Category 2 - Programming & Design

Question 1

True or False: Programming services are part of the Scope of Architect’s Basic Services

Answer 1

False. Programming should not be confused with Schematic Design, which is included in basic services. The Owner will either provide the Architect with a program or hire the Architect to perform the programming service as an additional service.

Question 2

What are three important duties of the Architect during Administration of Programming Services?

Answer 2

1. Confirm scope and intent of project with Owner.
2. Prepare a schedule for Programming Services, including milestone dates, services furnished by the Architect, and completion of documentation provided by the Architect.
3. Submit programming documents to the Owner for evaluation and approval.

Question 3

How can the Architect determine the values, goals, and objectives of the Owner and users during the programming phase?

Answer 3

1. Conduct a visioning session to discuss and prioritize values and goals that will impact the project. Prepare a written evaluation for the Owner’s review.
2. Meet with the Owner to confirm and finalize the priorities, values and goals of the project.
3. Identify and evaluate the constraints and opportunities that will have an impact, such as government requirements, finances, and access to name a few.

Question 4

After reviewing and analyzing the project data during programming, what should the Architect do next?

Answer 4

1. Identify any major unresolved programming issues.
2. Make recommendations for solutions to the unresolved programming issues to the Owner.
3. Prepare and present initial report of findings for Owner’s review.

Question 5

What is included in the Architect’s final program document?

Answer 5

1. Executive summary.
2. Value and goal statements.
3. Facts, data analysis, and conclusions.
4. Relationship and flow diagrams.
5. Matrices identifying space allocations, relationships, functions and sizes.
6. Special requirements and equipment such as HVAC, plumbing, acoustics, furnishings, etc.

Question 6

Describe how the Architect gathers programming project information and indicate what information is collected.

Answer 6

Architect shall compile and review existing project related documentation, such as:
Reports on existing facilities, site surveys, applicable codes, historical documents, and planning standards.
Architect shall conduct a walkthrough of the existing facilities and/or site with the Owner to prepare a space inventory, identify traffic and circulation patterns, and use levels.

Question 7

What are three ways the Architect determines the specific space requirements of the project during programming?

Answer 7

1. Identify all required spaces and establish sizes and relationships.
2. Establish space efficiency factors (ration of net square footage to gross square footage).
3. Document particular space requirements such as HVAC, plumbing, lighting, acoustical, furnishings, equipment or security needs.

Question 8

What are considered additional services during the programming phase?

Answer 8

1. Multiple Site Evaluation
2. Site Suitability and planning
3. Master planning
4. Preliminary design and cost estimating
5. Scheduling and market analysis
6. Detailed existing facility evaluation
7. Environmental suitability
8. Services in support of Owner’s other consultants

Question 9

Site Evaluation and Planning is considered an additional service during programming. What are the Architect’s first steps during the process?

Answer 9

1. Prepare a schedule for site evaluation and planning services that identifies milestone dates, services furnished by the Architect, and completion of documentation provided by the Architect.

Question 10

Name five services that could be specifically designated as the Architect’s responsibility during Site Evaluation and Planning.

Answer 10

1. Program Analysis - area required for building, parking, circulation, open space, etc.
2. Site Analysis and Selection - existing conditions study, assist Owner in selecting site.
3. Cultural Factor Analysis - research history of the site and analyze impact of development.
4. Environmental Studies - determine impact of project on environment.
5. Economic Analysis - impact on development cost.

Question 11

Who is responsible for all decisions regarding design during programming?

Answer 11

The Owner.

The Architect is mainly responsible for collecting design information and presenting the data to the Owner for review and decision.

Question 12

The Architect and Owner are in disagreement on which design layout would be most appropriate for a project. Who makes the final decision?

Answer 12

The Owner.

The Architect mainly provides information and data to support a certain layout or design. It is ultimately the Owner’s decision for which design to choose.

Question 13

When should the budget for the project as well as the cost estimate be prepared during programming?

Answer 13

The budget should be supplied by the Owner at the beginning of the programming phase.

If specifically designated by the Owner, the Architect supplies a preliminary cost estimate for the project as an additional service. This would occur once the program is complete.

Question 14

You have received conflicting instructions from the project manager and superintendent, both hired by the Owner. Whose instructions should you follow?

Answer 14

Though both parties are hired by the Owner, generally one person has been designated as the authorized representative on the Owner’s behalf and so should be the lead contact for information by the Architect. If, however, a dispute arises the Owner should be contacted for final direction.

Question 15

What are five ways in which an Architect can involve the client, users, consultants and stakeholders in developing the project design?

Answer 15

1. Attend community meetings.
2. Hold private meetings with clients and end users.
3. Hold public meetings with stakeholders and clients.
4. Hold town hall type meetings for the community.
5. Hold a charette to encourage input on design.

Question 16

Name four ways an Architect can communicate design ideas and collect feedback from users and stakeholders

Answer 16

1. Present plans, elevations, models and 3D sketches.
2. Show a Power Point presentation.
3. Conduct interviews with stakeholders and end users.
4. Distribute questionnaires to clients, end users, and stakeholders.

Question 17

What are the main concerns stakeholders and community groups may have related to a project’s impact on the surrounding area?

Answer 17

Impact and effect on:

1. Environment (increase in pollution, displacement of animals and plants on site, alteration of water movement on site).
2. Increases in traffic, noise, and density.
3. Inappropriate uses for the neighborhood.

Question 18

What are some common materials that may contain VOCs? Name two methods for controlling their effect on indoor air quality.

Answer 18

Off-gassing of VOCs may come from glues and adhesives from carpet, millwork, and hardwood flooring as well as paint.
To mitigate this hazard, the Architect should specify low/no VOC products as well as provide adequate passive and mechanical ventilation to continually bring fresh air into the building.

Question 19

What are three ways the Architect determines the specific space requirements of the project during programming?

Answer 19

1. Identify all required spaces and establish sizes and relationships.
2. Establish space efficiency factors (ratio of net square footage to gross square footage).
3. Document particular space requirements such as HVAC, plumbing, lighting, acoustical, furnishings, equipment or security needs.

Question 20

What are considered additional services during the programming phase?

Answer 20

1. Multiple Site Evaluation
2. Site Suitability and planning
3. Master planning
4. Preliminary design and cost estimating
5. Scheduling and market analysis
6. Detailed existing facility evaluation
7. Environmental suitability
8. Services in support of Owner’s other consultants

Question 21

Site Evaluation and Planning is considered an additional service during programming. What are the Architect’s first steps during this process?

Answer 21

1. Prepare a schedule for site evaluation and planning services that identifies milestone dates, services furnished by the Architect, and completion of documentation provided by the Architect.

Question 22

Name five services that could be specifically designated as the Architect’s responsibility during Site Evaluation and Planning.

Answer 22

1. Program Analysis - area required for building, parking, circulation, open space, etc.
2. Site Analysis and Selection - existing conditions study, assist Owner in selecting site.
3. Cultural Factor Analysis - research history of the site and analyze impact of development.
4. Environmental Studies - determine impact of project on environment.
5. Economic Analysis - impact on development cost.

Question 23

Who is responsible for all decisions regarding design during programming?

Answer 23

The Owner.

The Architect is mainly responsible for collecting design information and presenting the data to the Owner for review and decision.

Question 24

The Architect and Owner are in disagreement on which design layout would be most appropriate for a project. Who makes the final decision?

Answer 24

The Owner.

The Architect mainly provides information and data to support a certain layout or design. It is ultimately the Owner’s decision for which design to choose.

Question 25

What should the budget for the project as well as the cost estimate be prepared during programming?

Answer 25

The budget should be supplied by the Owner at the beginning of the programming phase.

Question 26

You have received conflicting instructions from the project manager and superintendent, both hired by the Owner. Whose instructions should you follow?

Answer 26

Though both parties are hired by the Owner, generally one person has been designated as the authorized representative on the Owner’s behalf and so should be the lead contact for information by the Architect. If, however, a dispute arises the Owner should be contacted for final direction.

Question 27

What are five ways in which an Architect can involve the client, users, consultants and stakeholders in developing the project design?

Answer 27

1. Attend community meetings.
2. Hold private meetings with clients and end users.
3. Hold public meetings with stakeholders and clients.
4. Hold town hall type meetings for the community.
5. Hold a charette to encourage input on design.

Question 28

Name four ways an Architect can communicate design ideas and collect feedback from users and stakeholders.

Answer 28

1. Present plans, elevations, models and 3D sketches.
2. Show a Power Point presentation.
3. Conduct interviews with stakeholders and end users.
4. Distribute questionnaires to clients, end users, and stakeholders.

Question 29

What are the main concerns stakeholders and community groups may have related to a project’s impact on the surrounding area?

Answer 29

Impact and effect on:

1. Environment (increase in pollution, displacement of animals and plants on site, alteration of water movement on site).
2. Increases in traffic, noise, and density.
3. Inappropriate uses for the neighborhood.

Question 30

What are some common materials that may contain VOCs? Name two methods for controlling their effect on indoor air quality.

Answer 30

Off-gassing of VOCs may come from glues and adhesives from carpet, millwork, and hardwood flooring as well as paint.
To mitigate this hazard, the Architect should specify low/no VOC products as well as provide adequate passive and mechanical ventilation to continually bring fresh air into the building.

Question 31

A site is located near an industrial center with a high level of air pollution. What are some measures to protect building users from harmful air borne particulates?

Answer 31

1. Install air filter equivalent to MERV (Minimum Efficiency Reporting Value) 13 or better.
2. Regular maintenance of the building ventilation systems, such as cleaning filters, and replacing outdated equipment.
3. Incorporate dehumidification or humidification equipment.

Question 32

What is the difference between carbon monoxide and radon and what are mitigation measures for each?

Answer 32

Carbon monoxide is generated from fires or combustion equipment.
Mitigation measures - vent combustion equipment directly to the outside, install detectors in sleeping rooms & hallways.
Radon naturally occurs in the soil as uranium and thorium decay.
Mitigation measures - conduct testing, increase under floor and basement ventilation, install a radon sump pump in basement.

Question 33

What are the main causes of mold and mildew growth and how can this problem be avoided?

Answer 33

Mold and mildew growth occurs most often in wet areas such as bathrooms, kitchens, laundry rooms, and shower rooms. In order to grow, mold requires an environment with excessive moisture, lack of ventilation, organic compounds to serve as a food source, and warm air temperature.
Installing passive ventilation (operable windows) and mechanical ventilation (direct venting to exterior) can help avoid many mold issues.

Question 34

During schematic design of a preschool, you are approached by a group of parents who request a certain finish material for the playground. How should you respond?

Answer 34

As the Architect, it is important to receive input from end users during the design process. However, an Architect should not take direction from an end user but rather forward the request or concern on to the client for review and final direction.

Question 35

What are similar design characteristics that would be utilized in the design of a nursing home and an elementary school?

Answer 35

Both user groups, the elderly and children, require more security, adult supervision, are sensitive to material finishes, and higher indoor air quality should become a priority.
For the elderly, other concerns include less mobility and increased lighting levels.
For children, other concerns include use of softer surfaces and accommodating higher levels of activity.

Question 36

How does contracting with an individual homeowner differ from a building project with a corporation?

Answer 36

When designing for an individual homeowner, the Architect interacts directly with the Owner for all project decisions and direction.
A business or corporation generally employs a board of directors, of whom an authorized representative will be designated to act on behalf of the board for all project related matters.

Question 37

You have been hired to design a synagogue, however you have no knowledge of the Jewish culture. How can you ensure your design will meet the needs of your client and end users?

Answer 37

1. Hire a cultural consultant.
2. Conduct studies of the culture through research, travel or interviews.
3. Attend an assembly or gathering.
4. Hold design review meetings.
5. Conduct interviews and distribute questionnaires with members of the cultural community.

Question 38

What is the importance of including input from user groups during programming?

Answer 38

In order to fully understand any assumptions an to verify analysis data, such as space planning, adjacencies and function, it is important that the Architect collect information from end users to make sure the building will function adequately once completed.

Question 39

What is the difference between a Citizen’s Advisory Committee and a Neighborhood Community Organization?

Answer 39

Citizen’s Advisory Committee is a group of community members appointed by local board or agency to provide input and feedback on project proposals.

Question 40

How can an Architect determine stakeholder expectation and influence project participation?

Answer 40

To determine expectations, an Architect should conduct interviews, focus groups, workshops, surveys and observation.

To influence stakeholders, an Architect should create partnerships, keep all parties involved and informed, and have regular milestone meetings.

Question 41

Name three design methods to maintain appropriate internal lighting levels.

Answer 41

1, Daylight sensors - artificial lighting is increased or decreased depending on the amount of natural light entering the space.

2. Occupancy sensors - lights turn off when space is not in use.
3. Dimmable controls - occupants have control to increase or decrease lighting levels in individual spaces.

Question 42

Name four site related safety design measures and four building related safety design measures an Architect can incorporate into a project.

Answer 42

1. Site Safety - Building lighting at exterior, including entryways and exit doors; site lighting in parking lot; access control (keys, cards, etc.); security cameras.
2. Building Safety - Controlled check in area; alarms (fire, smoke, elevator, security); egress (paths clearly marked, emergency evacuation plan); glazing (tempered in stairways, doors).

Question 43

Name three design methods to maintain the proper internal air temperature.

Answer 43

1. Occupancy sensors - HVAC equipment set to properly cool or heat a space based on number of occupants.
2. Zoning - “hot areas” receive more cooling while warm areas receive less heat.
3. Thermostatic controls - occupants have control over individual spaces.

Question 44

How do the acoustical design concerns differ between an office building and an auditorium?

Answer 44

An office building will likely require control of noise between loud and quiet spaces (conference rooms vs. private offices) though the use of separation/isolation, metal furring strips, acoustical tiles and insulation.
An auditorium will focus more on directing and reflecting sound as well as absorbing it in necessary spaces, such as backstage areas.

Question 45

What are four energy efficiency design methods that can be incorporated into a building project?

Answer 45

1. Heating & Air Conditioning - properly seal ducts, install multiple zones and programmable thermostats, use high efficiency furnace.
2. Water Heating - insulate hot water tanks & pipes, use solar hot water system.
3. Lighting - use daylighting, fluorescent or LEDs, install dimmer controls and occupancy sensors.
4. Appliances - select Energy Star appliances.

Question 46

Other than low flow showerheads and toilets, what are other design methods for water conservation?

Answer 46

1. Install a graywater system to reuse irrigation water.
2. Install a rainwater harvesting system to reuse rainfall.
3. Install drought tolerant landscaping to reduce amount of site water used.
4. Drip irrigation or sprinklers on timers and rain sensors to reduce site water used.

Question 47

What five actions can an Architect take to utilize resource conservation during project design?

Answer 47

1. Re-use existing materials on site.
2. Re-use recyclable materials.
3. Select locally manufactured materials.
4. Use rapidly renewable materials.
5. Use wood products that have been sustainably harvested.

Question 48

Which of the following adjacencies is the most appropriate for a day spa?
A. Reception, locker rooms, treatment
B. Reception, treatment, locker rooms
C Entry, restrooms,

Answer 48

D. This flow of adjacencies is the most appropriate for this building function as it moves from more public spaces to more private spaces.

Question 49

What factors should an Architect consider when developing spatial requirements and adjacencies?

Answer 49

1. Assign priority to spaces to determine most important adjacencies.
2. Consider furniture and special equipment placement.
3. Analyze flow patterns of occupants, vehicular traffic patterns, future needs of building, open space requirements.

Question 50

What kind of programming requirements would need to be considered for the design of a fire station?

Answer 50

1. Needs of the firefighters and staff
2. Adequate spaces for necessary equipment
3. Administrative and sleeping facilities
4. Size and requirements for fire truck bays

Question 51

The Owner has chosen a site that is long and narrow and asymmetrical in shape. How could this affect the design of the project?

Answer 51

Space sizes could be affected if large rooms are required.
Building orientation will be important in order to maximize site efficiency while still taking advantage of views, sunlight, ventilation, etc.
Parking and other site requirements may be affected if there is not enough land remaining outside of the building footprint.

Question 52

Name six topographical conditions to consider when evaluating a site.

Answer 52

1. Grading - is the site flat, hilly, or sloped?
2. Vehicular Access - during & after construction.
3. Utilities Access - existing on site or must be extended.
4. Site Features - rock outcroppings, cliffs, forests, etc.
5. Bodies of water - wetlands, lakes, streams, ocean, etc.
6. Views - preserve significant existing views.

Question 53

A site is located on a steep, undeveloped slope with southern views to the ocean. What are three primary concerns for this location?

Answer 53

1. Grading and Foundation type - steep slope will require either extensive grading or a pile foundation system, or both.
2. Utilities Access - an undeveloped piece of land will need to connect to existing utilities.
3. Views - preservation of southern view may be desired.

Question 54

How can a site be designed to avoid the ponding of water?

Answer 54

1. Reduce the amount of paving on site or use pervious paving materials.
2. Include proper grading and swales to direct water away from the building and to the storm drain system.

Question 55

What is the difference between Topographical Conditions and Geological Conditions?

Answer 55

Topographical conditions occur on the surface of a site.

Geological conditions occur under the surface of a site.

Question 56

What effect dos a high water table have on site design?

Answer 56

1. Site Drainage - dewatering may be necessary as well as storm water runoff management.
2. Foundation Type - mat slab floating on upper soil layers or piles extending to bear on stable soil.
3. Waterproofing - foundation and basement walls require proper protection from water damage.

Question 57

What are the similarities and differences between a mat foundation and a pile foundation?

Answer 57

Similarities:
Both foundation types can be used on expansive soils or a site with a high water table.
Differences:
Mat foundation essentially floats a building on the upper soil layers of the site.
Pile foundation is penetrated deep into the site to reach stable soil.

Question 58

What are three passive design strategies that can be included on a building located in a desert climate?

Answer 58

Deserts are known for extreme temperature ranges, both very hot and very cold.

1. Properly insulating the walls and ceilings to help maintain the indoor temperature.
2. Using large overhangs on the southern exposure to allow for ample sunlight in winter and shading in summer.
3. Use of operable windows to allow for natural ventilation and air exchange.

Question 59

Name three design methods for protection against water penetration of the building envelope?

Answer 59

1. Proper slope and drainage of roof reduces risk of ponding and leakage.
2. Overhangs above doors and windows protects the openings from water infiltration.
3. A properly designed rain screen envelope minimizes moisture buildup in the exterior skin.

Question 60

What is the main design concern regarding snow drift?

Answer 60

Snow drift occurs when two adjacent roofs are at different heights and the snow can stack on the lower roof, creating larger loads in that area. This additional weight creates a greater stress on the building structure so a building located in this climate must be designed to accommodate the additional loads.

Question 61

You are designing a museum containing artifacts that are sensitive to light and humidity. What measures should you take given these conditions?

Answer 61

1. Maximize use of indirect lighting for the spaces containing artifacts, such as clerestory windows.
2. Use of effective moisture control such as exhaust fans in toilet rooms to minimize indoor humidity, and utilize exterior details that allow materials to breathe.
3. Install special humidification or dehumidification equipment to maintain proper humidity in the gallery spaces.

Question 62

Why should an Architect be concerned with wind hazards?

Answer 62

Strong winds can damage buildings by introducing lateral forces, particularly on projections such as parapets and overhangs. These elements must be designed to resist uplift and overturning forces. Wind can also propel objects at buildings during hurricanes and tornadoes so a building should be designed to withstand impact forces.

Question 63

You are designing an office building near a wetland area and the landscape architect wants to introduce a new plant species. What effect may this have on the wetland area?

Answer 63

Non-native plant species can have a negative impact on a wetland by displacing or destroying native species, altering the wetland function or service as well as disrupting the ecosystem. An Architect should take great care to minimize or eliminate construction and disturbance in wetland areas as well as maintain the proper permits for this type of site.

Question 64

Name four federal agencies that may be involved in the approval process for a wetlands project.

Answer 64

USACE, US Fish and Wildlife Service, US Environmental Protection Agency, National Resources Conservation Service

Question 65

What are “The Big Four” permits/approvals that may be required for most wetland or stream projects?

Answer 65

1. USACE 404 Permit
2. RWQCB 401 Cert.
3. CDFG Streambed Alteration Agreement
4. CEQA Compliance

Question 66

Define “flora and “fauna” and describe how your design may be affected by their presence on the site.

Answer 66

Flora is plant life. Fauna is animal life. Site design may be affected by needing to designate no disturbance zones, re-planting disturbed areas, minimizing effect on food and water supply, and minimizing night site lighting and wildlife use corridors.

Question 67

Your client has a site located near a wetland in the coastal zone. Which state agencies may be required for approval to design on this site?

Answer 67

California Coastal Commission, CalEPA, California Dept of Fish and Game, State Water Resources Control Board

Question 68

Define the Coastal Zone in California according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).

Answer 68

The California Coastal Zone generally extends 1,000 yards inland from the mean high tide line. In significant coastal estuarine habitats and recreational areas it extend inland to the first major ridgeline or five miles from the mean high tide line, whichever is less. In developed urban areas, the boundary is generally less than 1,000 yards.

Question 69

Which state and federal agencies may be involved in the review process for habitats of endangered species?

Answer 69

State Agencies:

1. Department of Fish and Game
2. CalEPA

Federal Agencies:

1. US Fish and Wildlife Service
2. US Environmental Protection Agency

Question 70

Who performs a soil survey and how does this information affect project design?

Answer 70

Soil surveys are performed by a Geotechnical Engineer and are useful to help determine what types of soils exist on the site, and typically recommends the foundation type or types to be used.
If soils are stable, spread footings may be used. If soils are not stable or if a high water table exists, a mat or pile foundation may need to be used.

Question 71

Which seismic zone in California poses the greatest earthquake hazard?

Answer 71

Seismic Zone 4. Zone 4 is located nearest to active earthquake faults and poses a greater hazard than Zone 3.

Four seismic zones in the US, higher the number, higher the danger. All of California lies within 3 and 4.

Question 72

According to the California Geological Survey, what is a fault and how are they defined on fault zone maps?

Answer 72

A fault is a fracture in the crust of the earth along which rocks on one side have moved relative to those on the other side. An active fault is one that has ruptured in the last 11,000 years. Earthquake Fault Zones are plotted on topographic maps at a scale of 1 inch equals 2,000 feet and typically average about one-quarter mile wide.

Question 73

Name the three fire zones in California and what factors the severity of each is based on.

Answer 73

The three fire zones in California are based on increasing fire hazard: medium, high, and very high.
Zones are based on factors such as fuel (material that can burn), slope and fire weather. Fire burns faster uphill and weather conditions such as high temperatures, winds or low humidity can cause a fire to grow rapidly.

Question 74

Name five ground effects an earthquake can cause on a site.

Answer 74

1. Ground shaking - causes over 90% of all damage.
2. Landslide - shaking causes soil and rock to slide off a slope.
3. Fault Rupture - crack forms as ground is offset along the two sides of a fault.
4. Lateral Spreading - shaking causes soil to break into blocks and separate.
5. Liquefaction - loose, wet sandy soil causes the foundation to sink.

Question 75

What must occur before a project can be permitted in relation to earthquake fault zones?

Answer 75

Before a project can be permitted, cities and counties require a geologic investigation to show the building will not be constructed across active faults. If an active fault is found, a structure for human occupancy must be set back from the fault, generally 50 feet.
The Alquist-Priolo Act (1972) is intended to prevent construction of buildings used for human occupancy on the surface of active faults.

Question 76

What are the two key elements of the Fire Hazard Severity Zone model?

Answer 76

1. Probability of burning
2. Probability fire behavior
   CAL FIRE has developed a model that serves as the basis of zone assignments that is based on factors such as fire history, existing and potential fuel, flame length, blowing embers, terrain, weather and likelihood of buildings igniting.

Question 77

What are three methods to reduce the chance of building loss due to fire?

Answer 77

1. Defensible space - reduce flammable material around homes to keep direct flames and heat away (law requires 100 feet around buildings).
2. Exterior wildlife exposure protection - construct buildings of fire resistant materials.
3. Green Zone - clearing an area of 30 feet immediately surrounding homes, keep roof clear of flammable material, trim tree branches and keep a spark arrester on the chimney.

Question 78

What types of disasters is FEMA responsible for?

Answer 78

FEMA has nationwide responsibility for reducing damage from hurricanes, earthquakes, tornadoes, floods, fires, hazardous spills, acts of nature or terrorism. FEMA also creates and maintains Floor Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs) which delineate both the special hazard areas and the risk premium zones applicable to the community.

Question 79

What site design measures can an Architect use to mitigate flood damage?

Answer 79

1. Locate building pads above 100 year floodplain.
2. Avoid large areas of concrete/hard surface.
3. Use of swales to direct water runoff.

Question 80

Define the three wind Exposure Categories from most protected to least protected.

Answer 80

1. Exposure B - urban & suburban areas, wooded areas or other terrain with closely spaced obstructions.
2. Exposure C - open terrain with scattered obstructions with heights less than 30 feet.
3. Exposure D - flat, unobstructed areas & water surfaces not in hurricane prone regions.
   Wind Exposure Categories are determined by “ground surface roughness” that arises from natural and constructed site features.

Question 81

What building design measures can an Architect use to mitigate flood damage?

Answer 81

1. Avoid building in a flood prone area unless the structure is elevated and reinforced.
2. Elevate the furnace, water heater & electrical panels if susceptible to flooding.
3. Install “check valves” in sewer traps to prevent floodwater from backing up into drains.
4. Seal walls of basement with waterproofing compounds to avoid seepage.

Question 82

It is discovered that there are hazardous materials present on a site. What mitigation measures should be followed?

Answer 82

1. Removing hazardous material from the site and properly disposing per federal, state and local guidelines.
2. Encapsulating and permanently sealing the material on the site per federal, state and local guidelines.

Question 83

What are the acts, laws, and regulations applicable to hazardous material mitigation?

Answer 83

1. Toxic Substances Control Act (Federal)
2. Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation and Liability Act, Superfund (Federal)
3. Federal EPA Brownfields Program
4. California EPA Brownfields Program
5. Federal EPA Clean Air Act
6. Federal EPA Clean Water Act

Question 84

Describe the Entitlement Phase of the approval process for gaining permits from regulatory agencies.

Answer 84

1. Submit DD drawings with enough info to show size and scope of project to the local Planning Dept. Drawings will be reviewed for compliance with CEQA, Zoning, Codes, local ordinances, LCP if in coastal zone, and Specific Plan.
2. Attend any Design Review Board meetings.
3. Submit drawings to state, regional, and local agencies as required.

Question 85

What step follows the Entitlement Phase during the approval process?

Answer 85

After approval from Planning Dept and other regulatory agencies, the Architect would produce a set of contract documents including architectural and consultant for submission to the local agencies (Planning, Building & Safety, Transportation, Department of Public Works, Fire, Police)

Question 86

What conditions must be in place in order to obtain a building permit?

Answer 86

All agencies must sign off on the project before a building permit is issued.

• Owner can obtain the Building Permit.
• GC can obtain the Building Permit and will have to show license and proof of workers comp insurance.
• Architect does not obtain the permit

Question 87

What is the function of a Design Review Board?

Answer 87

Design Review Boards typically consist of design professionals appointed by the City Council to provide advice on new development projects and exterior changes to buildings. The function to make recommendations (advisory in nature) to the Planning Commission, Zoning Administrator, Planning Staff or City Council.

Question 88

Does a Design Review Board make final permit decisions?

Answer 88

Typically, no. Design Review Boards are advisory in nature and make recommendations. Final permit decisions are usually made by the Planning Commission, Zoning Administrator, Planning Staff, or City Council.

Question 89

What are the typical design concerns of a Design Review Board?

Answer 89

1. Appropriate use consistent with the neighborhood.
2. Massing of building, exterior colors & materials.
3. Relationship of proposed building to neighboring buildings.
4. Landscaping consistent with neighborhood.
5. Location of Mechanical Equipment.
6. Signage and site lighting.
7. Parking requirements.

Question 90

What kind of approval is generally required from a Design Review Board?

Answer 90

In most cities, review and approval from a Design Review Board is required for new construction, additions or remodels of existing buildings, with exceptions on building type or zone depending on the local municipality.
Final permit decisions are usually made by the Planning Commission, Zoning Administrator, Planning Staff, or City Council.

Question 91

What is the main focus of an Air Quality Management District?

Answer 91

Air Quality Management Districts are regional agencies located throughout California to regulate and control emissions primarily from stationary sources. AQMD has developed extensive programs included planning, regulation, compliance assistance, enforcement, monitoring, technology advancement and public education.

Question 92

What does CEQA stand for? What is the mission and purpose of CEQA?

Answer 92

California Environmental Quality Act.
Mission: require state & local agencies to identify significant environmental impacts of their actions and avoid or mitigate those impacts, if feasible.
Purpose: inform governmental decision makers & the public of any potential significant effects of proposed activities on the environment and to provide opportunities to review and comment on draft documents.

Question 93

Is CEQA an agency? Are plans submitted for review to CEQA?

Answer 93

No, it is an Act.

No.

Question 94

Who is the Lead Agency and what are they responsible for?

Answer 94

Lead Agency is typically local planning department, but could also be State agency depending on the project. The Lead Agency has primary responsibility to complete the environmental review process required by CEQA. They are responsible for coordinating with the project applicant, the public, and other agencies during the review process.

Question 95

Who is the Responsible Agency and what role do they play in the CEQA review process?

Answer 95

Responsible Agency is the public agency or agencies with discretionary approval authority over a portion of a CEQA project and interfaces directly with the Lead Agency (for example, the AQMD can be a Responsible Agency and consult with the Lead Agency).

Question 96

What role does the Commenting Agency play during CEQA review?

Answer 96

Commenting Agency is a public agency with “jurisdiction by law” over a particular natural resource, but is neither a Lead Agency or a Responsible Agency.

Question 97

What is a Trustee Agency?

Answer 97

A Trustee Agency is a state agency having jurisdiction by law over natural resources affected by a project which are held in trust for the people of the State of California.

Question 98

What are two types of exemptions from compliance with CEQA?

Answer 98

Statutory Exemption - projects which the California Legislature has decided are not subject to CEQA procedures and policies.
Categorical Exemption - projects which the Secretary of the Resources Agency has determined do not usually have a significant effect on the environment.

Question 99

What happens if the project is determined to be exempt from CEQA?

Answer 99

A Notice of Exemption may be filed by the State Agency, who files with the Office of Planning and Research, or the Local Agency, who files with the County Clerk of each county in which the project will be located.

Question 100

If a project is not exempt from CEQA, what is the first step taken by the Lead Agency?

Answer 100

The Lead Agency will perform an Initial Study: preliminary analysis to determine whether an EIR or a Negative Declaration must be prepared or to identify the significant environmental effects to be analyzed in an EIR.

Question 101

What is the difference between a negative declaration and a mitigated negative declaration?

Answer 101

A Negative Declaration means no significant impacts were found on the environment in respect to the project and, as a result, the project may proceed as designed.
A Mitigated Negative Declaration means significant impacts were found, but the project can be revised/redesigned to avoid or mitigate those impacts and can move forward.

Question 102

What is an Environmental Impact Report (EIR)?

Answer 102

An Environmental Impact Report (EIR) is a detailed report prepared by the Lead Agency describing and analyzing the significant environmental effects of a proposed project, identifying alternatives and discussing ways to reduce or avoid possible environmental damage. The project may be slowed or halted until an EIR can be prepared, reviewed and approved.

Question 103

What first step does the Lead Agency take when preparing an EIR?

Answer 103

The first step is to send a Notice of Preparation (NOP) to the responsible agencies, trustee agencies, and involved federal agencies to inform them of the planned EIR. The purpose is to solicit guidance from those agencies as to the scope and content to be included in the EIR.

Question 104

What is a purpose of a Notice of Completion during the EIR process?

Answer 104

A Notice of Completion (NOC) is a brief notice released by the Lead Agency as soon as it has completed a draft EIR for public review and comment. This begins the Public Review Period for the EIR.

Question 105

What are the minimum and maximum review periods for the general public and agencies for an EIR and when does it occur?

Answer 105

30 days minimum and 60 days maximum.

If the draft EIR is sent to the State Clearinghouse, the review period shall not be less than 45 days. This review priod occurs AFTER the draft EIR has been completed and submitted for public review.

Question 106

Who is the State Clearinghouse and what do they do?

Answer 106

The State Clearinghouse is a division of the Governor’s Office of Planning and Research and they coordinate the state-level review of environmental documents that are prepared pursuant to CEQA.

Question 107

Define a Notice of Determination (NOD).

Answer 107

A Notice of Determination (NOD) is a brief notice filed by the Lead Agency after it approves or determines to carry out a project subject to the requirements of CEQA. It is filed once a decision has been reached on the project, either approval or disapproval of the Negative Declaration or final EIR.

Question 108

Name seven impacts a project can have on the environment.

Answer 108

1. Storm water runoff
2. Parking implications
3. Pollution from equipment
4. Damage to wildlife and plants
5. Increase in traffic, noise
6. Soil erosion
7. Modification to wetlands

Question 109

Describe the CEQA review process for a non exempt project.

Answer 109

1. Lead Agency performs Initial Study
2. Decision by Lead Agency to prepare EIR or Negative Declaration
   For EIR: Notice of Preparation sent to Responsible Agency, draft EIR prepared by Lead Agency
3. Public Review Period: 20-30 days for Negative Declaration, 30-60 days for EIR
4. Decision on project. Lead Agency files Notice of Determination with County Clerk (local) or Office of Planning & Research (state)

Question 110

What is the function and purpose of the California Coastal Act?

Answer 110

The California Coastal Act establishes a far reaching coastal protection program and made permanent the California Coastal Commission.
The Commission plans and regulates development and natural resource use along the coast in partnership with local governments and in keeping with the requirements of the Coastal Act.

Question 111

Name six issues addressed by the California Coastal Act.

Answer 111

1. Shoreline public access and recreation
2. Terrestrial and marine habitat protection
3. Landform alteration
4. Offshore oil and gas development
5. Transportation and development design
6. Water quality

Question 112

What are the most significant provisions of the federal Coastal Zone Management Act?

Answer 112

The California Coast Commission and Bay Conservation and Development Commission are the two designated coastal management agencies to administer the federal Coastal Zone Management Act.
The CZMA gives state coastal management agencies regulatory control over all federal coastal activities. This is important because it is often the only review authority over federal coastal activities given to any state agency.

Question 113

Which part of the coastal zone is not included in the California Coastal Act?

Answer 113

The coastal zone established by the Coast Act does not include San Francisco Bay, where development is regulated by the Bay Conservation and Development Commission (BCDC).

Question 114

What is required before a project may commence in a coastal zone and what program must be followed?

Answer 114

Development within the coastal zone may not commence until a Coastal Development Permit has been issued by either the Commission or a local government that has a Commission-certified local coastal program.
The project must follow the guidelines laid out in the Local Coastal Program.

Question 115

What is a Local Coastal Program and who develops it?

Answer 115

A Local Coastal Program (LCP) contains basic planning tools used by local governments to guide development in the coastal zone. LCPs contain ground rules for future development and protection of coastal resources, specify appropriate location, type and scale of new or changed uses of land and water, and include land use plans. They are prepared and developed by local governments.

Question 116

What regulations in the California Coastal Act affect public access and recreation?

Answer 116

Public Access - development not to interfere with right of access to sea, public access to be provided from nearest public roadway to shoreline, unless safety hazards exist.
Recreation - areas suited for water activities shall be protected for such uses, encouragement of recreational boating use by developing dry storage areas and increasing public launching facilities.

Question 117

Name three ways a project can minimize adverse impacts in the Coastal Zone?

Answer 117

1. Assure stability and structural integrity and neither create nor contribute significantly to erosion, geologic instability or destruction of area.
2. Maintain consistency with requirements imposed by an air pollution control district or State Board.
3. Protect special communities and neighborhoods that are popular visitor destination points for recreational use.

Question 118

What are five types of development along the coast that would require a Coastal Development Permit?

Answer 118

1. Placement of any solid material or structure.
2. Change in land use density or intensity.
3. Change in intensity of water use or access to water.
4. Removal of major vegetation.
5. Any development which constitutes a major public works project or a major energy facility.

Question 119

What are three project types that are exempt from a Coastal Development Permit?

Answer 119

1. Improvements to existing single-family dwellings.
2. Improvements to any structure provided there are no adverse affects on the environment, public access or that involve a change in use contrary to the California Coastal Act.
3. Maintenance dredging of existing navigation channels or moving dredged material from those channels to a disposal area.

Question 120

What major element of The California Clean Air Act sets it apart from federal regulations?

Answer 120

The California Clean Air Act provides the basis for air quality planning and regulation independent of federal regulations. A major element of the Act is the requirement that local air districts in violation of the California Ambient Air Quality Standards must prepare attainment plans that identify air quality problems, causes, trends and actions to be taken to attain and maintain California’s air quality standards.

Question 121

Describe the Field Act.

Answer 121

The purpose of the Field Act is to protect children and staff from death and injury in public schools grades K-14 and protect the public’s investment in school buildings during and after earthquakes. It applies to public schools K-12 and community colleges. The Field Act was enacted in 1933 after the Long Beach earthquake which destroyed 70 schools and damaged 120 others.

Question 122

Who has jurisdictional authority to enforce the Field Act and what is the Architect’s and the Owner’s role during construction?

Answer 122

Division of the State Architect (DSA).
Plans & Specs are reviewed and approved including structural, fire & life safety and accessibility. Architect is required to provide Construction Administration Services and any changes to the drawings or specs must be approved by DSA. A DSA certified inspector, hired by the Owner, must oversee construction and prepare verified reports that are sent to DSA after completion.

Question 123

What prompted the seismic safety deadlines as required by the Hospital Facilities Seismic Safety Act and what are they?

Answer 123

Prompted by the Northridge earthquake in 1994 which caused 23 hospitals to lose service. Seismic safety deadlines include:
2013 - at risk inpatient buildings must be rebuilt, retrofitted or closed.
2030 - all hospital buildings in state must be operational following a major earthquake.

Question 124

What is the Essential Services Buildings Seismic Safety Act (ESBSSA) and where can it be found?

Answer 124

The ESBSSA of 1986 determined that buildings providing essential services should be capable of providing those services after a disaster. Requirements include that such buildings shall be designed and constructed to minimize fire hazards and to resist the forces of earthquakes, gravity and winds.
It is contained in the California Health and Safety Code, Section 16000-16022.

Question 125

What four nonstructural components are vital to the operation of essential services buildings following the effects of a natural disaster?

Answer 125

1. Communication Systems
2. Main Transformers
3. Switching Equipment
4. Emergency Backup Systems

These nonstructural components shall be able to resist, insofar as practical, the forces generated by earthquakes, gravity, fire and winds.

Question 126

Name six different types of Essential Services Buildings

Answer 126

1. Fire stations
2. Police stations
3. CHP stations
4. California Operations Center
5. Sheriff’s Office
6. Emergency Communication Dispatch Center

Question 127

Who is the enforcement agency for essential services buildings?

Answer 127

1. Local Agency - County or local Building & Safety Department if the facility is not owned by the State of California.
2. Division of the State Architect - State owned facilities and facilities leased by the State.
   Drawings and specifications must be submitted for review and approval to the Enforcement Agency.

Question 128

What two types of buildings are exempt from the Essential Services Buildings Seismic Safety Act?

Answer 128

1. One story Type V construction less than 2000 SF

2. Type II N construction less than 2000 SF

Question 129

Who must prepare drawings for an essential services building?

Answer 129

All drawings and specifications shall be prepared under the responsible charge of an architect, civil engineer or structural engineer who shall sign all drawings and specifications for approval of the enforcement agency.
If the work does not involve architectural or structural conditions, drawings and specifications may be prepared by a registered professional engineer qualified in the type of engineering appropriate to the project.

Question 130

What qualifications must a building inspector have to be considered competent and adequate by the local enforcement agency?

Answer 130

To be qualified, inspector shall have an adequate level of expertise and experience in the subject matter for which they have responsibilities for inspection. Qualifications shall include current certification by the International Conference of Building Officials (ICBO) or meet qualifications according to the International Building Code.

Question 131

What is considered “Periodic Review of Construction”?

Answer 131

Periodic review of construction means the knowledge which is obtained from periodic site visits of reasonable frequency or the purposes of general observation of the work and also which is obtained from the reporting of others as to the progress of the work, testing of materials, and inspection and superintendence of what is performed between those periodic site visits.

Question 132

Who prepares reports for submittal to the enforcement agency during construction of an essential services building?

Answer 132

1. Architect
2. General Contractor
3. Qualified Inspector hired by the Owner
   These three parties must prepare reports for submittal to the enforcement agency and also must review reports made by others. These reports show that to each of their own personal knowledge, the work has been performed and materials installed in accordance with drawings and specifications.

Question 133

True or False: the Architect MUST perform contract administration on an essential services building.

Answer 133

True.

Typically a basic service per the contract, but required for essential services buildings.

Question 134

What role does the Division of the State Architect play during design and construction of an essential services building according to the Essential Services Buildings Seismic Safety Act (ESBSSA)?

Answer 134

DSA is responsible for the following:

1. Observe the implementation & administration of the ESBSSA.
2. Provide advice and assistance to local jurisdictions regarding essential services buildings.
3. Hear appeals relative to administration of ESBSSA.

Question 135

What is the difference between the California Code of Regulations and California Building Standards Code?

Answer 135

The California Code of Regulations contains all of the regulations adopted, amended or repealed by the state agencies pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act. It is divided into 28 Titles.

The California Building Standards Code is Title 24 of the CCR.

Question 136

What is the difference between the California Building Standards Code and the California Building Code?

Answer 136

The California Buildings Standards Code contains all of California’s building codes (Parts 1-12). The California Building Standards Commission is responsible for adopting, approving, administering and implementing codes and standards. The California Building Code is Part 2 of the California Building Standards Code.

Question 137

True or False: Title 24 refers to energy calculations submitted to local building departments.

Answer 137

False.

Title 24 refers to the entire California Building Standards Code. The Energy Code is Part 6 of Title 24.

Question 138

How many parts are contained within the California Building Standards Code?

Answer 138

There are 12 parts to the California Building Standards Code, with an addition of Parts 2.5 California Residential Building Code for 2010. Part 7 is no longer published.

Question 139

What are the key components of the California Building Code that the Building Department will review during plan check?

Answer 139

1. Occupancy Type
2. Construction Type
3. Building or Floor Area
4. Building Height
5. Exits/Egress
6. Building Separation and Shafts
7. Fire Protection and extinguishing systems
8. Accessibility Requirements
9. Engineering Requirements

Question 140

What is the main purpose of the California Building Code (CBC)?

Answer 140

The main purpose of the California Building Code is to establish the minimum requirements to safeguard the health, safety and general welfare of the public.

Question 141

What are the 10 Occupancy Classifications contained in the California Building Code?

Answer 141

A - Assembly
B - Business
E - Educational
F - Factory Industrial
H - Hazardous
I - Institutional
M - Mercantile
R - Residential
S - Storage
U - Utility & Misc.

Question 142

How is a structural survey utilized in the restoration of a historical building?

Answer 142

A structural survey will evaluate any deterioration or signs of distress as well as determine the details of structural framing and the system for resistance of gravity and lateral loads.
Results of the survey shall be utilized for evaluating the structural capacity and for designing modifications to the structural system to reach compliance with the CHBC.

Question 143

What four regulations does Part 9 - California Fire Code establish for buildings and properties?

Answer 143

Part 9 - California Fire Code of the CBSC establishes regulations regarding:

1. Hazard of fire & explosion from storage materials
2. Occupancy conditions hazardous to life or property
3. Repair or removal of fire alarm systems
4. Conditions affecting safety of emergency responders during emergency operations

Question 144

What is the purpose and scope of Part 10 - California Existing Building Code?

Answer 144

Part 10 - California Existing Building Code is meant to promote public safety and welfare by reducing the risk of death or injury that may result from the effects of earthquakes on existing unreinforced masonry bearing walls.
The scope of this part shall apply to all existing buildings having at least one unreinforced masonry bearing wall.

Question 145

What five areas does Part 11 - California Green Building Standards Code (CALGreen) encourage as sustainable construction practices?

Answer 145

1. Planning and design
2. Energy efficiency
3. Water efficiency and conservation
4. Material conservation and resource efficiency
5. Environmental quality

Question 146

What is the scope of the CALGreen Code?

Answer 146

The CALGreen code shall apply to the planning, design, operation, construction, use and occupancy of every newly constructed building or structure, unless otherwise indicated in this code, throughout the State of California.

Question 147

How is the California Building Standards Code (CBSC) different from model codes?

Answer 147

The CBSC (specifically the CBC) is distinct from model codes in the following ways:

1. More stringent seismic design requirements
2. More stringent structural tests and special inspections
3. Chapter 7A Wildfire Exposure
4. Chapter 11A & 11B - Accessibility requirements developed and maintained by DSA
5. CBSC includes California Energy Code (Part 6)

Question 148

Name five state agencies that have amended a section of the model code and are included in the CBSC in brackets.

Answer 148

1. SFM - Office of State Fire Marshall
2. HCD - Department of Housing and Community Development
3. OSHPD - Office of Statewise Health Planning and Development
4. DSA-AC - Division of the State Architect - Access Compliance
5. CA - Department of Consumer Affairs

Question 149

What issues should the Architect consider during programming that will be a concern of the local building department?

Answer 149

Even though programming is the initial stage of design, local building department concerns should be taken into account for the following:

1. Fire department access and egress
2. Life safety
3. Building type and occupancy separations
4. Accessibility for both the site and building

Question 150

Define the five different construction types.

Answer 150

Type I - Steel, reinforced concrete, masonry construction, non-combustible structure required and fire-resistant
Type II - Steel, reinforced concrete, masonry construction, non-combustible structure required and fire-resistant
Type III - same as I and II but can include wood except in the structural frame.
Type IV - Heavy Timber
Type V - Steel, reinforced concrete, masonry or wood construction.
Differences in Construction Type typically refer to fire ratings of components such as structural systems, exterior bearing walls, interior bearing walls, shafts, floors and floor/ceiling assemblies, and roof and roof/ceiling assemblies.

Question 151

What are the five main concerns to determine at the beginning of a project?

Answer 151

1. Occupancy Group
2. Construction Type
3. Location of building on the property
4. Allowable Floor Area
5. Height and number of stories

Question 152

What is contained in Chapter 7A of the CBC and how is this inclusion different from model codes?

Answer 152

Chapter 7A of the CBC is included within Chapter 7 - Fire Resistance Rated Construction and refers to Materials and Construction Methods for Exterior Wildfire Exposure. It applies to building materials, systems and/or assemblies used in exterior design of new buildings located within a Wildland-Urban Interface Fire Area.
This chapter is unique to the CBC as it is not found in model codes.

Question 153

What chapter of the CBC addresses accessibility and what do the two separate parts apply to?

Answer 153

Chapter 11

11A: Housing Accessibility - applicable to multi-family dwellings

11B: Accessibility to Public Buildings - Public accommodations, commercial buildings and publicly funded housing.

Question 154

What is the scope of Part 2.5 - California Residential Building Code of the CBSC?

Answer 154

Part 2.5 - California Residential Building Code is based on the 2009 International Residential Building Code and applies to every detached one and two family dwelling, townhouses not more than three stories above grade plan in height with a separate means of egress, and accessory structures.

Question 155

What are the five areas of focus of Part 8 - California Historical Building Code (CHBC)?

Answer 155

1. Preservation
2. Restoration
3. Rehabilitation
4. Relocation
5. Reconstruction
   The purpose of the CHBC is to provide regulations for buildings or properties designated as qualified historical buildings or properties.

Question 156

How do accessibility requirements of the California Historical Building Code (CHBC) affect a historical building and which are most critical?

Answer 156

The intent of the CHBC is to preserve the integrity of qualified historical buildings while providing access to and use by persons with disabilities.
The regular code (CBC Chapter 11B) shall be applied to qualified historical buildings unless strict compliance will threaten or destroy the historical significance of the building. Most critical are life safety issues including building structure, building access and public restroom facilities.

Question 157

What information is covered in the chapters regarding structural provisions of the CBC?

Answer 157

Chapter 16 - General design criteria for structures
Chapter 17 - Testing & Inspection of materials
Chapter 18 - Soils, site, grading & foundations
Chapter 19 - Concrete
Chapter 20 - Aluminum
Chapter 21 - Masonry
Chapter 22 - Steel
Chapter 23 - Wood

Question 158

Define Dead Load vs. Live Load

Answer 158

Dead Load - the weight of materials and construction incorporated into the building including walls, floors, roofs, ceilings, stairways, built-in portions, finishes, cladding and equipment attached to the structure.

Live Load - loads produced by use & occupancy of the building (furniture, people, etc.) not including wind, snow, rain, earthquake, flood or dead loads.

Question 159

What are three methods for resisting lateral fores in a structure?

Answer 159

1. Shear Wall - reinforced concrete, reinforced masonry, steel, plywood over wood studs; resists lateral forces by developing shear in its own plane (parallel) and cantilevering from its base.
2. Moment Frame - steel or concrete; resists lateral forces by a bending action
3. Braced Frame - steel, reinforced concrete or timber; resists lateral forces by the cross bracing.

Question 160

Describe the four occupancy categories associated with Chapter 16 - Structural Design of the California Building Code.

Answer 160

Category I - low hazard to human life in the event of a failure (agricultural, temporary, storage).
Category II - Buildings not categorized by I, III, or IV.
Category III - Substantial hazard to human life in the event of a failure (schools, prisons, urgent care).
Category IV - Essential facilities (hospitals, fire & police stations, water treatment plants). Don’t confuse with Essential Services Buildings.

Question 161

Name five occupancies/uses with Uniformly Distributed Live Loads as found on Table 1607.1.

Answer 161

1. Assembly areas = fixed seats = 60psf.
2. Corridors = 100psf.
3. Residential, R-3 = 40psf.
4. Stadiums and Arenas - bleachers = 100psf.
5. Handrails and guardrails = 50lbs per linear foot.

Question 162

How are roof live loads determined? What are the provisions for landscape roofs?

Answer 162

Minimum roof live loads are based upon roof slopes.

Landscape roofs shall use a uniform design live load of 20psf in the landscaped area. The weight of the landscaping materials shall be considered as dead load and shall be considered as dead load and shall be computed on the basis of saturation of the soil.

Question 163

What four factors must be taken into consideration for foundation design in regards to soil lateral loads?

Answer 163

Basement, foundation and retaining walls shall be design to resist lateral soil loads. These elements must be designed to resist:

1. Overturning
2. Sliding
3. Excessive water pressure
4. Water uplift

Question 164

What types of structures are exempt from the accessibility provisions of the CBC?

Answer 164

1. Privately funded single family homes and duplexes.

2. Privately funded multi-family projects of three (3) or less units in a condominium project.

Question 165

What are three site accessibility features to consider during project design?

Answer 165

1. Sidewalks - min width 48”, max surface cross slope 1/4”.
2. Accessible parking - min 9’x18’ with 5’ wide no parking strip, 8’ wide no parking strip at van stall.
3. Building entrance - located on accessible route of travel.

Question 166

Name five building accessibility provisions to consider during project design.

Answer 166

1. Entrances and exits - all entrances and exterior ground floor exit doors are to be accessible.
2. Doors - minimum clear opening of 32”, level 60” landing in direction of door swing.
3. Stairs - handrails on each side, max tread depth is 11”, max tread height is 7”, no open risers.
4. Ramps - min width 48”, max slope 1:12, min landing width 60”
5. Corridors - minimum width 44” for load > 10

Question 167

Name two public restroom design provisions to consider during project design.

Answer 167

1. Lavatory - max counter height 34”, min. 30”x48” clear floor space for forward approach
2. Toilet facilities - 60” minimum circular turning diameter, toilet to be minimum 17” and maximum 19” in height.

Question 168

What are design concerns to consider for sight and hearing impaired end users?

Answer 168

Sight impaired - audible fire alarms, tactile warning strips at areas for low hanging overhead projections or changes in floor elevations, and use of braille signage.

Hearing impaired - flashing strobe fire alarms, text telephone stations, and assisted listening devices.

Question 169

Does the building and safety plan checker review for compliance with ADA?

Answer 169

No, the building and safety plan checker is only reviewing the drawings for compliance with the accessibility provisions of the California Building Code, Chapter 11A or 11B. They do not review for ADA compliance.

Question 170

What are the two types of systems or methods for providing fire-resistive protection?

Answer 170

Passive - built into the building structure and provides a barrier between the structure and the fire. Chapter 7 of the CBC discusses these requirements.
Active - fire protection systems, such as fire sprinklers, responds to fire by activation of systems to suppress fire and smoke. Chapter 9 of the CBC discusses these requirements.

Question 171

What is the definition of a Fire-Resistance Rating for a building material?

Answer 171

Fire-Resistance Rating - the period of time a building element, component or assembly maintains the ability to confine a fire, continues to perform a given structural function, or both.

Question 172

Define Fire Walls vs. Fire Barriers.

Answer 172

Fire Walls - a fire-resistance rated wall having protected openings, which restricts the spread of fire and extends continuously from the foundation to or through the roof.
Fire Barrier - a fire-resistance rated wall assembly of materials designed to restrict the spread of fire in which continuity is maintained, such as separating different occupancies or to divide a single occupancy into different fire areas.

Question 173

Define Smoke Barriers vs. Smoke Partitions.

Answer 173

Smoke Barriers - a continuous membrane, either vertical or horizontal such as a wall, floor, or ceiling assembly, that is designed and constructed to restrict the movement of smoke.
Smoke Partitions - extends from the top of the foundation or floor below to the underside of the floor or roof sheathing, deck, or slab above or to the underside of the ceiling above to limit the transfer of smoke.

Question 174

What is the definition of Means of Egress?

Answer 174

Means of Egress - a continuous and unobstructed path of vertical and horizontal egress travel from any occupied portion of a building or structure to a public way.

A means of egress consists of three separate and distinct parts: the exit access, the exit, and the exit discharge.

Question 175

What are egress requirements for exit access travel distance?

Answer 175

Exit Access Travel Distance - max length of exit access travel distance as measured from the most remote point to the entrance to an exit along a “natural and unobstructed path of egress travel.”

Question 176

What are egress requirements for an exit discharge?

Answer 176

Exit Discharge - exits shall discharge directly to the exterior of the building with exceptions that may not exceed 50% of the number and capacity of required exits per section 1027.1.
Egress Courts are open spaces that provide access to a public way from one or more exits. Min width shall not be less than 44” and shall have an unobstructed height of 7’.

Question 177

What are three responsibilities of the California Energy Commission?

Answer 177

1. Forecast future energy needs and keep historical energy data.
2. Promote energy efficiency by setting the Stat’s appliance and building efficiency standards and enforcing them through local government.
3. Support renewable energy by providing market support to existing, new and emerging renewable technologies and provide incentives for solar, wind and fuel cell electricity systems.

Question 178

Who is responsible for compliance review and field enforcement of the California Energy Code?

Answer 178

Compliance with the Energy Code is plan checked by the local Building & Safety plan checker and enforced in the field by the local building official.

Question 179

The California Energy Code is NOT Title 24, as commonly mistaken by many plan checkers. What is the correct name for this section of the code?

Answer 179

Although most plan checkers will request “Title 24 calcs” with drawing submittals, they are really asking for documents that illustrate compliance with Part 6 of Title 24, the California Energy Code.

Question 180

Name six mandatory requirements of the California Energy Code for achieving energy efficiency.

Answer 180

1. Space conditioning equipment
2. Water heating equipment
3. Glazing requirements
4. Building envelope and fenestration
5. Insulation requirements
6. Lighting systems and equipment

Question 181

Describe the Performance Approach method of compliance with the California Energy Code.

Answer 181

Performance Approach - most detailed, complex, and flexible compliance path. Based on computer calcs according to actual building geometry and site placement. Primary concerns include:

1. Heat gain/loss through walls, roof, windows, etc.
2. Solar gain from windows, skylights, etc.
3. Heat storage effects from thermal mass
4. Systems for HVAC, lighting, water heating

Question 182

Describe the Prescriptive Approach method of compliance with the California Energy Code.

Answer 182

Prescriptive Approach - simpler method, less design flexibility. Components must comply with the respective section of the Energy Code, such as the building envelope, space conditioning equipment, service water heating system, lighting system, outdoor lighting system, interior and exterior signs.

Question 183

Who is responsible for signing the Certificate of Compliance for the California Energy Code

Answer 183

The Certificate of Compliance is signed by the person(s) responsible for the building design to certify compliance with Part 6. If more than one person has responsibility for the design, each person shall sign the Certificate of Compliance documents, i.e. the Architect and person who prepared the report.

Question 184

What information must the builder leave behind for the Owner after final inspection?

Answer 184

Operation Information - includes information and instructions on how to operate the features, materials, components and mechanical devices correctly and efficiently.

Maintenance Information - includes information for all features, materials, components and manufactured devices that require routine maintenance for efficient operation.

Question 185

What is the California Health & Safety Code?

Answer 185

The intent of the California Health & Safety Code is to protect the health and safety of the public and acts as the main source for many of the codes applicable to building design and construction. California Law consists of 29 codes, of which the Health & Safety Code is one. These codes cover various subject areas, the State Constitution and Statutes.

Question 186

What five codes, acts, or regulations are included in the California Health & Safety Code that would be applicable to a project?

Answer 186

1. Essential Services Buildings Seismic Safety Act
2. California Code of Regulations - Title 24
3. Air Resources
4. California Retail Food Code
5. Hospital Facilities Seismic Safety Act

Question 187

What is the focus of Air Resources - Section 39000?

Answer 187

Air Resources - to safeguard the public interest by an intensive coordinated state, regional and local effort to protect and enhance the ambient air quality of the state.
The State is divided into air basins and provides incentives for regional strategies to promote air quality. Local and regional authorities have primary responsibility for control of air pollution, except from vehicles, which is controlled by the State Air Resources Board.

Question 188

Name four requirements of the California Retail Food Code.

Answer 188

1. Floors - smooth, non-absorbent, easily cleanable, drains required if water flushed.
2. Walls & Ceilings - durable, smooth, non-absorbent, easily cleanable.
3. Toilet Facilities - situated so patrons do not pass through food prep, storage or washing areas
4. Sinks - 3 compartment for dish washing, hand washing sinks provided in each food prep area, janitorial sink located away from food areas.

Question 189

Name three Water Regulations applicable to the design process in California.

Answer 189

1. Clean Water Act - regulates discharges of pollutants in the waters of the US, quality standards for surface waters.
2. California Water Code - provide protection of water quality and allocation.
3. Department of Water Resources - administers California Water Plan for future usage.

Question 190

How does the State Water Resources Control Board affect the design and construction project?

Answer 190

The State Water Board’s mission is to preserve, enhance and restore the quality of California’s water resources and ensure their proper allocation and efficient use for the benefit of present and future generations.

They will typically be involved in the review of a project at the regional level (RWQCB) and will be concerned with any water related issues on the site, including monitoring water quality after construction is completed.

Question 191

How many Regional Water Quality Control Boards exist in California and what is their purpose?

Answer 191

9 RWQCB’s which develop and enforce water quality objectives and implementation plans that will best protect the State’s waters, recognizing local differences in climate, topography, geology and hydrology.

Water Quality Monitoring usually falls under the RWQCB.

Question 192

Who enforces the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?

Answer 192

The US Department of Justice is responsible for enforcing ADA and publishes the 2010 ADA Standards for Accessible Design.

Question 193

How is the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) enforced?

Answer 193

Through lawsuits and settlement agreements, however the Department of Justice may not sue a party unless negotiations to settle the dispute have previously failed.

Question 194

What are the five titles contained in the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?

Answer 194

I - Employment: job application procedures, hiring, advancement and discharge of employees
II - Public Entities & Transportation: access to services in school districts & public transportation
III - Public Accommodations & Commercial Facilities: new construction & existing facilities access
IV - Telecommunications: hearing and speech impairment accessibility
V - Misc. Provisions: technical provisions

Question 195

Which two titles of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) are most applicable to design and construction?

Answer 195

II and III.

These address, specifically with accessibility relating to public buildings, transportation services and routes as well as requirements for compliance for new construction and existing facilities.

Question 196

In regards to the ADA, how are complaints for non-compliant conditions generally handled?

Answer 196

Complaints and violations of Title II or III should be filed with the Department of Justice. They are usually initiated by individuals contacting the Department of Justice (i.e. the DOJ does not typically go around looking for non-compliant conditions). Most state government agencies have ADA compliance coordinators who can aid individuals in filing a complaint.

Question 197

Is ADA a federal or state statute?

Answer 197

Federal. It is enforceable at both the state and federal levels.

Question 198

What is ADAAG and who publishes this document?

Answer 198

The ADA Accessibility Guidelines (ADAAG) serves as a minimum baseline for standards and is published by the U.S. Access Board. They serve as a coordinating body among Federal agencies and directly represent the public, particularly people with disabilities.

Question 199

Which of the following will the plan checker review the drawings for?
A. ADA Compliance
B. CBC Chapter 11A
C. CBC Chapter 11B

Answer 199

B or C depending on project type.

11A = housing
11B = commercial

Question 200

Who is the party that is ultimately responsible for compliance with ADA?

Answer 200

The Owner.

The Owner is the person who would be named in a lawsuit, however if the Architect failed to adhere to ADA standards, the Owner may sue the Architect. The Owner would be sued by the Department of Justice if a settlement could not be reached.

Question 201

Should Architects only be concerned with accessibility provisions contained in the CBC?

Answer 201

No. Architects are expected, as licensed professionals, to be knowledgeable of the ADA standards and to notify the Owner of these standards and incorporate them into the drawings. Architects are also expected to comply with both the accessibility provisions of the CBC as well as ADA standards since the CBC is not always the most stringent.

Question 202

What is a helpful tool an Architect can use to research applicable accessibility guidelines?

Answer 202

The California Disabled Accessibility Guidebook (CalDAG) is a third party publication that cross references the CBC regulations with ADA standards.

Question 203

Describe what building safety concerns Underwriters Laboratories (UL) certifies.

Answer 203

UL provides product development as well as safety testing and certification with a focus on materials & assemblies features such as:

• Fire Protection & Resistance Ratings
• Means of Egress door hardware & exit signage
• Roof Assemblies for fire performance, hail and wind uplift resistance

Question 204

What function does the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) serve?

Answer 204

ANSI oversees the development of standards for products, services, processes, and systems.
An ANSI Standard is a document established by consensus that provides rules, guidelines or characteristics for activities or their results.
ANSI does not develop standards, rather they coordinate them.

Question 205

What is ASTM International and what types of construction standards do they develop?

Answer 205

ASTM International is an international standards organization that develops and maintains standards for a wide range of materials, such as:

• Adhesives
• Roofing
• Cement and Concrete
• Thermal Insulation
• Fire and Flammability
• Wood
• Masonry
• Roads and Paving

Question 206

What is the purpose of Factory Mutual (FM) and what are some products that may bear an approved FM label?

Answer 206

FM certifies industrial and commercial products and services and develops standards mainly for the property insurance industry. These products are often required on project at the request of the insurance company providing the policy on the building. Products include:

• Wall Hydrants
• Heat & Smoke Vents
• Fire Hoses & Doors
• Skylights
• Fire Department Connections

Question 207

What is Warnock Hersey by Intertek (WH)?

Answer 207

Intertek is a global testing, inspecting and certification company and the Warnock Hersey (WH) mark is one part of the company. This mark can be found on many products such as fire doors, builders’ hardware, and plumbing products.

Question 208

What manual is published by the Gypsum Association (GA)?

Answer 208

GA publishes the Fire Resistance Design Manual that may be used for fire-rated walls and partitions, floor/ceiling systems, roof/ceiling systems, and to protect columns, beams and girders. GA is a not-for-profit trade association promoting the use of gypsum and advancing the development and growth of the gypsum industry.

Question 209

What is ASHRAE?

Answer 209

The American Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning is an international organization aimed at advancing HVAC and refrigeration standards writing, publishing and continuing education.
ASHRAE writes standards for performance criteria and testing methods and publishes these as Method of Measurement or Test, Standard Design or Standard of Practice.

Question 210

Should costs for labor, materials, and equipment be included in the preliminary cost of work estimate from the Architect?

Answer 210

No, these costs are considered construction costs and due to market and economic fluctuations, the Architect has no control over how these prices shift. Also, according to the standard Owner/Architect agreement this is not part of the Architect’s Basic Services.

Question 211

What graphic tools can an Architect use that help develop the project during programming?

Answer 211

1. Bubble diagrams display inter-relationships of spaces as well as show direct adjacencies.
2. Flow diagrams show necessary adjacencies in order to facilitate the circulation of people, vehicles, goods, etc.

Diagrams should also display a clear hierarchy of spaces.

Question 212

The Owner has requested the Architect to develop the program as an additional service. What must the Owner provide to the Architect?

Answer 212

1. Project goals and values
2. Requirements for the building
3. Project Schedule
4. Project Budget

Question 213

An Owner has chosen to skip the programming phase to save money. How should the Architect respond?

Answer 213

Unless the Owner has a fair amount of previous experience with the project type, programming should not be omitted as it is an important stage to determine project goals and potential solutions.
Though the Owner may perceive cutting programming as an initial cost savings, the budget may be negatively affected due to potential changes in the later design and construction phases.

Question 214

After performing a site evaluation, the Architect finds that the site has restrictions that may limit the scope of the project. How should he/she inform the Owner?

Answer 214

It is very important for the Architect to communicate this information to the Owner in writing to maintain project documentation.
Local building and zoning codes will define what is possible on a given piece of land and in order for a project to be approved for construction, these codes must be followed.

Question 215

True or False:

The Architect is responsible for any Owner supplied program information developed by another.

Answer 215

False.

The Architect is only responsible for his/her own instruments of service and must rely on the accuracy and completeness of any surveys, tests, analyzed data, etc. provided by the Owner.

Question 216

What items are typically included on a site survey?

Answer 216

1. Topography grade elevations.
2. Building footprints and building heights.
3. Street locations and adjoining property information.
4. Easements and right of way access.
5. Any existing utilities above and below grade.

Question 217

What are the most commonly used methods of cost estimation during programming?

Answer 217

1. Cost per unit, such as $10,000 for each hospital bed.

2. Cost per square foot, such as $100/SF for a TI project.

Question 218

An Owner has supplied program information developed by another Architect. Should the current Architect include review of this information in his/her basic services?

Answer 218

Yes. According to AIA B201 Standard Form of Architect’s Services, Design and Construction Contract Administration, Article 2.2 Schematic Design Services, the Architect shall review the program and other information provided by the Owner and provide a preliminary evaluation of the Owner’s program, schedule and budget.

Question 219

After reviewing Owner supplied site surveys and test results, the Architect notices a discrepancy in the information. How should he/she respond?

Answer 219

Notify the Owner in writing and request written clarification from those responsible for drafting the reports.
The Architect is not responsible for information supplied by others, however the Owner should be informed immediately of any conflicts in information.

Question 220

Why are the CBSC accessibility requirements generally more stringent than the federal ADA requirements?

Answer 220

The regulations in California were developed by DSA Access Compliance eight years before the US Congress pass the ADA in 1990. The current CBSC was written to provide a single code which would meet all of the most stringent requirements of the original CBSC as well as the 1991 Federal Fair Housing Amendments Act and ADA Accessibility Guidelines.

Question 221

Does the State of California only require ADA compliance on new construction?

Answer 221

No. ADA compliance is required on both new construction as well as TI’s and facilities upgrades.

Question 222

What should an Owner do if they are unable to fully comply with ADA requirements?

Answer 222

Full compliance with ADA is required on all new construction, however if an owner is performing facilities upgrades on an existing property, they may file for a waiver to be exempt from full compliance if doing so would create an undue financial hardship.