Cataract Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions are associated with weakened zonules?

A

• PXF
• Prior vitreoretinal surgery
• Trauma
• High myopia
• Connective tissue disorders (Marfan’s, homocystinuria,
hyperlysinemia Ehler Danlos, scleroderma,
Weil-Marchesani)
• Uveitis
• Retinitis pigmentosa

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2
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for LASIK?

A

• Asymmetric bowtie
• Areas of superior or inferior thinning
• Ectatic disorder: keratoconus, pellucid marginal
degeneration, keratoglobus
• Thin central cornea
• Residual stromal bed <300 μm
• High preoperative potassium values
• Young age

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3
Q

What refractive change can occur after scleral buckle?

A

• Myopic shift secondary to axial elongation

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4
Q

What are the 3 main sources of error when calculating IOL power in post-refractive surgery eyes?

A
  1. Radius error (true central K is flatter than K reading
    obtained from instruments)
  2. Keratometer index error (index of refraction assumes a
    certain ratio between the radii of curvature of anterior
    and posterior corneal surface)
  3. Formula error
    All of these lead to hyperopic surprise
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5
Q

What are the types of topographic maps and what types of corneal power do they measure?

A

• Axial power map/sagittal curvature map: based upon
reference axis through line of sight and better
estimation of central corneal power
• Instantaneous/tangential or meridional map: gives
corneal power based on best fit spherical
approximation at corneal point measured and is better
estimation of peripheral corneal power

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6
Q

What is photoablation?

A

• Use high-energy ultraviolet photons to break covalent
chemical bond, no heat is produced
• Excimer laser (193 nm)
• Used in keratorefractive procedure

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7
Q

What is photocoagulation?

A

• Head generated by absorption of light denatures
protein
• Used in retinal photocoagulation (PRP)
• Laser thermokeratoplasty (LTK) treat hyperopia

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8
Q

What is photodisruption?

A

• Wavelength produced by the Nd-YAG laser. This type of
laser is pulsed, so the energy it produces is released in
a very short time, producing a large amount of
momentary power
• The laser beam is focused into a small area. In the
vicinity of the focus, electrons are stripped from their
atoms by ionization, but they quickly recombine, which
produces a spark and an acoustic wave
• During a photodisruption procedure, it is the
mechanical (acoustic) wave and not the laser light itself
that breaks the capsule.

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9
Q

What is photoactivation?

A

• The conversion of chemical from one form to another
by light
• Clinical application includes verteporfin used in PDT

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10
Q

What type of cataract is associated with Alport syndrome?

A

• Anterior lenticonus (bilateral)

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11
Q

What is the most common ocular complication with chronic hyperbaric oxygen?

A

• Nuclear sclerotic cataracts, results in myopic shift
• ~50% of patients exposed to hyperbaric oxygen >150
times during 1-year period will develop cataracts

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12
Q

What is orthokeratology?

A

• Rigid CL that is flatter than the cornea to push down on
the cornea, cause remolding of corneal epithelium
• Treats low orders of myopia
• 73% experienced CL discomfort in the clinical trial,
corneal edema occured in large number of patient

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13
Q

What is aqueous misdirection syndrome?

A

• AKA ciliary block glaucoma
• Aqueous is directed into vitreous instead of flowing
through pupil
Treatment: mydriasis and cycloplegia (phenyl 10% and
atropine), aqueous suppressants, hyperosmotic. If medical
treatment fails → disruption of anterior hyaloid face with
YAG laser or PPV

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14
Q

What are the most common gases used in excimer lasers?

A

• Argon and Fluorine

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15
Q

What are the wavelengths of different lasers?

A

• Femtosecond: 1053 nm (infrared)
• Excimer: 193 nm (UV light)
• Nd:YAG: 1064 nm
• Rhodopsin most sensitive at 510 nm (green light). Less
absorption of blue and yellow light. Cannot absorb
longer wavelengths (red)

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16
Q

What is Fuchs heterochromic iridocylcyitis?

A

• Chronic uveitis; long and fragile vessels that cross angle
and insert high in angle (25% nicked when entering AC)
• Unilateral without severe pain or photophobia
• Stellate KPs
• Iris heterochromia (blue eyes appear dark; brown
appear lighter)
• Lack of anterior/posterior synechiae
• PSC 75%
• Difficult to control glaucoma (will likely require surgery)
Treatment: not necessary to treat inflammation, focus on
glaucoma screening/management and cataract removal

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17
Q

Where are lens epithelial cells mitotically most active?

A

• Anterior pre-equatorial capsule

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18
Q

What are the different types of CL and duration of holiday needed before normalization on topography?

A

• Soft spherical CL: 3-14 days
• Soft toric lens: 2 weeks or more
• Rigid contact lens: at least 2-3 weeks (causes epithelial
migration), additional month for every decade of hard
contact lens wear

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19
Q

What are limbal relaxing incisions?

A

• 600 microns in depth
• Just anterior to limbus ~2 mm
• Done on steep meridian
• Maintain spherical equivalent (coupling ratio = 1)

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20
Q

What is arcuate keratotomy?

A

• 95% in depth
• Placed at 7 mm optical zone
• Done on steep meridian
• Maintain spherical equivalent (coupling ratio = 1)
• Flattening in the meridian of incision and steepening 90
degrees away (coupling)

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21
Q

What is spherical aberration ?

A

• Higher order aberration (4th order)
• Decrease in quality of vision after refractive surgery
• Peripherally refracted light rays are focused in front of
retina and central rays are focused on the retina
• Halos around point light sources night myopia
• Decreased contrast sensitivity

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22
Q

What is the most serious complication of piggyback lenses?

A

• Interlenticular opaque membrane
• Most commonly occurs when two acrylic IOLs are used
especially if they are both placed in the capsular bag

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23
Q

What are transversion incisions?

A

• Straight incisions
• Parallel to limbus
• Coupling ratio >1
• Hyperopic shift

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24
Q

What is coupling ratio?

A

• Amount of flattening induced by incision
• Amount of steeping induced 90 degrees away

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25
Q

What is corneal Collagen cross-linking?

A

• Strengthens stabilize cornea
• Used in ectatic corneal disorders (KCN, PMD,
post-refractive ectasia)
• Expose cornea to riboflavin (B2) and UVA
• Increases rigidity of cornea and reduce ectatic process
• UVA light penetrates 300 μm and can destroy
endothelial cells.
• Corneal thickness at least 400 μm prior to UVA
• If cornea not thick enough, use hypotonic riboflavin
until cornea swells over 400 μm
• Contraindications: Corneal thickness <400 μm, prior
herpetic infection, central corneal scarring, poor
epithelial healing, severe dry eye, autoimmune
disorders

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26
Q

What is chatter?

A

• Nuclear fragment repelled by phaco tip
• Not desirable because lens can’t be aspirated
efficiently
• Allows lens pieces to have greater chance of striking
corneal endothelium
• Happens when ultrasound stroke > vacuum
• To decrease chatter-reduce phaco power which
reduces stroke length of phaco tip or increase vacuum
setting

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27
Q

What is duty cycle?

A

• Proportion of time phaco energy is applied during
specified period of time

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28
Q

What is stroke length?

A

• Distance phaco tip travels
• Usually 2-4 mil (1 mil=1/1000 of inch)

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29
Q

What is cavitation?

A

• Shock waves that are released as gas bubble implodes
at phaco tip
• Due to compression and expansion of gas atoms
• Shock waves helps break down lens fragments so they
can enter phaco tip

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30
Q

What is the pathway responsible for diabetic cataracts?

A

• Sorbitol pathway

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31
Q

What are the findings of Keratoconus?

A

• Ectatic disorder
• More common starts at puberty
• Maximal thinning at apex
• Asymmetric steepening
• Scissoring with retinoscopy
• Fleischer ring
• Scarring is common

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32
Q

What is Pellucid marginal degeneration and its finding?

A

• Less common, onset 20-40s
• Maximal thinning inferior to area of protrusion
• Scarring only after hydrops
• Crab-claw confirmation on topography

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33
Q

What are the findings of Keratoglobus?

A

• Very rare, onset at birth
• Thinning greatest in periphery
• Protrusion in generalized
• No iron line or scarring

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34
Q

What is against-the-rule astigmatism?

A

• Football sitting on one of its poles (horizontal
meridian is shorter)
• Too much power along horizontal meridian
• Cylinder correction that provides focusing power
vertically no additional power horizontal
Treatment:
• Minus cylinder vertically (exerts power long its axis)
• Positive cylinder horizontally (exerts power 90
degrees away)

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35
Q

What is with-the-rule astigmatism?

A

• Football lying on its side
• Steepest part of cornea along vertical meridian
• Cylinder correction that provides focusing power
horizontally no additional power vertical
Treatment:
• Negative cylinder at 180 degree (exert power along
its axis)
• Positive cylinder at 90 degrees (exert power 90
degrees away)

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36
Q

How many days prior to surgery should anti-platelet be stopped so normal platelet function is restored?

A

• 10 days, i.e. Aspirin, clopidogrel, vitamin E
• Hold for ocular surgeries at risk of suprachoroidal
hemorrhage (PKP, glaucoma surgery)

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37
Q

What is Glaukomflecken?

A

• High IOP during angle closure glaucoma lead to lens
epithelial death leads to gray-white anterior
subcapsular opacities
• Pinpoint opacities measuring 2-3 mm or more in size

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38
Q

What is Brown Mclean syndrome?

A

● Peripheral corneal edema after cataract extraction
● Edema begins several years after surgery
● Corneal edema characteristics:
○ Peripheral 2-3 mm
○ Central cornea spared
○ Starts inferiorly and extends circumferentially
○ Punctate brownish pigmentation, localized
guttae
○ No neovascularization of cornea
○ Associated with long term aphakia
○ After routing cataract surgery, vitrectomies
○ No etiology
Most are asymptomatic, may complain of foreign body
sensation secondary to ruptured bullae

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39
Q

What are zero order, 1st order, and 2nd order aberrations (lower order aberrations)?

A

• Zero order: piston
• 1st order: vertical and horizontal prism
• 2nd order: myopia, hyperopia, regular astigmatism

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40
Q

What is the rate of visually significant PCO?

A

● 28% at 6 years
● Rate of formation for different intraocular lens (lowest
to highest):
Acrylic < silicone < PMMA
● Occurs when lens epithelial cells migrate across
posterior capsule and cause contraction of secreted
collagen matrix, this can result in capsular wrinkling
and PCO

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41
Q

What is a Soemmering Ring?

A

• After cataract surgery, residual lens epithelial cells
proliferate in closed space between anterior and
posterior capsules.
• Consists of nucleated bladder cells = Wedl cells

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42
Q

What is an Elschnig pearl?

A

• Epithelial cells proliferate in large spherical aggregates
like “fish eggs” where each “ fish egg” is nucleated
bladder cell

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43
Q

What are the risk factors for choroidal hemorrhage?

A

• Older patients (brittle choroidal blood vessels)
• Glaucoma
• Previous hemorrhage in fellow eye with intraocular
surgery
• Myopia
• Hypertension
• Arteriosclerosis
• Bleeding diathesis
• Recent trauma or surgery with active inflammation
• Prolonged hypotony
• Anticoagulation

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44
Q

What is the minimal residual stromal bed thickness needed for LASIK?

A

• 250 microns, most leave > 300 microns

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45
Q

What situation is associated with highest rate of endophthalmitis after cataract surgery?

A

• Hypotonous eye with leaking wound
• Leaking wound acts as conduit for bacteria to enter
eye

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46
Q

What is the holding force?

A

• Force that is exerted on the nuclear piece when tip if
fully occluded

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47
Q

What is Epi-LASIK?

A

• Blunt microkeratome to remove epithelium, then
ablate stromal bed
• Plane of separation is between basement membrane
and Bowman’s layer

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48
Q

How is LASEK performed?

A

• Place alcohol on epithelium, remove epithelium,
laser the bed, then replace epithelium back on the
stromal bed
• Plane of separation is between lamina lucida and
lamina densa
• Leaving behind lamina densa may provide better
postoperative refractive result compared to
epi-LASIK (controversial)

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49
Q

What is PRK?

A

• Scrape epithelium off with brush or spatula then
ablate stromal bed

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50
Q

What are the various forms of potential acuity estimation for cataract evaluation?

A

• Potential acuity pinhole (PAP): read a brightly lit
near card through standard pin line aperture. Dilate
prior to this test
• Potential acuity meter (PAM): projecting Snellen
chart through tiny aperture. Projected chart is
moved around patient pupil until clear path is
obtained and patient can see projected Snellen chart
• Laser interferometry (LI): Projects 2 separate laser
beams onto retina. 2 light beams interfere with each
other creating a diffraction fringe pattern on the
retina. Pattern independent of lens opacities.
Spacing of the fringe pattern is decreased until
patient cannot distinguish separate lines, may
sometimes overestimate potential acuity

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51
Q

What is photostress recovery time?

A

• “Poor man’s electroretinogram”
• Bright light is shined into patient’s eye for 10
seconds through undilated pupil
• The time required before patient can read BCVA line
or one line larger = photostress recovery time
• >90 seconds indicates significant maculopathy
• Distinguishes optic nerve disease from macular
disease

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52
Q

What are the Y sutures in lens?

A

• Anterior upright Y suture
• Posterior inverted Y suture
• Y sutures appear around 8 weeks of gestation

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53
Q

What is a posterior chamber phakic intraocular lens (PIOL)?

A

• Used in refractive surgery when patient has
contraindications to corneal refractive surgery
• Lenses are flexible collamer material, inserted
through small corneal wound into ciliary sulcus
• “Vaulted” over crystalline lens to prevent contact
with it
• Space between PIOL and crystalline lens allows
aqueous to flow over crystalline lens which prevent
cataract formation
• Ideal space 0.5-1.5 corneal thickness
• Vault less than 250 micron → risk of anterior
subcapsular cataract
• Vault greater than 750 microns → risk of crowding
angle and pupillary block glaucoma, iris chafing

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54
Q

What is the most common type of cataract in acute diabetes?

A

• Cortical in nature-snowflake cataracts

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55
Q

What are the causes of AC shallowing during cataract surgery?

A

• Inadequate infusion of BSS
• Leakage through oversized incision >3.0 mm
• External pressure on globe (improper speculum, too
tight surgical drapes, tight eyelids, too much
retrobulbar anesthesia)
• Posterior vitreous pressure (obese, thick neck,
COPD)
• Suprachoroidal hemorrhage
Shallow AC can lead to radialization of capsulorhexis,
more phaco energy transmitted to corneal endothelium,
repeated iris prolapse through main wound

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56
Q

What is diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK)?

A

• Interface inflammatory process that begins as
dust/sand-like infiltrate in interface of periphery
• Untreated → stromal melting and corneal scarring
with resulting irregular astigmatism
• Associated with epi defects, occur during LASIK,
foreign material lodged in interface, contamination
of sterilizer with gram negative endotoxin

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57
Q

What are the different grades of diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK)?

A

• Grade 1: peripheral faint WBCs, no central corneal
involvement - Tx topical steroids, follow q2-3 days
• Grade 2: WBC migrated to central cornea - Tx topical
steroids, consider interface irrigation, follow q1-2
days
• Grade 3: dense WBC clumped in central cornea,
beginning of corneal scarring; “threshold DLK”
permanent visual morbidity if treatment is not
initiated; typically occurs post op day #2 or 3 - Tx lift
flap, clean interface, intensive topical steroids
consider oral steroids
• Grade 4: stromal melting and permanent corneal
scarring, hyperopic shift, “mud cracks,” poor
prognosis even with above treatments

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58
Q

What is accommodation?

A
  1. Ciliary muscle contracts
  2. Zonular tension decreases
  3. Axial lens thickness increases
    Hardening of lens is primary cause of loss of
    accommodation (presbyopia) because a harder lens will
    prevent increase in convexity that occurs with ciliary
    muscle contraction
    Helmholtz theory of accommodation = most
    accommodative change in lens shape occurs at the
    central anterior lens surface; posterior capsule does not
    change at all with accommodation
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59
Q

What is the difference in ablation pattern in hyperopic LASIK versus myopic LASIK?

A

• Myopic: center of bed is lasered to flatten cornea,
make cornea less dioptrically powerful
• Hyperopic: periphery of bed is lasered to steepen
cornea and make cornea more dioptrically powerful
• Once ablation is complete, flap is laid back down

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60
Q

What is the mechanism by which mitomycin C application after surface ablation prevents corneal haze?

A

• Reduces number of keratocytes and their enzymatic
activity
(activation of keratocytes after surface ablation
leads to haze, keratocytes lay down collagen and
glycosaminoglycans)

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61
Q

What is the most common type of congenital and infantile cataracts?

A

• Lamellar or zonular cataracts
• Lamellar cataract: opacifications of specific zones
within lens; typically bilateral and symmetric

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62
Q

What is TASS (toxic anterior segment syndrome)?

A

• Sterile inflammatory reaction
• Secondary to contaminants injected into the eye or
incorrect pH of irrigating solutions
• Commonly occurs when remnants of cleaning
detergents are not properly washed out of reusable
cannula
• Presents in acute post-op period (12-24 hours),
earlier than acute endophthalmitis (2-7 days)
• Confined to anterior segment
• Treatment: exclude endophthalmitis as cause of
inflammation; intensive topical steroids; control IOP
if elevated

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63
Q

What is Ectopia lentis et pupillae?

A

• Iris with slit-like configuration that is displaced in
opposite direction as subluxed lens
• Autosomal recessive

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64
Q

What is the most common postoperative complication of LASIK?

A

• Dry eye – secondary to transection of corneal nerves
with flap creation

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65
Q

What is AcuFocus corneal inlays?

A

• AKA alloplastic corneal inlay porous ring segments
• Used in non-dominant eye of presbyopic patients
• Small central aperture causes increase in depth of
field

66
Q

Where is the cellular ion pump located on the lens?

A

• Anterior lens epithelium cells
• Sodium-potassium-ATPase pumps sodium out of the
lens and potassium into the lens

67
Q

What is conductive keratoplasty?

A

• Small circular burns are created in cornea to steepen
the central cornea
• Radiofrequency probe to heat points in the
peripheral cornea → causes localized collagen
shrinkage and corneal flattening around the points
and central corneal steepening
• Results in cornea that has more refractive power
• Used to correct low orders of hyperopia to create
monovision
Rarely used in following situations:
1. Cases of over-corrected myopia LASIK or PRK
2. Keratoconus to flatten the cone
3. Ectasia

68
Q

What is phacolytic glaucoma?

A

• Lens proteins leaks through an intact capsule
• Lens proteins are taken up by macrophages
• Engorged macrophages and lens protein itself can
clog trabecular meshwork

69
Q

What is lens particle glaucoma?

A

• Macroscopic portions of lens (mainly cortex)
remains unnoticed after cataract surgery
• These pieces make their way to anterior chamber
and directly clog trabecular meshwork

70
Q

What is phacoanaphylactic uveitis?

A

• AKA phacoantigenic uveitis
• Immune-mediated granulomatous inflammation
that is elicited by lens proteins released through
ruptured lens capsule
• Typically trauma is the cause of this ruptured lens
capsule
• Can also occur if cortical material is left in the eye
after cataract surgery
• Granulomatous uveitis occurs days to weeks after
inciting event

71
Q

What is phacomorphic glaucoma?

A

• Lens becomes so large it pushes iris forward and
closes angle

72
Q

What type of cataract is most common in patients with atopic dermatitis?

A

• Anterior subcapsular
• Generally bilateral shield-like anterior subcapsular
cataracts
• Occur in up to 25% of patients with atopic dermatitis
• Onset 2nd/3rd decade

73
Q

What is the most common side effect of conductive keratoplasty?

A

• Regression of effect

74
Q

What is a zonular dialysis?

A

● Portion of bag detached from ciliary processes
● Occur secondary to ocular trauma or spontaneously
● Predisposed in PXF and Marfans
● Can occur due to inadequate hydrodissection and
overly aggressive rotation of lens nucleus
● If this occurs intraoperatively:
○ Prevent vitreous loss with possible lost lens
fragments
○ Prevent additional zonular damage
● Treatment: First inject abundant amounts of
viscoelastic → Then detached area of capsule needs
to be supported mechanically via capsular hooks or
capsular tension ring

75
Q

What causes early postoperative shallow AC with high IOP versus with low IOP?

A

• Shallow AC with low IOP = wound leak
• Shallow AC with high IOP = posterior pushing
mechanisms 🡪 i.e. choroidal detachment

76
Q

What are the types of lens crystallin?

A

• Alpha: highest molecular weight
• Beta: majority of crystallins by overall weight (55%)
• Gamma: minority of crystallins by weight

77
Q

What are the ways in which excimer laser is delivered to cornea?

A

• Broad beam
• Flying spot
• Slit beam

78
Q

How is radial keratotomy performed?

A

• Partial thickness linear radial cuts in cornea →
wound gape with mid-peripheral bulging of cornea
→ central cornea flattens → decreased refractive
power and therefore decreased myopia
<img></img>

79
Q

What are the findings from Prospective Evaluation of Radial Keratotomy (PERK) study?

A

• 43% of patients had greater than 1D hyperopic shift
over 10 years
• 3% had irregular astigmatism

80
Q

What are multifocal lens?

A

• Diffractive lens with rings that go out to the
periphery
• Rings on posterior aspect of optic
• True multifocal lens
• 2 focal points - one at distance and one at near
• No matter pupil size, diffraction causes near and far
images to be in focus

81
Q

What is a Symfony lens?

A

• Diffractive lens
• Rings are apodized = gradual shortening of step
heights toward the periphery of diffractive zone,
allows for smoother transition from distance to
intermediate to near
• Extended depth of focus lens

82
Q

What is a Restor lens?

A

• Diffractive lens
• Rings are apodized - smoother transition from near
to distance - extends to 3.6 mm
• Difficulty reading in low light if pupils normal size

83
Q

What is a ReZoom lens?

A

• Multifocal images by refraction
• Associated with large amount of glare and halos

84
Q

What is Crystalens?

A

• Accommodating intraocular lens
• With near stimulation and contraction of ciliary
muscle, silicone lenses either are anteriorly
displaced or steepen anterior curvature of optic

85
Q

What is the preop scotopic pupil size that will likely result in glare and halos after refractive surgery?

A

• 7.0 mm
• Majority excimer lasers have optical zone on 6.5 mm
• Pupil larger than optical zone will result in halos

86
Q

What is an implantable collamer lens?

A

• Maintains natural shape of cornea (prolate - steep
centrally and flatter peripherally)
• Aspheric shape reduces higher order aberrations
• (Most amount of aberrations due to radial
keratotomy also occurs with LASIK)

87
Q

What layer of cornea is the graft in epikeratoplasty placed?

A

• Bowman’s layer
• Pre-lathing a donor corneal stroma and then
suturing it to Bowman’s layer
• Not very successful because carving out exact shape
is difficult → unpredictable refractive outcomes
• Trauma induced by eyelid blinking could sometimes
dislodge graft
• Epithelial ingrowth is also a problem

88
Q

What type of cataract is seen with congenital rubella cataract?

A

• Pearly white nuclear opacifications; retention of cell
nuclei within lens fibers
• Rubella in 1st trimester: ocular (cataracts or
glaucoma), auditory (deafness) and systemic
(cardiac)
• Patients who develop rubella cataract do not
develop glaucoma, vice versa
• Rubella in 2nd trimester: salt and pepper fundus

89
Q

What type of cataract is seen in retinitis pigmentosa?

A

• Posterior subcapsular
• RP also associated with CME and zonular weakness

90
Q

What conditions are associated with PSC?

A

• Chronic steroid use
• Radiation exposure (brachytherapy)
• Chronic uveitis
• NF2
• Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis
• Retinitis pigmentosa

91
Q

What is a wave-front guided ablation?

A

• Aberometer used to calculate lower and higher
order aberrations pre-operatively
• Laser then takes the information from aberometer
and applies a laser ablation that attempts to
minimize lower and higher order aberrations

92
Q

What is a wave-front optimized laser?

A

• Surgeon enters patient’s preoperative Ks and
attempted correction into laser
• Laser has pre-programmed database of Ks and
corresponding ablation patterns that from
manufacturers testing has minimized higher order
aberrations

93
Q

What are the risks factors for buttonholes?

A

• Increased risk with steep cornea (>48D)
• More common after creating a flap with
microkeratome

94
Q

What are the ocular findings in myotonic dystrophy?

A

• Christmas tree cataract
• Ptosis
• Pigmentary retinopathy
• Ophthalmoplegia resembling CPEO
• Low IOP due to ciliary body detachments

95
Q

What is major intrinsic protein?

A

• Protein expressed by lens fibers as they line up in
the bow region and correlated with elongation of
cell
• Cells elongate and the points where cells from one
side touch cells from the opposite side form sutures.
Then cells lose their nuclei

96
Q

What is the difference between radial incisions and arcuate incisions?

A

• Radial incisions = flatten both in meridian of the
incision and 90 degrees away
• Arcuate incisions = flattening in meridian of incision
and steepen meridian 90 degrees away

97
Q

What is postoperative CME?

A

• Peak incidence 6-10 weeks after cataract surgery
• 95% uncomplicated cases resolve spontaneously
• Topical NSAIDs + steroids speed up resolution than
either alone

98
Q

What organism is responsible for chronic ocular inflammation after cataract surgery?

A

• Chronic P. acnes
• Occurring 6 weeks after surgery
• Typically responds to topical steroids and
appearance of PCO
• Culture and IVI antibiotics are indicated
• If no resolution → vitrectomy with partial capsular
bag removal, some require entire capsular bag and
IOL removed

99
Q

What is laser interferometry?

A

• Two helium/neon lasers to create a fringe pattern
on retina
• Device has wavy patterns corresponding to visual
acuity
• Smaller distance between wavy lines corresponds to
finer visual acuity

100
Q

What are the types of remnants of fetal vasculature?

A

• Bergmeister’s papillae: remnant of hyaloid artery
• Pupillary strands: remnants of anterior pupillary
membrane
• Mittendorf dots: remnants of tunica vasculosa lentis

101
Q

What is pressure-induced stromal keratitis (PISK)?

A

• LASIK complication classically caused by prolonged
topical corticosteroid use
• Steroid-response increase in IOP🡪causes fluid
accumulation within interface
• Measured IOP may be falsely low due to fluid acting
as “cushion“
• Check pressure in the peripheral cornea or using
dynamic contour tonometry
• May present with interface fluid cleft or diffuse
stromal and interface opacity
• Can be causes by anything that results in an acute
IOP rise
• Typically requires 10-21 days to develop (unlike DLK
= very early complication of LASIK)
• Anterior segment OCT aids in diagnosis
• Treatment: stop topical steroids and IOP lower meds

102
Q

What is Holmium:YAG laser used for in refractive surgery?

A

• Photothermal effect
• Wavelength of 2.13 microns
• Procedure is called laser thermokeratoplasty
• Used for low hyperopia

103
Q

What is an excimer laser?

A

• Photoablation, breaks carbon-carbon and
carbon-nitrogen bonds. M/C are argon-fluoride
lasers
• 193 nm wavelength

104
Q

What are the types of viscoelastic agents?

A

• Viscoat = dispersive, better coating ability (protect
corneal endothelium better); more difficult to
remove from eye; lower molecular weight, less IOP
spike if left in the eye
• Provisc/Healon/Amvisc = cohesive agents; made
from hyaluronic acid; clump more (high surface
tension), more easily removed from the eye; higher
molecular weight; raise IOP more

105
Q

What is an epithelial ingrowth in post LASIK? What are the risk factors?

A

• Epithelial cells are trapped underneath flap 🡪 these
cells can growth toward visual axis and cause
irregular astigmatism, foreign body sensation, flap
melts
• Risk factors: epi defect at time LASIK (more common
in ABMD, diabetics, frequent use of topical
preserved eyedrops), use of microkeratome for flap
creation
• Traumatic flap dehiscence
• Re-treatments requiring flap lift
Treatment: lift flap, scrape off epithelial ingrowth from
both flap and underlying stromal bed, reposition flap,
BCL

106
Q

What is the Munnerlyn equation?

A

• Optical zone usually 6.5 mm2
• Residual stromal bed = CCT - flap thickness - ablation
depth
<img></img>

107
Q

What is lens-iris-diaphragm retropulsion syndrome?

A

• AC deepening, extreme pupil dilation, concave shape
of iris, patient discomfort due to stretching of ciliary
body
• Risk factors: high myopia (stretched/thin zonules),
deep AC, previously vitrectomized eyes, incision size
• Cause: reverse pupillary block where iris contacts
anterior capsule 360 degrees. AC pressure greater
than PC/vitreous pressure. Pressure difference
causes marked deepening of AC and posterior
bowing of iris
• Treatment: lift iris off anterior capsule with phaco
tip/second instrument or I/A tip → break reverse
pupillary block and allow compartments to equalize
in pressure

108
Q

What is the recommended time frame to remove bilateral versus unilateral congenital cataracts?

A

● Bilateral cataract:
○ Removed before age 10 weeks
○ Once cataract is removed, second cataract
should be removed <2 weeks for child <2 years,
<4 weeks for child >2 years
● Unilateral cataract:
○ Removed before age 6 weeks

109
Q

What are the risk of intracameral aminoglycoside/gentamicin?

A

• Retinal toxicity

110
Q

What is the pathophysiology of cataract formation?

A

• Increase in amount of water insoluble proteins
• Increase in urea insoluble proteins
• Increase in crosslinking between proteins
• Decrease in glutathione

111
Q

What are the risk factors for intraoperative epithelial defects during LASIK?

A

• ABMD - loose anchoring of epithelium into abnormal
basement membrane
• Older age
• Manual microkeratome - moves across the eye
• Abundant use of preserved topical eyedrops - toxic
and loosens epithelium (tetracaine more toxic than
proparacaine)

112
Q

What are intracorneal ring segments (Intacs)?

A

• Flatten cornea in keratoconus
• Improves refractive error
• Allows for better fitting of hard CLs

113
Q

What is the definition of power in phaco?

A

• Percentage of length phaco tip moves relative to
maximal possible length

114
Q

What is the definition of cavitation in phaco?

A

• Formation of bubbles at the phaco tip results in lens breakdown

115
Q

What is the definition of load in phaco?

A

• Amount of surface area of nuclear material in
contact with phaco tip

116
Q

What is the most common type of cataract that occurs secondary to trauma/contusion?

A

• Posterior star-like configuration/stellate

117
Q

What are the risk factors for anterior capsular phimosis?

A

• Pseudoexfoliation
• Other causes of loose zonules (trauma, Marfan)
• Small capsulorrhexis
• Silicone IOL material
• Plate haptic IOLs
Treatment: YAG cap (more energy than posterior
capsulotomy)

118
Q

What is intraoperative floppy iris syndrome and what causes it?

A

● Triad: iris prolapse into wounds, iris
billowing/floppiness, progressive pupillary miosis
● Causes:
○ α1a antagonists (tamulosin, terazosin,
doxazosin, alfuzosin, prazosin, silodosin)
○ Labetalol
○ Antipsychotics (chlorpromazine, quetiapine,
risperidone)

119
Q

What is the corneal thickness cutoff for increased risk of corneal decompensation after cataract surgery?

A

• 640 microns

120
Q

What type of IOL is ideal for a patient who has previously undergone myopic LASIK?

A

• Aspheric lens that contributes negative spherical
aberration
• Examples: AMO technis monofocal; Alcon SN60WF
• Sensitive to decentration

121
Q

What type of IOL is ideal for a patient who has previously undergone hyperopic LASIK?

A

• Traditional spherical lens that induce some positive
spherical aberration or no spherical aberration –
softport lens
• For low hyperopic LASIK – aspheric neutral lens

122
Q

What are the risk factors for diffuse lamellar keratitis?

A

• Solutions used to clean microkeratome
• Iodine prep
• Gram negative endotoxin
• Meibomian gland secretions
• Laser ablation debris
• RBCs in the interface

123
Q

What conditions are associated with PAX6 mutation?

A

• WAGR syndrome
• Posterior embryotoxon
• Peters anomaly
• Axenfeld anomaly
• Congenital cataracts

124
Q

What are the findings for the Endophthalmitis Vitrectomy Study (EVS)?

A

• Assessed endophthalmitis acutely after cataract
surgery
• 2 groups: immediate vitrectomy versus vitreous
culture + IVI antibiotics
• Majority of patients did better with simple tap and
inject
• ONLY patients with LP or worse vision benefited
from immediate vitrectomy
• Intravenous antibiotics is not of benefit once IVI are
given

125
Q

What is the management for suprachoroidal hemorrhage?

A

• Should be closed with suture as quickly as possible
• Consider posterior sclerotomies, 5-6 mm posterior
to limbus and inferotemporal quadrant

126
Q

What are the ocular effects of chlorpromazine and thioridazine?

A

• Pigment deposition on posterior cornea and anterior
lens capsule
• High doses of thioridazine → severe retinopathy
(initially RPE stippling in posterior pole then
nummular/coin-shaped pattern)
• Treatment: immediate cessation of drug

127
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of femtosecond laser compared to microkeratome?

A

● Advantages
○ Center your flap easier
○ More reliable flap thickness
○ Less risk of epi defect, free caps buttonholes
○ Greater ability to adjust flap parameters (i.e.
sidecut angle, spot separation)
● Disadvantages
○ Longer suction and procedure time
○ Opaque bubble layer
○ AC bubbles
○ Increased postoperative pain
○ More expensive
○ Subsequent flap lifts more difficult

128
Q

What are the differences between micro- and macrostriae after LASIK?

A

Microstriae
• Common after post myopic LASIK
• Mismatch of flap to underlying stromal bed
• Folds in Bowman layer
• Gutter typically symmetric
• “Dried cracked mud”
Treatment: observation
Macrostriae
• Local areas of flap slippage/dislocation
• Involves entire flap thickness
• Associated with wider flap gutter
• “Wrinkles in skewed carpet”
Treatment: reflat flap immediately +/- stretch flap

129
Q

What is the most common type of cataract in galactosemia?

A

• Bilateral oil droplet cataracts
• Develop bilateral cataracts within few weeks of birth

130
Q

What is the most common cause of sunflower cataract?

A

• Intraocular foreign body made of copper (chalcosis)
• Abnormal copper metabolism (Wilson’s disease),
Primary biliary cirrhosis, etc

131
Q

What can cause Christmas tree cataracts?

A

• Myotonic dystrophy
• Hypoparathyroidism

132
Q

What type of excimer laser is most likely to produce central islands?

A

• Broad beam lasers
• Central islands = elevation of cornea more than 1D
steeper than surrounding cornea and greater than 1
mm in diameter

133
Q

What are the ocular findings of Weill-Marchesani syndrome and how is it treated?

A

• Associated with microspherophakia → causes
pupillary block angle closure glaucoma
Treatment:
• Cycloplegics which pull lens-iris diaphragm
posteriorly, decrease anteroposterior lens diameter,
relieve pupillary block
• LPI to prevent angle closure attacks

134
Q

What is the type of higher order aberration caused with decentered ablation?

A

• Coma

135
Q

What are the potential complications of mitomycin C use in refractive surgeries?

A

• Destruction of limbal stem cells
• Endothelial cell loss
• Scleral melt
• Failure to re-epithelialize

136
Q

What can Mitomycin C can help prevent in refractive surgery?

A

• Corneal haze

137
Q

What is a morgagnian cataract?

A

• Nucleus becomes mobile and sinks to the bottom of
the capsule
• Leads to phacolytic glaucoma

138
Q

What is a hypermature cataract?

A

• Part of the cortex of a mature cataract starts to
liquefy and leak through the lens capsule
• Gives lens capsule a shrunken appearance
• Leads to phacolytic glaucoma

139
Q

What is an intumescent cataract?

A

• Cataract swells secondary to taking up abundant
amount of water

140
Q

What is a cerulean cataract?

A

• Small bluish opacities located in lens cortex that do
not typically cause visual disability
• A type of autosomal dominant congenital cataract
and occasionally found in Down syndrome

141
Q

What are the common changes in lens fibers that occur with age?

A

• Proteins progressively become more water insoluble
(scatter light)
• Lens protein aggregation and cross-linking 🡪
protein-to-protein and protein-to-glutathione
disulfide bond formation 🡪 accelerated by oxidative
damage
• Glutathione is major molecule that promotes
reducing environment

142
Q

What factors can increase the risk of prolonged inflammation after cataract surgery?

A

● Intraoperative reasons:
○ Iris prolapse
○ Iris manipulation
○ Vitreous prolapse/incarceration into wounds
○ Retained lens fragments
○ Intraocular lens malposition
● Other reasons:
○ Children
○ Diabetes
○ Previous intraocular surgery
○ PXF
○ PDS
○ Long term miotic use

143
Q

What is temporal (pseudophakic) dysphotopsias?

A

• Subjective distortion of temporal VF only after cataract surgery
• Positive dysphotopsias: halo, staburt, flash, streaks of light
• Negative dysphotopsias: shadows (more difficult to tolerate)
• More common in IOL with square-edged design and high-index
material
• Reported in 10-20% of cataract surgery patients
• Many patients will eventually neuroadapt
Treatment:
• If mainly at night → brimonidine or pilo for pupillary construction
• Glasses with thicker frames (coincide with areas of negative
dysphotopsia)
• Reverse optic capture → optic of lens above anterior capsulorrhexis
• Piggyback lens
• Nasal anterior capsule removal with YAG
• Last resort → IOL exchange (lower index IOL with rounded edge)
Way to prevent:
• Lower index lens with rounded edge
• Capsulorhexis rim overlaps lens edge
• IOL well centered
• Optic-haptic junctions horizontally (3 and 9 o’clock)

144
Q

What is the risk of RD after YAG capsulotomy?

A

● 0.1% to 3.6%
● Half of these RDs occur within 1 year of capsulotomy
● Risk factors and hazard ratios:
○ Axial length > 25 mm → 11.1
○ Vitreous complication (during surgery) → 4.4
○ Male sex → 3.61

145
Q

What is the congenital cataract 1/3 rule?

A

• 1/3 systemic disease/illness
• 1/3 inherited with minimal effects on vision
• 1/3 undetermined causes

146
Q

What are the increased risks in pseudoexfoliation syndrome during and after cataract surgery?

A

• Accelerated PCO
• Intraoperative mitosis, vitreous loss, floppy iris, iris
prolapse
• Dislocation of IOL due to zonular dehiscence

147
Q

What is the thickness of the lens capsule?

A

<img></img>

148
Q

What part of the lens capsule is responsible for the production of new lens fibers?

A

• The outer edge of epithelial layer at lens equator
(lens bow)

149
Q

What are the characteristics of the lens capsule epithelium?

A

• Anterior capsule has a monolayer of lens epithelial
cells
• No epithelium is associated with the posterior
capsule

150
Q

What is a posterior subcapsular cataract?

A

• Epithelial disparage at lens equator followed by
posterior migration of lens epithelial cells along
posterior capsule
• Cells migrate to center of posterior capsule and
enlarge 5-6 times normal size
• Swollen cells are called bladder or Wedl cells
• Situations that cause pupillary enlargement
(distance vision, night vision, dilating drops) improve
vision
• Situations causing pupillary constriction (bright
lighting) worsen vision due to light forced to go
through central posterior opacification

151
Q

How does silicone oil complicate lens selection?

A

• Obtaining measurement ultrasonic biometer can be
unreliable, given different ultrasound velocity for
silicone oil (980 m/s) and vitreous (1532 m/s)
• Silicone creates a negative lens power in the eye
when coupled with biconvex IOL, increasing IOL
power by 3-5 diopters in order to avoid hyperopic
surprise
• AVOID silicone lens

152
Q

What do you do to decrease movement of a contact lens on the cornea?

A

• Steepening (decreasing) base curve
• Increasing diameter of CL

153
Q

What do you do to increase movement of a contact lens on the cornea?

A

• Flattening (increasing) the base curve
• Decrease diameter of lens

154
Q

What are the low order wavefront aberrations?

A

• Positive defocus: myopia
• Negative defocus: hyperopia
• Regular astigmatism produces a wavefront
aberration that has orthogonal and oblique
components

155
Q

What is coma?

A

• Coma is a 3rd order aberration
• Occurs when rays at one edge of pupil converge
before ray at opposite edge of pupil
• occurs in decentered ablations correctable with RGP
and wavefront-guided keratorefractive surgery

156
Q

What is trefoil?

A

• Trefoil is a 3rd order aberration
• Can occur after refractive surgery and produces less
degradation in image quality than does coma
• Correctable with RGP and wavefront-guided
keratorefractive surgery

157
Q

What is spherical aberration?

A

• Spherical aberration is a 4th order aberration
• Occurs when peripheral light rays impacting a lens or
the cornea focus in front of more central rays
• Correctable with RGP and wavefront-guided
keratorefractive surgery

158
Q

What is Peters type 1 and what are the implicated genes?

A

• Iridocorneal adhesion
• PITX2, FOXC1, CYPB1, PAX6

159
Q

What is Peters type 2?

A

• Lens touch to area of vascularized corneal opacity
• Failure of lens vesicle to separate from surface
ectoderm
• FOXE3

160
Q

What is Peters plus syndrome?

A

• Peters anomaly with systemic defects - congenital
brain defect, heart defect, craniofacial anomalies