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Neuro E1 > Catch All > Flashcards

Catch All Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomical and functional unit of the nervous system

Consists of a nerve cell body, dendrites, and an axon

A

Neuron

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2
Q

Groups of neurons located in a specific region of the brain or spinal cord that have a similar appearance, receive information from similar sources, project their axons to similar targets, and share similar functions

A

Nucleus

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3
Q

Many axons grouped together, which typically pass from a given nucleus to a common target region or to several regions

A

Tract

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4
Q

White matter consists of _____

Gray matter consists of ______

A

Myelinated axons / neuronal cell bodies

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5
Q

Nonneural cells forming the interstitial tissue of the nervous system

A

Glial cells

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6
Q

Three connective tissue coverings surrounding the CNS

A

Meninges

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7
Q

Fluid-filled spaces within the CNS

A

Ventricles

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8
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract cross?

A

Lateral: pyramidal decussation (caudal medulla)
Anterior: at the level of the spinal segment

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9
Q

Corticospinal tract function

A

Voluntary movement of upper and lower limbs

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10
Q

Where are the medullary pyramids located?

A

On either side of the continuation of the anterior median fissure in the caudal medulla

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11
Q

Positive Babinski indicates a lesion in which tract?

A

Corticospinal

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12
Q

Main excitatory neurotransmitter

A

Glutamate

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13
Q

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

GABA

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14
Q

Steps of glutamate-mediated synaptic transmission

A
  1. Glutamine–>Glutamate via glutaminase in mitochondria
  2. Released via vesicles into synaptic cleft
  3. Effects
  4. Glutamate is taken up by glial cells and converted to glutamine
  5. Glutamine transported to presynaptic terminal and the cycle starts over
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15
Q

Why is glutamate converted to glutamine in the postsynaptic terminal?

A

To keep glutamate levels low in synaptic cleft

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16
Q

Which ion channels does glutamate bind to?

A

NMDA
Kainate
AMPA

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17
Q

Steps of GABA-mediated synaptic transmission

A
  1. Glutamate converted to GABA by glutamic acid decarboxylase
  2. Stored and released via vesicles from presynaptic cell
  3. Effects
  4. Taken up by postsynaptic and glial cells
  5. Glial mitochondria convert GABA to glutamine
  6. Repeat cycle
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18
Q

What ion channel does glycine affect?

A

Cl-

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19
Q

How is glycine formed?

A

Glucose forms serine, which forms glycine via serine trans hdroxymethylase

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20
Q

Fast synaptic transmission

A

Ionotropic

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21
Q

Slow synaptic transmission

A

Metabotropic

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22
Q

Which ion channels are ionotropic?

A

NMDA
AMPA
Kainate

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23
Q

NMDA co-agonists

A

D-serine

Glycine

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24
Q

GABA stimulates _____ channels. What are the effects?

A

Cl-

Hyperpolarizing and inhibitory

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25
Q

GABA-A

A 
POSTsynaptic specific recognition sites
Linked to Cl- channel
Mediate FAST inhibitory transmission
Responsible for RAPID MOOD CHANGES
Regulate neuronal excitability
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26
Q

GABA-B

A

PREsynaptic autoreceptors
Mediated by K+ currents
Mediate SLOW inhibitory transmission
Effects on MEMORY AND MOOD (depression) and PAIN RESPONSE

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27
Q

Excessive glutamate effects

A

Damage to postsynaptic cells due to increased influx of Ca2+ via NMDA-R

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28
Q

How can neurotransmitter levels induce seizures?

A

Excitation –> Glutamate, Aspartate –> inward Na+, Ca2+ currents

Inhibition –> GABA –> inward Cl-, outward K+

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29
Q

Sedative-hypnotics exert effects on which neurotransmitter?

A

GABA-A

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30
Q

Anterolateral second order neuron

A

Nucleus proprius in Laminae III and IV

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31
Q

Where does the anterolateral tract cross?

A

Anterior white commissure of spinal level

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32
Q

Where do fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus cross?

A

Medial lemniscus of caudal medulla

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33
Q

Where does the dorsal spinocerebellar tract cross?

A

It doesn’t

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34
Q

Where does the ventral spinocerebellar tract cross?

A

Crosses TWICE

  1. In the spinal cord
  2. In the pons (after joining superior cerebellar peduncle)
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35
Q

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract function

A

Provide cerebellum with info about status of individual muscles and muscle groups

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36
Q

Ventral spinocerebellar tract function

A

Provide cerebellum with info about whole limb movements and postural adjustments

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37
Q

Bilateral segmental loss of pain is the result of damage to….

A

The region surrounding the central canal. This is due to damage to the crossing fibers of the lateral spinothalamic tracts (on each side).

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38
Q

Occlusion of opthalmic artery results in …..

A

Vision loss in ipsilateral eye

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39
Q

Which arterial branch is associated with depression?

A

Frontopolar branch of anterior cerebral artery

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40
Q

Blood supply for…

Medial aspect of brain
Sensory/motor for lower limbs
Corpus callosum
Olfactory bulb/tract

A

Anterior cerebral artery

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41
Q

Blood supply for…

Lateral aspect of brain
Sensory/motor for trunk, face, upper limbs
Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas

A

Middle cerebral artery

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42
Q

Blood supply for…

Visual cortex
Midbrain
Thalamus

A

Posterior cerebral artery

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43
Q

AICA occlusion leads to…

A

Ipsilateral hearing loss/tinnitus
Vertigo, nystagmus
Ipsilateral loss of sensation to face
Ipsilateral facial paralysis

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44
Q

Which nerve is very close to AICA and superior cerebellar artery?

A

CN VI

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45
Q

PICA occlusion leads to…

A

Dysphonia, dysarthria, dysphasia
Wallenberg syndrome
Damage to nucleus ambiguus

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46
Q

Destruction of anterior white commissure leads to…

A

Bilateral loss of pain/temp in upper extremities

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47
Q

Destruction of the lateral corticospinal tracts leads to…

A

Spastic paralysis
Hyperreflexia
Hypertonia

This is a UMN LESION

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48
Q

Destruction of the anterior horns leads to….

A

LMN LESION

Flaccid paralysis
Areflexia
Hypotonia
Atrophy

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49
Q

Destruction of the posterior columns leads to…

A

Ipsilateral loss of proprioception and 2-point tactile sensations (affects the cuneatus/gracilis tracts)

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50
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter of the PNS, neuromuscular junction, parasympathetic nervous system, and preganglionic sympathetic fibers?

A

Acetylcholine

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51
Q

Where is the largest concentration of acetylcholine in the CNS?

A

Basal nucleus of Meynert in the forebrain

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52
Q

How is acetylcholine related to Alzheimer’s?

A

The basal nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s

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53
Q

Which neurotransmitter is depleted in Parkinsons patients?

A

Dopamine

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54
Q

Which neurotransmitter is increased in patients with schizophrenia?

A

Dopamine

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55
Q

Where is dopamine found in the CNS?

A

Arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus

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56
Q

What are the two major dopamine receptors?

A

D1: postsynaptic, excitatory, activate adenylate cyclase
D2: pre and postsynaptic, inhibitory, inhibit adenylate cyclase

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57
Q

Antipsychotic drugs block which receptors?

A

D2 dopamine receptors

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58
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter of postganglionic sympathetic neurons?

A

Norepinephrine

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59
Q

Which drugs enhance norepinephrine transmission?

A

Antidepressants

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60
Q

Where are serotonin-containing neurons found in the brain?

A

Raphe nuclei

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61
Q

What is the major endorphin in the brain and what is its function?

A

Beta-endorphin inhibits pain transmission and produces feelings of euphoria

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62
Q

What are the most widely distributed and abundant opiate peptides?

A

Enkephalins

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63
Q

What is the function of enkephalins?

A

Pain suppression

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64
Q

What is the major function of opiate peptides?

A

Moderate pain

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65
Q

What are the opiate peptides?

A

Endorphins, enkephalins, dynorphins

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66
Q

What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain?

A

GABA

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67
Q

What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord, brainstem, and retina?

A

Glycine

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68
Q

Which receptors does acetylcholine act on?

A

Nicotinic

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69
Q

Where is dopamine formed?

A

Brainstem (reticular formation)

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70
Q

How is norepinephrine formed?

A

Formed from dopamine by dopamine beta-hydroxylase

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71
Q

What regulates the amount of NT released from the axon terminal?

A

Presynaptic autoreceptors

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72
Q

Activation of presynaptic autoreceptors ______ the amount of NT released.

A

Inhibits/reduces

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73
Q

Inactivation of presynaptic autoreceptors ______ the amount of NT released.

A

Increases

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74
Q

Cocaine and amphetamine block the reuptake of which NTs?

A

Dopamine and norepinephrine

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75
Q

Which enzyme converts glutamate to GABA?

A

Glutamic acid decarboxylase

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76
Q

Which enzyme converts glycine to serine?

A

Serine trans hydroxymethylase

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77
Q

GABA stimulates _____ channels

A

Cl-

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78
Q

Which GABA is responsible for rapid mood changes?

A

GABA-A

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79
Q

Which GABA has effects on memory, mood, and pain response?

A

GABA-B

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80
Q

What is glutamate excitotoxicity?

A

Excess glutamate causes damage to the postsynaptic cells due to increased influx of Ca2+ via NMDA-R. This is what happens in Huntington’s disease.

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81
Q

Most likely location of lesion in isolated hand weakness

A

Precentral gyrus/motor cortex, contralateral of weakness

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82
Q

The spinal tract involved with the control of trunk muscles

A

Ventral corticospinal

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83
Q

The sensation produced by a wisp of cotton on one’s fingertip is mediated by the….

A

Ventral spinothalamic tract

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84
Q

First-order neurons of the ventral spinocerebellar tract….

A

Provide the afferent limb for muscle stretch reflexes

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85
Q

Acute-stage UMN lesions result in…..

A

Flaccid paralysis

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86
Q

Which tract contains axons from the giant cells of Deiters

A

Vestibulospinal tract

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87
Q

Which tract is the upper extremity equivalent of a tract that arises from the cells of Clarke column?

A

Cuneocerebellar

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88
Q

Which tract conveys nociceptive input from the contralateral side of the body?

A

Lateral spinothalamic

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89
Q

Which tract contains axons from the giant cells of Betz?

A

Lateral corticospinal

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90
Q

Which tract contains ipsilateral pain fibers that have their second-order neurons in the dorsal horn?

A

Lissauer tract

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91
Q

Which tract projects nonconscious proprioception to the cerebellum via the inferior cerebellar peduncle?

A

Dorsal spinocerebellar

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92
Q

Which tract plays a role in regulating extensor tone?

A

Vestibulospinal

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93
Q

Lesions of which tracts produce lesions on the contralateral side?

A

Spinothalamic
Corticospinal (above level of decussation)
Rubrospinal

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94
Q

Which tracts are only located at the cervical level?

A

Medial vestibulospinal
Tectospinal
Cuneocerebellar

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95
Q

Occlusion of which artery would cause urinary incontinence?

A

ACA

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96
Q

What controls gut motility?

A

Myenteric (Auerbach) plexus

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97
Q

Where is Onuf’s nucleus located?

A

S2-S4 ventral horn

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98
Q

Cavernous sinus occlusion would affect which CN?

A

CN VI. Lateral gaze issue.

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99
Q

Nucleus ambiguus is pre/postganglionic para/sympathetic?

A

Preganglionic parasympathetic

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100
Q

Lesion of which tract would cause ipsilateral nystagmus and paralysis of the contralateral eye?

A

MLF

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101
Q

Gag reflex is afferent or efferent?

A

Afferent

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102
Q

Occlusion of which artery would cause the ipsilateral eye to move down and out?

A

Medial branch of PCA

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103
Q

Which nerve does Hoffman’s test?

A

Median nerve

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104
Q

Positive Babinski sign is caused by which muscle?

A

Contraction of extensor hallucis

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105
Q

Which tract is sensory for pharynx and larynx?

A

Spinal trigeminal

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106
Q

Inverse myotatic action

A

Inhibition of homonymous

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107
Q

Whats the difference between myotactic vs. withdrawal reflex?

A

Nociception

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108
Q

Which nerve roots control the quadriceps?

A

L2-L4

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109
Q

Which reflex has no interneurons?

A

Myotatic reflex

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110
Q

1–cerebral cortex

2–dorsal/ventral horns (Laminae VII, VIII, IX –> X)

A

Lateral corticospinal tract

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111
Q

1–cerebral cortex

2–ventral horn

A

Anterior corticospinal tract

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112
Q

1–red nucleus

2–interneurons –> ventral horn (VI, VII, VIII)

A

Rubrospinal tract

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113
Q

1–lateral vestibular nucleus (border of pons and medulla)

2–interneurons –> gamma motor neurons

A

Lateral vestibulospinal tract

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114
Q

1–medial vestibular nuclei (pons-medulla junction)

2–ipsilateral ventral horn

A

Medial vestibulospinal tract

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115
Q

What is the third order neuron in the dorsal column tract?

A

`VPL thalamic nucleus

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116
Q

Which tract enters the zone of Lissauer?

A

Spinothalamic

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117
Q

1–DRG
2–Nucleus proprius (III, IV)
3–VPL

A

Anterolateral (spinothalamic)

118
Q

1–DRG
2-Dorsal nucleus of Clarke
3–cerebellar vermis of anterior lobe

A

Dorsal spinocerebellar

119
Q

Which tract crosses at the pyramidal decussation?

A

Lateral corticospinal

120
Q

Which tract crosses at the ventral tegmental decussation in the midbrain?

A

Rubrospinal

121
Q

The fibers of which tract terminate in the inferior olive?

A

Rubrospinal

122
Q

Which tract descends in the ventral funiculus?

A

Medial vestibulospinal

123
Q

Where do second order neurons of the spinothalamic tract synapse?

A

Substantia gelatinosa

124
Q

Which artery supplies most f the central gray matter and the anteromedial portion of white matter?

A

Anterior spinal artery

125
Q

Occlusion of which artery leads to central cord syndrome?

A

Anterior spinal artery

126
Q

Stimulus for myotatic reflex

A

Rapid stretching of muscle

127
Q

Myotatic reflex: efferent and effector

A

Alpha motor neuron / extrafusal muscle

128
Q

Myotatic reflex resonse

A

Contraction of muscle

129
Q

Stimulus for autogenic inhibition

A

Excessive tension on tendon

130
Q

Patient comes to the clinic complaining of weakness throughout their entire left body. On neurologic exam, tongue shows deviation and patient cannot tell the position of their points. What do you check for on an angiogram?

A

Occlusion of right anterior spinal artery

131
Q

Patient comes to the office complaining of numbness in their right arm. Neurologic exam shows loss of touch sensation, but preservation of pain sensation. What could be occluded?

A

Posterior spinal artery

132
Q

Patient is found to have an occlusion of the PCA that has lead to ischemic damage to the left crus cerebri. What will the patient exhibit?

A

Will have contralateral motor loss (corticospinal tract), corticobulbar damage, contralateral decerebrate (rubrospinal tract damage)

133
Q

What do astrocytes produce to cause vasodilation?

A

Prostaglandins

134
Q

Which neurotransmitter would you expect to find in glial cells?

A

Glycine

135
Q

Patient presents with lockjaw. What is affected?

A

SNARE proteins (tetanus)

136
Q

If a patient has occlusion of right ophthalmic artery, how would they present?

A

Blindness in right eye

137
Q

During a physical exam you find that a patient has lost their peripheral vision on the right side. Which of the following would you suspect?

A. AICA occlusion on the left side
B. AICA occlusion on the right side
C. PCA occlusion on the right side
D. PCA occlusion on the left side
E. MCA occlusion on the right side
A

D. Calcarine artery from P4 segment of PCA

138
Q

What vascular issue would cause the patient’s eyes to move up and out?

A

Aneurysm of the P1 segment of the PCA

139
Q

What cell type is affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Schwann cells

140
Q

Pain and tingling in anterolateral thigh
Decreased sensation
Reflexes and muscle strength normal
Motor function normal

A

Meralgia parethetica

141
Q

What causes meralgia parethetica?

A

Compression of lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

142
Q

Meralgia parethetic is most commonly associated with…

A 
Tight jeans aka Calvin Klein syndrome
Seatbelts
Obesity
Pregnancy
Recent surgery
Diabetes
143
Q

Weakness and intact DTRs indicates…

A

Problem with pure sensory nerve (no motor fibers)

144
Q

Meralgia parethetic is most commonly misdiagnosed as….

A

Herniated disc

145
Q

Decreased DTRs
Decreased muscle strength for corresponding myotome
Decreased sensation or tingling and numbness in the corresponding dermatome
Straight leg raise test positive
Back pain

A

Herniated disc

146
Q

What forms the BBB?

A

Tight junctions between endothelial cells

147
Q

Biceps brachii myotome

A

C5

148
Q

Extensor carpi radialis myotome

A

C6

149
Q

Triceps myotome

A

C7

150
Q

Flexor digi. prof. myotome

A

C8

151
Q

Abductor digiti minimi myotome

A

T1

152
Q

Iliopsoas myotome

A

L2

153
Q

Quadriceps myotome

A

L3

154
Q

Tibialis anterior myotome

A

L4

155
Q

Extensor hallucis myotome

A

L5

156
Q

Gastrocnemius myotome

A

S1

157
Q

Pyramidal, Betz

A

Upper motor neurons

158
Q

Alpha, beta, gamma

A

Lower motor neurons

159
Q

What type of muscle do LMNs innervate?

A

Skeletal

160
Q

What is a soma?

A

Cell body that contains the nucleus

161
Q

Does a soma contain a nucleolus?

A

Yes. Contains a large, distinct nucleolus with a massive amount of RNA.

162
Q

What is the origin of the axon called?

A

Axon hillock

163
Q

What type of channels does an axon hillock contain?

A

Voltage gated sodium channels

164
Q

What is anterograde axonal transport?

A

The signal is transmitted out and away from the neuron

165
Q

What is another name for neuronal anterograde degeneration?

A

Wallerian

166
Q

No action potentials
Function is to aid neurons
2-50x more than neurons

A

Glial cells

167
Q

Which cell aids in the movement of CSF through ventricles?

A

Ependymal glial cells

168
Q

Which glial cell brings in nutrients (glucose)?

A

Astrocytes

169
Q

Which glial cells produce neutrophic substances and growth factors?

A

Astrocytes

170
Q

What are the main roles of astrocytes?

A
  1. Structural support
  2. Form BBB
  3. Regulate bloodflow in response to neuronal activity
  4. Regulate local environment/neuron activity
  5. Scar formation
171
Q

What is the main function of oligodendrocytes?

A

Myelination

172
Q

Which cell regenerates faster: Schwann cells or oligodendrocytes?

A

Schwann cells

173
Q

How do astrocytes communicate?

A

Via intercellular calcium waves

174
Q

Which neurotransmitter increases calcium concentration within astrocytes?

A

Glutamate

175
Q

T/F: astrocytes release ATP

A

True

176
Q

What triggers the release of glial ATP?

A

Norepinephrine

177
Q

In a human cell, resistors are in parallel or series?

A

Parallel

178
Q

When will a capacitor have the highest current?

A

At time=0

179
Q

What is the relationship between conductance and resistance?

A

Inversely proportional

180
Q

Lipid bilayer is considered a capacitor or resistor?

A

Capacitors in parallel

181
Q

Ion channels are considered capacitors or resistors?

A

VARIABLE resistors

182
Q

What is tau?

A

Time it takes for V to reach 63.2% of its steady state

183
Q

T/F: Gated channels are active.

A

False. Only pumps are active.

184
Q

What are the five properties of ion channels?

A
  1. Flow is passive
  2. Electrochemical driving force determines the direction and equilibrium
  3. Ionic charge determines selective permeability
  4. Most cation-selective channels allow only one ion species to flow
  5. Most anion-selective channels only allow Cl-
185
Q

What is pumped out in Na/K pump?

A

Sodium out, potassium in.

186
Q

What type of neuronal communication is most common in humans?

A

Chemical

187
Q

Charcot-Marie Tooth pathophysiology

A

Demyelination caused by mutation in one of the connexin genes expressed in Schwann cells. The connexin fails to form functional gap junctions.

188
Q

Charcot-Marie Tooth presentation

A

Motor and sensory neuropathy
Loss of muscle tissue and touch sensation
High arches
Hammertoes
Legs appear as inverted champagne bottles

189
Q

Symmetric chemical transmission is ______. Asymmetric is ________.

A

Inhibitory / excitatory

190
Q

What are active zones?

A

Proteins on intracellular side of the presynaptic terminal membrane and projecting into the cytoplasm of the presynaptic terminal

191
Q

Where do vesicles aggregate in the presynaptic cleft?

A

In the active zones

192
Q

What is the base membrane potential?

A

-65

193
Q

Binding of what protein facilitates calcium storage after muscle contraction?

A

Calsequestrin

194
Q

Which drug blocks the degradation of Ach and what is it used to treat?

A

Anti-acetylcholinesterase (nerve gas). Myasthenia gravis.

195
Q

Tetanus abolishes which inhibitory neurotransmitters?

A

Glycine, GABA

196
Q

Where is CSF produced?

A

Choroid plexuses (70%) and brain parenchyma (30%)

197
Q

What are the functions of CSF?

A
  1. Buoys brain and SC
  2. Cushions CNS
  3. Removes metabolites from CNS
  4. Provides CNS with stable ionic environment
198
Q

What are the contents of CSF compared to blood serum?

A

Greatly reduced protein
> Na, Cl, Mg
< Glucose, Ca, K

199
Q

Blockage of internal carotid artery would lead to what symptoms?

A

Weakness and loss of sensation CONTRAlaterally

200
Q

Blockage of vertebral artery would lead to what symptoms?

A

Visual loss, dizziness, etc

201
Q

Sympathetic control of bladder

A

Lumbar splanchnic nerves synapse in inferior mesenteric ganglia
Postganglionic pass through hypogastric plexus
Contracts internal sphinchter
Relaxes detrusor

202
Q

Parasympathetic control of bladder

A

Pelvic nerves synapse on postganglions in bladder wall
Contracts detrusor
Relaxes internal sphinchter

203
Q

Which four regions do not receive parasympathetic innervation?

A

Sweat glands
Suprarenal glands
Piloerector muscles of the skin
Most arterial blood vessels

204
Q

Lesion involving sympathetic innervation of the bladder would lead to what symptoms?

A

Hyperreflexia

205
Q

Lesion involving parasympathetic innervation of the bladder would lead to what symptoms?

A

Areflexia

206
Q

Somatic innervation of the bladder

A

External urethral sphinchter innervated by pudendal nerve from Onuf’s nucleus

207
Q

Occlusion of the jugular foramen would lead to what symptom?

A

Inability to turn head to opposite side

208
Q

Ipsilateral loss of tactile discrimination, form perception, and position and vibration sensation below the lesion

A

Dorsal column transection

209
Q

Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation, starting one segment below the lesion

A

Lateral spinothalamic transection

210
Q

Contralateral loss of crude touch sensation starting 3-4 segments below the lesion

A

Ventral spinothalamic transection

211
Q

Ipsilateral leg dystaxia

A

Dorsal spinocerebellar transection

212
Q

Contralateral leg dystaxia

A

Ventral spinocerebellar transection

213
Q

Ipsilateral spastic paresis

Positive Babinski

A

Lateral corticospinal transection

214
Q

Minor contralateral muscle weakness below the lesion

A

Ventral corticospinal transection

215
Q

Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of somatic muscles

A

Ventral horn destruction (LMN lesion)

216
Q

Ipsilateral dermatomic anesthesia and areflexia

A

Dorsal horn destruction

217
Q

A lesion in what location would cause ipsilateral Horner syndrome, ipsilateral spastic paresis, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature?

A

Cervical spinal cord

218
Q

ALS involves what type of neuronal degeneration?

A

Loss of neurons from the paracentral lobule and from the anterior horns of the spinal cord

219
Q

A patient who is able to stand straight with eyes open, but falls with eyes closed most likely has what kind of lesion?

A

Dorsal column syndrome.

220
Q

In what conditions is dorsal column syndrome seen?

A

Tabes dorsalis, vitamin B12 neuropathy

221
Q

Romberg sign indicates what syndrome?

A

Dorsal column syndrome

222
Q

Name an example of a mechanism present in neurons to provide necessary items to the ends of neuronal processes and to bring items to the cell body.

A

Axonal transport requires ATP

223
Q

What type of ion channels are present in the axon hillock?

A

High density of voltage sensitive ion channels

224
Q

Neuropil

A

Synapses predominantly occur here

225
Q

What forms a gap junction?

A

Two hemi-channels connecting pre- and postsynaptic neurons

226
Q

Reduced Ach results in muscle weakness. Additionally, at the preganglionic terminals of the ANS, loss of voltage gated Ca2+ channels results in symptoms characteristic of autonomic dysfunction, and impotence. Which disorder is this?

A

Lambert-Eaton

227
Q

Which neurotransmitter can be metabolized by both monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase?

A

Dopamine

228
Q

Which cofactor modulates the NMDA receptor?

A

Zinc

229
Q

Synaptic glutamate can increase the formation of what within postsynaptic neurons and surrounding astrocytes?

A

Nitric oxide

230
Q

Activation of this receptor causes a G-protein to stimulate phospholipase C

A

M3

231
Q

What is a selective agonist of TrkB receptors?

A

Brain derived neurotrophic factor

232
Q

What is the relationship between EEG and epilepsy?

A

The EEG reflects primary synaptic potentials in the cortical pyramid cells

233
Q

Guillain-Barre mechanism

A

Segmental demyelination and Wallerian degeneration progressing in a proximal direction in the PNS

234
Q

What would you use to classify a neuron as inhibitory?

A

Neurotransmitter

235
Q

Muscle weakness characterized by paresis in median and fibular nerve distributions
Demyelinating disorder which typically compromises muscle strength

A

Charcot-Marie Tooth

236
Q

Which cell can metabolize glucose to lactate to generate ATP?

A

Astrocytes

237
Q

How are new neurons produced in adult humans?

A

Stem cells in the brain

238
Q

Which neurotransmitter can astrocytes take up from a neuronal synapse?

A

Glutamate

239
Q

Which drug has a long half-life, selectively inhibits AchE, and is used to treat Alzheimers?

A

Donepezil

240
Q

Which neurotransmitter is mainly terminated by the enzymatic degradation following release from presynaptic nerve endings?

A

Acetylcholine

241
Q

Where does the major norepinephrine nerve tract originate in the brain?

A

Locus coeruleus

242
Q

Where does the major histamine nerve tract originate in the brain?

A

Tuberomamillary nucleus of the hypothalamus

243
Q

Endorphin is a preferred endogenous ligand of which receptor?

A

Mu

244
Q

Direction of flow of ions in voltage gated ion channels is dependent on what factor?

A

Electrochemical driving force

245
Q

What would be present in CSF in viral meningitis compared to bacterial meningitis?

A

Viral: increased protein, normal glucose, excessive lymphocytes
Bacterial: decreased glucose; excessive leukocytes, not lymphocytes

246
Q

What is curare?

A

A nicotinic Ach receptor antagonist

247
Q

What do you not expect to see in a cholinergic neuron?

A

Acetic acid

248
Q

To find CSF that is in contact with both the tectum and tegmentum, you would have to go to the….

A

Cerebral aqueduct

249
Q

What ensures that action potentials only travel down the axon in one direction?

A

Absolute refractory period

250
Q

How do GABA-A and glycine receptor inhibit cells?

A

By opening a Cl- channel

251
Q

If you were an excitatory axon who really wanted to cause some action potentials in a cute neuron next to you, where is the best place to put your bouton?

A

Near the axon hillock

252
Q

Which cells are mainly responsible for axonal regeneration in the CNS?

A

Schwann cells

253
Q

A patient has a tumor near the lateral wall of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle. This would most likely impinge what structure?

A

Caudate nucleus

254
Q

Calcium enters/exits the presynaptic terminal bouton during neurotransmitter release

A

Enters

255
Q

What is the largest component of the diencephalon?

A

Thalamus

256
Q

Where is norepinephrine synthesized?

A

The cytoplasm of the neuronal terminal

257
Q

How do NMDA receptors differ from AMPA receptors?

A

NMDA receptors are permeable to Ca2+ and AMPA receptors aren’t
Inward ionic current through AMPA receptors is voltage-dependent

258
Q

What receptor do barbiturates act on?

A

Exclusively on GABA-A

259
Q

If you got rid of kinesin, what would happen to the neuron?

A

The axon terminals would begin to degenerate

260
Q

Which structure is important in the regulation and coordination of fine motor movement; has bilateral symmetrical hemispheres with a midline called the vermis?

A

Cerebellum

261
Q

Debilitating injury to nerve
Axon swollen and irregular with fragmented terminal
Schwann cells filled with lipid

A

Wallerian degeneration

262
Q

Which glial cell is particularly involved in the spatial buffering of extracellular potassium?

A

Astrocyte

263
Q

What body of CSF contains the inferior colliculus?

A

Cerebral aqueduct

264
Q

Prosencephalon gives rise to…

A

Diencephalon

Telencephalon

265
Q

Neural system development progresses in what order?

A

Neural plate –> neural groove –> neural tube

266
Q

Results in the nucleus changing position
Is associated with fragmentation of Nissl bodies
Can occur following axonal injury
Shows swelling of the soma

A

Chromatolysis

267
Q

The hypoglossal nucleus is derived from which embryonic structure?

A

Basal plate

268
Q

The alar plate will produce…

A

Sensory neurons of the dorsal horn

269
Q

What single artery supplies both motor cortex and the axons of the motor pathway?

A

Anterior cerebral artery

270
Q

Mechanism of MS

A

Oligodendrocytes providing myelin sheaths on the axons in the CNS are degenerated

271
Q

Too little inhibition in the nervous system leads to…

A

Seizures

272
Q

During the course of development, all of the ectoderm in a particular embryo stays associated with the neural tube. The developed organism will not have…

A

A peripheral nervous system

273
Q

Which problem is most closely associated with damage to the frontal lobes?

A

Loss of voluntary movement

274
Q

The part of the brain that surrounds the third ventricle is the…

A

Diencephalon

275
Q

The basal ganglia are part of which brain structure?

A

Telencephalon

276
Q

If you were part of a lemniscus, what would you most likely be?

A

An axon

277
Q

Blood leaking between the dura and the arachnoid layer would lead to…

A

Subdural hematoma

278
Q

What is the flow of CSF?

A 
Lateral ventricles
Interventricular foramen
3rd ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct
4th ventricle
279
Q

Which vessel supplies the cingulated gyrus?

A

Anterior cerebral artery

280
Q

Which space has the most CSF?

A

Subarachnoid space

281
Q

Which lobe is the angular gyrus located in?

A

Parietal

282
Q

Which vessel supplies the Heschl gyrus?

A

Middle cerebral artery

283
Q

Why is a spinal tap performed in the lumbar region?

A

There are no neuronal cell bodies here, only axons, so the probability of damage is lessened

284
Q

Which artery is most likely to be occluded in Wallenberg syndrome?

A

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

285
Q

T/F: anterior white commissure contains BBB

A

True

286
Q

T/F: there is Nissl substance in the axon hillock

A

FALSE MFers

287
Q

Blood CSF barrier is comprised of which structures?

A

Tight junctions of epithelial cells

288
Q

How is compound muscle action potential evoked?

A

By stimulating a nerve while recording from a muscle.

289
Q

After the 4th ventricle, most CSF flows into….

A

Cisterna magna

290
Q

What are the 3 conventional cervical spine films?

A

Lateral
AP
Open mouth odontoid

291
Q

Erb-Duchenne spinal levels

A

C5-C6

292
Q

Klumpke paralysis

A

C8-T1

Neuro E1 (2 decks)

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