli. During the next inspiratory cycle, there is decreased fresh air exchange and increasing hypoxemia.
86
Feline Traumatic Sarcoma
| history, signs, diagnosis, treatment
History: cat with a history of penetrating ocular trauma and subsequent blind eyes.
Clinical signs: phthisis bulbi (end-stage ocular damage), corneal edema and scarring, not visual [eyes almost always develop phthisis prior to showing neoplasia, this can occur years after the inciting trauma]
Diagnosis: no menace, no PLR
Treatment: enucleation - because if you wait for neoplastic signs to develop, the tumor has frequently already metastasized
87
What breeds have type B blood?
British Shorthair, Devon Rex, Cornish Rex, Ragdolls, Scottish Fold, Persians, and Himalayans
88
What breeds have type A blood?
DSH, DLH, Tonkinese, Oriental Shorthairs, Siamese
89
What is the most common skin tumor?
Basal Cell Tumor - about 20% of all feline skin tumors. These tumors are usually hairless, dome-shaped, raised masses, they are most frequently found on the head, neck, and shoulders. They are almost always benign although histologically, they may have aggressive characteristics.
90
Tularemia
| what is it, vector, clinical signs
Tularemia is a bacterial disease caused by Francisella tularensis which is most commonly found in rabbits and rodents. A common vector of Tularemia are ticks.
Clinical signs: depression, fever, anorexia, general lymphadenopathy, oral ulceration
ZOONOTIC POTENTIAL
91
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Hereditary conditon in which a defect in collagen production results in abnormal Type I collagen.
Clinical signs: very pliable and thin skin that is susceptible to trauma
Treatment: appropriate housing and lifestyle modifications and prompt treatment of secondary infections.
92
Electrical cord trauma
Clinical signs: burns and ulcerations of the mouth, lips, and tongue
Complications: non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema (due to the effect of electrical current on capillaries) and/or cardiac arrest
93
Lymphocytic Portal Hepatitis
| history, signs, diagnostics, prognosis
History/signs: decreased appetite and weight loss
Diagnostics: US (cranial organomegaly), normal echogenicity and gallbladder is normal; Chemistry (elevated liver values); liver biopsy (infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells, but NOT neutrophils in portal areas)
Prognosis with treatment: Good, MST is greater than 2 yrs.
94
Palpation of abdominal mass
| clinical signs, PE, diagnsotics
Clinical signs: progressive vomiting
PE: palpate firm mass in abdomen
Diagnostics: US (mass associated with intestines and multiple prominent mesenteric lymph nodes); FNA
95
What type of lung pattern is most typical of aspiration pneumonia?
| Alveolar, Interstitial, Bronchiol, Effusion, Edema
Alveolar pattern mostly involving the right cranial and middle lung lobes. Pneumonia is most commonly characterized by an increase of pulmonary densities with patchy or lobar pattern. Aspiration usually involves the right middle and cranial lung lobes.
96
How do you raise a cat's PCV?
| how much blood? based on weight
In order to raise the PCV 1% you will need to give 1ml/kg of packed red blood cells.
If a cat weighs 6kg and we want to raise it's PCV from 15 to 25% it will take 6mls to raise the cats blood by 1%. If we are going to increase it by 10% we will need 60mls of packed red blood cells.
97
Which two blood values rule in hyperthyroidism?
Total T4 levels
Free T4 by equilibrium dialysis (should not be diagnosed on free T4 alone as it can be elevated due to non-thyroidal illness)
98
Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency (EPI)
EPI is characterized by the lack of production of pancreatic digestive enzymes. EPI occurs when 90% of pancreatic exocrine function is destroyed. Typically cats with EPI also have concurrent chronic pancreatitis as well as low levels of cobalamin. The exocrine pancreas is responsible for secreting intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor binds cobalamin to allow for gut absorption.
Clinical signs: weight loss and steatorrhea (increase in fat excretion in the stools)
Diagnosis: measure serum fTLI concentration (trypsinogen level <8ug/L)
99
Third degree atrioventricular block
Atrioventricular (AV) block describes abnormal conduction between the heart's pacemaker and the remainder of the heart muscle tissue. Third degree AV block is the MOST MALIGNANT rhythm of the three classes of AV block. It represents complete dissociation between the pacemaker firing and ventricular contraction. Thus on an ECG strip there is no association between the pacing (p waves) and the heart producing a beat (the ventricular contraction as represented by the QRS complex). As a result of stimulation from the sinoatrial node, P waves appear at a regular rhythm while the AV node fires at its own rhythm resulting in dissociated QRS complexes at 80-110 bpm (the resulting pacemaker of the ventricle is 80-110 bpm in cats)
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First degree AV block
Atrioventricular (AV) block describes abnormal conduction between the heart's pacemaker and the remainder of the heart muscle tissue. First degree AV block is when there is increased distance between the P waves and the QRS complexes.
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Second degree AV block
Atrioventricular (AV) block describes abnormal conduction between the heart's pacemaker and the remainder of the heart muscle tissue. Second degree AV block is when there are intermittent/occasional P waves without a corresponding QRS complex.
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Atrial fibrillation
A fib is a rhythm showing a bumpy baseline and irregularly irregular QRS complexes firing at a fast speed on an ECG.
103
What treatment is indicated for Eimeria?
| Is there one?
Eimeria coccidian is not a parasite to dogs or cats and no treatment is necessary. The parasite can show up on the fecal exam merely from passing through the digestive tract secondary to coprophagy. Eimeria is identified as having 4 sporocysts or a distinct micropyle cap. Eimeria are parasitic in birds, reptiles, and herbivores.
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Plasma Cell Pododermatitis
| History, PE, Diagnostics, Treatment
Relatively uncommon idiopathic disorder of cats.
History/PE: 6 month history of lesions involving the feet. Initially posterior paws involved, but then progression to all paws. Antibiotic therapy and steroid not helpful. Paw pads are soft, swollen, discolored, cat is painful when walking on them.
Diagnosis: Bloodwork - mild monocytosis and mild hyperglobulinemia. Biopsy of pad lesions is the only way to differentiate a diffinative diagnosis. (expect to see plasmacytic infiltration of the dermal tissue, potentially with other inflammatory cell types present due to secondary infection)
Treatment: long course (10 weeks) of Doxycycline. Surgicial excision of the foot pad may be necessary if cats don't respond to medical management.
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Glaucoma
| History, PE, Diagnosis
History: painful, change in appearance to eye
PE: corneal edema present, palpebral fissure of affected eye is larger than non-affected eye, buphthalmos, corneal fibrosis, lens luxations, mydriasis, tapetal hyperreflectivity, retinal vascular attenuation and pale optic discs
Diagnosis: aqueous flare and increased intraocular pressure
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Blastomycosis
Caused by: Blastomyces dermatitidis - a systemic fungal disease that primarily affects dogs, humans and cats
Found: in soil - Mississippi, Missouri, Ohio, Mid-Atlantic states, some Canadian provinces
Transmisison: inhalation
Clinical signs: depression, anorexia, weight loss, fever, lameness, lymphadenopathy, harsh lung sounds, draining skin lesions, chorioretinitis, uveitis, cough
Diagnosis: identification of the organism - appears round to ovoid yeast measuring 8-25um; it is pale pink when stained with H & E with refractile, double contoured wall, single broad-based buds
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Cheyletiella
Large mites that affect cats, dogs, rabbits and humans.
Highly contagious; live in the stratum corneum and unlike Sarcoptes these mites do not burrow.
Clinical signs: highly pruritic, miliary dermatits, crusted lesions on the tip of their pinnae, scaling over the rump
Diagnosis: acetate tape impressions, fecal examination, or using a flea comb
Treatment: lime sulfur dips or flea products
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What is the most frequently isolated bacteria in cat bite abscesses?
Anaerobes; this includes obligate anaerobes such as Fusobacterium spp., Bacteroides spp., and Clostridium spp. as well as faculatative anaerobes such as Pasteurella spp. and Actinomyces spp.
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Vascular Ring Anomaly
Vascular ring anomalies will result in constriction of the esophagus which, in turn, does not allow ingesta to travel through the esophagus.
Clinical signs usually develop shortly after being weaned onto solid foods and consist of: regurgitation, aspiration pneumonia, low BCS, varacious appetite.
110
How to convert a solution to mg/ml
100% solution = 1g/ml
50% solution = 500mg/ml
5% solution = 50mg/ml
111
What is the following parasite?
Capillaria; they look similar to trichuris eggs but are smaller and have asymmetric terminal plugs.
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The card shown below is used for determining feline blood types. On the card, the circle on the left has antibodies against the type B feline antigen. The circle on the right has antibodies agaainst the type A feline antigen. 50 ul of anticoagulated blood from a cat has been mixed with 50 ul of saline and added to each circle on the card. What is the cat's blood type?
| AB, B, A, Mik
Type A. The presence of agglutination as seen in the circle on the right occurs because the anti-A antibodies on the card bind the type A antigen present in the cat's red blood cells. Agglutination in both wells would indicated AB blood, which is rare. Mik is a recently identified feline blood group antigen; a proportion of type A cats lack expression of Mik and have a serum alloantibody for Mik. This can be a cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction in cats, even if they are matched for their blood type. This card and most typing kits do not test for Mik.
113
What is the best way to initally manage a cat with pyothorax from a cat bite wound from several weeks ago after thoracocentesis?
Place a thoracostomy tube, lavage three times daily with LRS and treat with appropriate systemic antibiotics for 6 weeks.
If the cause of the pyothorax is identifiable such as a foxtail, attempts should be made to treat the cause.
If there is no improvement in 3-4 days, surgery is indicated to explore for abscesses, foreign bodies, etc.
Pyothorax is an accumulation of pus in the pleural space. The fluid is classified as an exudate and the cells usually consist of neutrophils. If it is a bacterial pyothorax such as that from a cat bite, the neutrophils will be degenerate.
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Retrobulbar abscess
Causes: penetrating wounds, foreign bodies, spread from dental or sinus infection, and hematogenous spread.
History: acute onset of exopthalmos, painful, not eating
PE: painful on palpation of eye, eye can be retropulsed some, but there is resistance present, increased rectal temp
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Collagenolytic granuloma
Also known as eosinophilic granuloma or linear granuloma, usually occurs on the nose, chin, oral cavity, or caudal thighs. The lesions are typically raised and ulcerative or nodular.
Underlying cause is unknown, although an underlying allergic cause has been suggested.
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Eosinophilic Plaque
Occurs most frequently on the abdomen and medial thighs but can appear other places. They appear as single or multiple, raised, red, often ulcerated lesions of varying size (0.5-7cm). They frequently have a cobblestone appearance and unlike eosinophilic ulcers, these are often pruritic. This condition is histopathologically similar to miliary dermatitis and is usually associated with underlying allergy.
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Eosinophilic ulcer
Also known as indolent ulcer typically occurs on the upper lip and may be unilateral or bilateral. They often have a characteristic central area of yellow to pink tissue with a slightly raised circumferential edge.
118
What are ocular manifestations of herpesvirus?
Eosinophilic keratitis, corneal ulcers, corneal sequestrum, conjunctivitis
119
What is a common side effect seen with methimazole use?
Facial pruritis leading to self-induced excoriations is one of the side effects that can be seen with methimazole therapy. If it occurs, it is typically seen during the first three months of therapy. Along with facial excoriations, clinical signs can also include crusting of the ears. The recommeded treatment is to discontinue methimazole and either switch to the Hill's y/d diet or consider surgery or I-131 therapy.
120
What test will differentiate Actinomyces spp. from Nocardia spp.?
Acid-fast stain; Nocardia (acid-fast) and Actinomyces is not acid-fast
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What does a KOH test determine?
used to aid in the diagnosis of a fungal infection, usually cutaneous infections from dermatophytes.
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What is congo red stain used for?
used to stain for amyloid fibrils and may sometimes be used to identify a specific type of Shigella.
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What is silver stain used for?
used to identify proteins, commonly type III collagen. It may also be used to identify certain fungal organisms.
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Which cell type when present in BAL or endotracheal wash cytology is suggestive of feline asthma?
| Neutrophils, Basophils, Monocytes, Lymphocytes, Eosinophils
Eosinophils
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What are Howell-Jolly bodies?
Howell-Jolly bodies are small spherical nuclear remnants that are left behind when the nucleus of a red blood cell is expelled during maturation. They are found in low numbers in normal horses and cats. They can be increased in animals that are receiving glucocorticoids as well as chemnotherapy agents.
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What are Heinz bodies?
Heinz bodies are a sign of oxidative damage. They look similar to Howell-Jolly bodies, but are generally lighter staining and can even look pale depending on the stain used. Caused by the ingestion of acetaminophen, onions, garlic.
127
What is the treatment of polycystic kidneys?
Fluids, low protein diet and gastroprotectants
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Who usually gets polycystic kidney disease?
It is an inherited disease that most commonly affects Persian cats. Other breeds such as Himalayans and British shorthairs are occasionally affected as well. The responsible gene is autosomal dominant. The homozygous form is lethal in utero and all affected living cats are heterozygotes.
129
How is polycystic kidney disease diagnosed?
by ultrasound
130
What are the indicators that a cat has Cryptococcus?
| What diagnostic results
A latex agglutination titer of 1:10,000 on serum; A latex agglutination titer of 1:1000 on CSF and demonstration of numerous small yeasts with large capsules in a CSF tap
131
What are findings of heartworm disease?
Migration of larvae to ectopic regions (outside of the heart and pulmonary arteries) is MORE common than in the dog. Cats typically have a much lower adult worm burden than dogs. Cats are often microfilaria negative despite an active infection. Antibody tests can detect the exposure of the host to both male and female worms.
132
What is the normal gestational period in cats after impregnation?
63 days
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At what age do fetal skeletons become visible on radiographs?
36-45 days
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How early can ultrasound be used to confirm pregnancy?
13 days
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At what point can a developing fetus be palpated?
21-28 days
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Capillaria
| clinical signs, diagnosis
Clinical signs: most cases are asymptomatic, but chronic cough may be seen
Diagnosis: fecal flotation, commonly also have eosinophilia
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Plague
Clinical signs: occur in 1-2 days; lethargy, severe mandibular lymphadenopathy with draining tract under the chin, fleas, tachypneic
Diagnosis: made with a Gram's stain cytology of infected material, such as the draining lesion; Yersinia pestis
Treatment: antibiotic treatment early in the course of disease
HIGHLY ZOONOTIC
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Mammary gland hyperplasia or fibroadenomatous/
fibroepithelial
Most commonly occurs in young, intact female cats due to increased progesterone exposure. It is characterized by affecting one or more mammary glands, which become enlarged and are non-painful. Most affected cats are systemically well and do not show signs of illness or pain. Treatment for the condition is removal of the source of progesterone via ovariohysterectomy. If the glands don't respond to spaying, a progesterone receptor blocker such as aglepristone can be administered.
139
What is the most effective way to reduce the likelihood of disease transmission of cat scratch fever?
Use effective flea control medications. Fleas are implicated in disease transmission with the bacteria seen in flea feces. It is thought that typically, cats with infected flea feces on their claws scratch and inoculate the bacteria into people.
140
What cranial nerves does palpebral reflex test for?
CN V and CN VII
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What cranial nerves does menace response test for?
CN II and CN VII
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Inflammatory Bowel Disease
| History, Diagnosis, Treatment
History: several month history of poor appetite and intermittant vomiting and diarrhea
Diagnosis: US shows mild-to-moderate multifocal-to-diffuse thickening of the muscularis layer of the small bowel. Biopsies from a gastroduodenoscopy show moderate lymphocytic plasmacytic infiltration and enteritis.
Treatment: corticosteroids such as prednisolone aand budesonide are the most common medications used; Budesonide concentrates its effects in the GI tract, thus has fewer systemic effects as compared to prednisolone. Sulfasalazine and metronidazole can be used to help the condition by treating secondary bacterial overgrowth. Other treatments include easily digestible diet aand one with a novel protein source, pro-motility agents or anti-nausea agents such as metoclopramide when needed and vitamins such as vitamin B12 or omega-3 fatty acids may be beneficial
143
What is the proper location to place an esophagostomy tube?
Left side of the neck; the esophagus is thought to be oriented more toward the left and therefore it is preferred to place the tube on the left
144
What is the screening test of choice for hyperthyroidism?
Total T4 level
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Strychnine Toxicity
Strychnine is found in some snail baits and other poisons. Strychnine competitively antagonizes the action of glycine and causes a loss of impulse control in the spinal cord and brainstem.
Clinical signs: can begin suddenly and progress from anxiety to tetanic convulsions spontaneously or in response to stimuli. The poison affects all striated muscles.
Treatment: no specific antidote so treatment is symptomatic; convulsions can be controlled with anesthetic drugs and/or methocarbamol
146
What is the best way to confirm a Strongyloides stercoralis diagnosis?
Baermann fecal technique
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Strongyloides stercoralis
Causes: mucoid diarrhea and possibly anemia in puppies and kittens.
Passed in the feces in the L1 larvae form.
Diagnosis: Baermann fecal technique
148
What test is not an effective method for diagnosing feline infectious peritonitis?
Serology and 7B protein ELISA test; some FIP viruses do not have the 7B protein so this test is not sensitive for FIP virus
149
Pyrethrin Toxicity
Found in flea medications.
Treatment: medication should be quickly washed off with a bath, the mouth should also be carefully rinsed depending on the status of the cat if ingestion is suspected. IV catheter and fluids should be started immediately. Methocarbamol, a muscle relaxant is the best choice to stop tremoring, if this is unsuccessful, valium can be used.
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Otodectes cynotis infestation
Clinical signs: head-shaking, scratching ears, excorations around the pinna, and excessive reddish-brown ceruminous discharge in both ears
Diagnosis: microscopic examination of ear mites
Treatment: Milbemycin or Ivermectin as an otic solution; Selamectin (Revolution) and moxidectin (Advantage Multi) are approved for control of otodectes but may be more effective at preventing than treating
151
What surgical procedure is recommended for cats with a mammary carcinoma?
unilateral chain mastectomy; due to the fact that most mammary masses in cats are malignant with a high chance for metastasis, radical unilateral mastectomy is often indicated to help reduce the rate of recurrence of tumors in mammary tissue on the same side
152
What test should be performed if a kitten tests positive for FeLV on an in-house ELISA?
An IFA (Immunofluorescent Antibody Test) should be submitted. If it is positive as well, the kitten is truly infected with FeLV
153
Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)
FeLV is a retrovirus that is transmitted both horizontally and vertically in cats. Once a cat is exposed, the virus is propaagated throughout lymphoid tissue, resulting in amplification in the spleen, lymph nodes, GALT, intestinal crypt epithelia and bone marrow. Once the bone marrow is infected, peripheral viremia occurs by release of infected neutrophils and platelets. Finally, excretion of the virus in saliva and urine does not occur until 28-56 days after infection, once there is widespread infection of epithelial and glandular tissue.
ELISA tests for the p27 virus antigen in the serum. The IFA tests for p27 antigen in leukocytes and platelets.
154
What is the best treatment for a cat that injures its forelimb due to jumping from a great distance (3 story building)?
Carpal arthrodesis; it is instinctive for cats to always land on their feet and as a result they are predisposed to sustaining hyperextension injuries to the carpal joints when landing from a distance. Disruption of the carpal ligaments carries a guarded prognosis with conservative therapy and stabilzation via pancarpal arthrodesis is strongly recommended
155
How long is estrus?
7 days
156
What is the length of time between one estrus and the next?
7-21 days
157
What are possible causes of a low PaO2 in an anesthetized cat?
low inspired oxygen, hypoventilation, V/Q mismatch, shunt or diffusion impairment
158
What is the best treatment for a cat bite abscess?
Sedate and surgically explore the wound, drain and thoroughly flush the wound and place a penrose drain for 4 days. Allowing continued drainage and preventing an anaerobic environment from being re-established.
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Flea Allergy Dermatitis
Clinical signs: pruritus, miliary dermatitis and dark brown flecks in fur
Diagnosis: presence of flea dirt or fleas; anemia (occurs when there is a large burden of fleas) and peripheral eosinophilia (seen with allergies or parasite infestations) on bloodwork and tapeworm infestation (tapeworms are transmitted by the ingestion of fleas carrying tapeworm eggs)
160
When performing a perineal urethrostomy which nerve must you preserve?
Pudendal nerve; this is the main nerve in the region of the surgery that is at risk of being severed. Severing the nerve could result in urinary incontinence due to loss of somatic innervation to the urethral sphincter. The pudendal nerve supplies somatic innervation to the external sphincter of the bladder and also to striated muscle on the urethra.
161
What is the hypogastric nerve responsible for?
Sympathetic innervation to the urethral sphincter
162
What is the pelvic nerve responsible for?
Parasympathetic innervation to the urethral sphincter
163
During an ovariohysterectomy what structure are you hoping to retrieve with a spay hook?
Broad ligament of the uterus
164
What are reasons for a hyperthyroid cat to have a T4 value in the normal range?
Mild disease in which there are subtle clinical signs and a T4 in the high normal range, fluctuation of T4 early on in disease, or concurrent disease causing euthyroid sick syndrome
165
What process in the eye is rubiosis iridis a sign of?
Anterior uveitis; rubiosis iridis along with other signs such as aqueous flare, hyphema, hypopyon, keratic precipitates, and decreased intraocular pressure are all suggestive of anterior uveitis.
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Black widow spider bite
Black widows make a toxin that binds to calcium channels, increasing membrane permeability and enhances depolarization. Ascending motor paralysis and destruction of peripheral nerves endings occur. A single bite could kill an animal.
Clinical signs: immediate pain, ascending motor paralysis, muscle spasms, muscle rigidity, and salivation.
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A 5 yr old female spayed Tonkinese cat presents for increased respiratory effort, anorexia and occasional open mouth breathing. The cat has a grade III/VI sternal systolic murmur. No arrhythmias are noted and pulses are synchronous. What is the best next step?
| Diagnostics, treatment?
Echocardiography and diuretic therapy. The next step is to determine the type of cardiomyopathy causing clinical signs and heart failure. The increased interstital pattern in the cranioventral lung lobes indicates that there is cardiac decompensation. Diuretics are an appropriate therapy to treat heart failure pending diagnosis.
168
What is the most common cause of rectal prolapse in a kitten?
GI parasites
169
What is the most common reason for post-anesthetic cortical blindness in cats?
Hypoxia; due to poor perfusion during anesthesia. The visual cortex is extremely sensitive to the effects of hypoxia which can result in blindness.
170
Heartworm disease testing
| Positive antigen test vs. negative antigen test
A positive antigen test is diagnostic; a negative antigen test is inconclusive. An antigen test will be positive if there are female worms present. However, if there is an all male worm infection, you can have a false-negative test result.
171
What is the surgicial treatment of choice for cats with chronic obstipation and megacolon that is refractory to medical therapies?
Subtotal colectomy; this technique usually entails transecting the ascending colon a few centimeters distal to the cecum and the descending colon a few centimeters proximal to the pubis and anastomosing them together, trying to preserve ileocolic junction.
172
What are the five main treatment objectives for cats with megacolon?
adequate hydration status, removal of impacted feces, laxative therapy, promotility agents for the colon and dietary fiber
173
What test would be most convincing at confirming a diagnosis of FIP (which has the highest positive predictive value)?
| ELISA, IFA, Rivalta's, Serum testing
Immunofluorescence staining for coronavirus in macrophages in effusion fluid.
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Brodifacoum Toxicity (Rat posion)
This rodenticide inhibits epoxide reductase resulting in a loss of active Vitamin K. The overall effect is decreased synthesis of the Vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors: II, VII, IX, and X.
Clinical signs: occur after 3-5 days and hemorrhaging is the result
Treatment: Induce vomiting with xylazine - if the patient does not vomit - Gastric lavage, activated charcoal and vitamin K daily for 30 days
175
A 7 yr old male castrated cat presents for respiratory distress with open mouth breathing. What is your diagnosis?
Left sided congestive heart failure. The cardiac silhouette is tall suggestive of left ventricular enlargement and there is an alveolar pattern in the lung fields. The pulmonary vasculature is also dilated. There is edema distributed in patchy infiltrates throughout the lungs (which makes asthma less likely plus no bronchial pattern).
176
A 3 yr old male intact cat presents with progressive history of coughing for the past 3 months. The cat lives indoors and outdoors and is not on any medications. Blood work shows aa moderately elevated neutrohil count with a mild lymphopenia. Chest rads show a moderate bronchointerstitial pattern. A transtracheal wash is performed. What is the organism and what is the treatment?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus and Ivermectin. The feline lungworm in cats is Aelurostrongylus abstrusus. Treatment with ivermectin and fenbendazole have been reported successful.
177
What is a physiologic leukogram?
A physiologic leukogram is from an epinephrine-mediated excitation response and is commonly seen in cats who get excited upon entering a veterinary. clinic. You can see the classic mild neutrophilia along with normal to increased lymphocytes and no monocytosis.
178
What litter type is preferred by cats?
| silica, clumping, towels, shredded paper, non-clumping
Clumping
179
After performing a FNA of a mass and determining that it is mammary carcinoma, what is the next step?
| punch biopsy, chemotherapy, surgery, radiographs, FNA of lymph node
Thoracic radiographs should be perfromed to stage the cat for metastasis prior to deciding on treatment. Although greater than 90% of cats with mammary carcinomas eventually develop metastasis, even the short-term prognosis would be considered poor if pulmonary metastasis is present. If no metastasis - unilateral mastectomy surgery should be performed.
180
What type of tumor is a basal cell tumor?
Epithelial tumor
181
What are round cell tumors that are seen in cats?
lymphoma, mast cell tumor, plasma cell tumor, histiocytoma, transmissible venereal tumor, +/- melanoma
182
Which disease has the potential to cause acute death?
a. Paragonimus kellicotti
b. Dirofilaria immitis
c. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
d. Capillaria aerophila
Dirofilaria immits. Cats with heartworm may be asymptomatic but common clinical signs include a peracute presentation due to worm emboli/migration. Chronic signs such as anorexia, weight loss, lethargy, and exercise intolerance may be seen occasionally. Heart failure, cough and dyspnea can occur with this disease but often are not present due to the small worm burdens usually carried by cats. The other three options are lung parasites that can all cause coughing in cats.
183
What is a corneal dermoid?
congenital lesion
184
What are possible ocular manifestations of herpesvirus?
conjunctivitis, corneal ulcers, eosinophilic keratitis, and corneal sequestrum
185
What diagnostic test is best for ruling OUT FIP?
Rivalta's test; this means that a negative test is likely associated with the cat truly not having the disease.
186
A stray cat bites a human, what is the best course of action?
Euthanasia and submit the head for testing
187
An up-to-date vaccinated cat bites someone, what is the best course of action?
Confine the pet and observe for 10 days
188
A cat not up-to-date on the rabies vaccine bites someone, what is the best course of action?
Euthanize and test or quarantine for 10 days in an approved facility
189
Faconi Syndrome
proximal tubular disease (most often seen in Basenjis) that does not cause lower urinary tract signs
190
How does osteosarcoma in cats differ than in dogs?
It is slow to metastasize and some cats are cured with amputation
191
What information should be told to the client by the veterinarian when getting consent to do a procedure?
1. Explanation of the procedure.
2. Outline the potential risks.
3. Obtaining consent for the procedure.
192
Vascular Ring Anomaly
Vascular ring anomalies result in constriction of the eosphagus which, in turn, does not allow ingesta to travel through the esophagus.
Clinical signs (develop shortly after weaning): regurgitation, aspiration pneumonia, poor BCS, increased appetite
193
What type of vestibular disease is vertical nystagmus seen in?
| Peripheral or Central
Central vestibular disease
194
What species of insulin is most similar to the composition of feline insulin?
Bovine insulin; feline insulin is closest in its amino acid sequence to bovine insulin, differing by only one amino acid in the A-chain. Canine insulin is identical to porcine insulin and its amino acid sequence.
195
In a cat with normal kidneys, when does glucose begin to spill into the urine?
when blood glucose reaches between 200-280mg/dL
196
What is the approximate life span of RBCs?
70 days
