Case 14: Allergy Flashcards

1
Q

Atopy

A
  • An exaggerated propensity in genetically predisposed individuals to produce IgE and Non IgE responses to common environmental triggers.
  • The IgE mediated Allergic March: allergic comorbidities evolve through time in a pre-set pattern. When a patient present with one comorbidity ask about the others
  • Types of allergic co-morbidities: Atopic dermatitis (Eczema), food allergy, Allergic Rhinnitis (hay-fever), Atopic asthma, Drug allergy
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2
Q

Allergy history

A
  • Timing: did it start during weaning
  • Nature of reaction: sudden or delayed
  • Reproducibility: occur everytime they are exposed to the allergen
  • How much allergen does it take to produce the reaction
  • Was the allergen tolerated before or not
  • Whether sensitised, allergic or tolerated they will have the same blood results so need history to distinguish them
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3
Q

Skin allergy: IgE mediated and non-IgE mediated

A
  • Both: Pruritus, Erythema
  • IgE mediated: acute Urticaria (wheel shaped) localised or generalised. Acute angioedema- of the lips, face and around the eyes
  • Non IgE mediated: Atopic suppurative eczema, Multi-system organ disease
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4
Q

Atopic dermatitis (eczema)

A
  • due to genetic mutation (filaggrin mutation) causes increased sensitisation across leaky skin.
  • Children are at higher risk of IgE and non- IgE food allergy.
  • Can lead to Eczema Herpeticum and S.aureus/Streptococcus infections
  • Discoid eczema: not related to food allergy
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5
Q

GI allergy symptoms: IgE and non IgE mediated

A
  • Both: Faltering growth due to malnutrition- any child with eczema and faltering growth should be referred to a dietician
  • IgE mediated: Angiodema of the lips, tongue and palate, Oral pruritus, nausea, colicky abdo pain, vomiting, diarrhoea. Consider anaphylaxis if skin symptoms with acute abdo pain, vomiting, marked diarrhoea with collapse
  • Non-IgE mediated: Delayed symptoms due to inflammation of gut wall and dysmotility. GORD, loose or frequent stool, blood and or mucus in stool, abdo pain, infantile colic, food refusal or aversion, constipation, perianal redness, pallor or tiredness
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6
Q

Most common food allergies

A
  • Children: cows milk, eggs, nuts
  • Adults: fish, shellfish, kiwi
  • Non-IgE mediated: soya, wheat, cows milk
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7
Q

Management: food allergies

A
  • Food allergy management plan: state the trigger and outline how to treat mild, moderate and severe symptoms
  • Anyone with asthma and moderate food allergy should have an adrenaline autoinjector
  • Prescribe a ‘Rescue Medication Pack’: Antihistamine (i.e. cetirizine), Bronchodilator (i.e. Slabutamol), Adrenaline autoinjectors
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8
Q

Investigations of non IgE mediated allergy

A
  • eosinophils, basophils, mast cells
  • gut biopsies
  • nutrition growth centiles
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9
Q

Allergy investigations

A
  • Two main options: Skin prick testing, Specific IgE testing
  • Neither confirms allergy just by positive result- instead shows sensitisation (patient produces specific IgE against the allergen) but that can be asymptomatic
  • Also: Intradermal testing and Challenges
  • Need history
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10
Q

Skin Prick Testing (SPT)

A
  • Can be done for most IgE mediated allergies: foods, inhalants (dust/pollen), bee/wasp venom, some drugs
  • Normally uses liquid reagents (allergen extracts) can be done with native allergens as prick-prick test (fresh food, drugs)
  • Wait 15 minutes after administration to see results. Positive is a red wheel surrounded by white flare
  • Positive (histamine) and negative (saline) controls are essential to ensure valid test (rule out suppression with e.g. antihistamines, and false positive due to pressure / dermographism)
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11
Q

Skin prick testing (SPT’s): pros and cons

A
  • Pro’s: rapid result (15 min), wide range of allergens, cheap, good specificity and less prone to false positives then blood tests in atopic patients
  • Cons: Exposure to allergen so (low) risk, difficult if severe skin pathology (active eczema), cant be on antihistamine/some other drugs (antidepressants and antipsychotics), labour intensive
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12
Q

Specific IgE testing

A
  • Blood test using enzyme immunoassay on the ImmunoCap platform
  • Gives a quantitative result in kAU/L. Negative <0.35
  • Pros: Zero allergen exposure (no anaphylaxis), not affected by other drugs, wide range (not unlimited) of allergens, can test individual components as well as whole substances
  • Cons: False positives, especially in atopy (raised total IgE), expensive, some allergens not available, variable sensitivity (very low for drugs)
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13
Q

Intradermal testing (IDT)

A
  • Almost exclusively used for drug allergy testing
  • Higher sensitivity than SPTs, but also higher risk
  • Conducted with diluted drug in liquid form where its injected in-between the skin layers causing a bleb to form. If positive will form wheel with flair
  • Cons: more likely to cause reactions
  • Start with SPTs first, and IDTs if negative
  • Only used for a small number of drugs (mostly antibiotics)
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14
Q

Food and drug challenge (AKA Provocation test)

A
  • Gold standard for ruling out allergies
  • Not needed if considered low risk after standard testing (skin prick and bloods)- can go straight to home reintroduction
  • Patient given drug or food in controlled dose and under observation
  • Graduated or single dose (depending on risk)
  • Treatment for allergic reactions immediately available
  • Differentiating non-allergy (e.g. anxiety-mediated) and allergic symptoms can be difficult
  • Occasionally done as double-blinded, placebo controlled challenge (multiple appointments – very labour intensive)
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15
Q

Patch testing

A
  • Test for contact dermatitis (type IV hypersensitivity)
  • Patches applied to skin and left for 48-72 hours: positive would be erythema
  • Use chemicals found in cosmetics, hair dyes, dental procedures etc.
  • Conducted by Dermatology
  • NOT useful for investigation of IgE-mediated allergy
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16
Q

Component resolved diagnostics

A
  • Testing different allergen components separately rather than all together
  • allows identification of true allergy (certain allergen components are more likely to be markers of true allergy)
  • allows risk stratification (certain allergen components are more associated with severe reactions)
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17
Q

Anaphylaxis features

A
  • sudden onset and rapid progression ofsymptoms
  • Airway and/or Breathing and/orCirculation problems (one must be present)
  • skin and/or mucosal changes (flushing, urticaria, angioedema)- can be absent
  • Diagnosis is supported if patient has been exposed to an allergen known to affect them
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18
Q

Anaphylaxis timing

A
  • Quicker presentation with IV drugs and stings, slower for food or oral medication. Symptoms present within first few minutes to an hour after exposure
  • Food- 30mins
  • Sting- 12mins
  • Drugs- 1min
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19
Q

Anaphylaxis: symptom progression

A
  • Mild, localised skin symptoms and/or swelling of the lips/face. Rhinitis or Conjunctivitis
  • Generalised skin reaction
  • Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems +/- skin problems (80% have skin problems)
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20
Q

Anaphylaxis: ABCDE

A
  • Airway: hoarse voice, stridor
  • Breathing: increased work of breathing, wheeze, fatigue, cyanosis, SpO2 <94%
  • Circulation: hypotension, signs of shock, confusion, reduced consciousness
  • Disability: dizziness, decreased conscious level or loss of consciousness
  • Exposure: flushed, itchy, urticaria or hives, angiodema
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21
Q

Management of Anaphylaxis (in order)

A
  • Immediately call for help: resuscitation team or ambulance
  • Give IM adrenaline: inject at anterolateral aspect in the middle third of the leg
  • Establish airway
  • Give high flow oxygen (94-98%)
  • Apply monitoring: pulse oximetry, ECG, BP
  • If no response: repeat IM adrenaline after 5 mins, IV fluid bolus
  • Conservative: remove trigger is possible i.e. stop infusion, lie patient flat (with or without legs elevated), if pregnant lie on left side. If wheezy or short of breath may prefer sitting
22
Q

Adrenaline doses for different ages

A
  • Doses are only for IM adrenaline
  • Use adrenaline at 1 mg/mL (1:1000) concentration
  • Adult and child > 12 years: 500 micrograms IM (0.5 mL)
  • Child 6-12 years: 300 micrograms IM (0.3 mL)
  • Child 6 months to 6 years: 150 micrograms IM (0.15 mL)
  • Child <6 months: 100-150 micrograms IM (0.1-0.15 mL)
  • IV adrenaline is started by specialists
23
Q

IV fluid: Anaphylaxis

A
  • 10ml/kg for children
  • 500-1000ml in children
  • Consider IO route if no IV
24
Q

Anaphylaxis: antihistamine and steroids

A
  • Antihistamine: not part of emergency treatment. Can be used to treat cutaneous or mild symptoms once BP and breathing is stabilised. Use a non-sedating oral antihistamine i.e. Cetirizine. Can give IV Chlorphenamine
  • Steroids: not part of immediate emergency treatment. Only use in refractory anaphylaxis with ongoing asthma/shock or ongoing angioedema.
25
Q

Anaphylaxis: Bronchodilators

A
  • severe anaphylaxis and life-threatening asthma may present in a similar way
  • IM adrenaline is the first drug of choice and treats both
  • consider bronchodilators (e.g. nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium- if there is evidence of bronchospasm. Don’t use Bronchodilators as an alternative to further adrenaline medication
  • Refractor Anaphylaxis: anaphylaxis requiring ongoing treatment (due to persisting respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms) despite 2 appropriate doses of IM adrenaline.
26
Q

Treatment of refractory anaphylaxis

A
  • IV fluid bolus
  • Start adrenaline infusion: only started by specialists (anaesthetists with ICU input)
  • If they go into cardiac arrest: early CPR and IV adrenaline 1mg
  • Consider: adrenaline infusion, nebulised adrenaline, bronchodilators
27
Q

Anaphylaxis investigations

A
  • Shouldn’t delay treatment
  • 12-lead ECG, CXR, ABG
  • Bloods: U&E, mast cell tryptase
28
Q

Mast cell tryptase

A
  • Minimum: one sample (serum or plasma) within 2h and no later than 4h after symptom onset
  • Ideally: 3 timed symptoms. One as soon as possible, the other 1-2h (no later than 4h) after symptom onset and the final one at least 24h after complete resolution or in convalescence
29
Q

Anaphylaxis: when to discharge patients

A
  • 2 hours after symptom resolution: good response within 5-10 minutes of single adrenaline dose. Complete symptom resolution and has previously received training on Adrenaline autoinjectors. Have someone at home
  • 6 hours: 2 doses of IM adrenaline given or previous biphasic reaction (symptom recurrence).
  • 12 hours: requires >2 doses of adrenaline. Patient has severe asthma or reaction involved respiratory compromise. Allergen was slow release. Patient presents late at night or wont be able to respond to deterioration. Difficult access to emergency care
30
Q

Anaphylaxis: discharge and follow up

A
  • consider prescribing adrenaline auto-injector to all patients with anaphylaxis
  • may not be needed if drug-induced anaphylaxis and unlikely to encounter allergen again
  • specialist referral: refer all patients to an allergy clinic
  • patient education: prevention, recognition and emergency management/treatment
  • reporting: anaphylaxis registry
31
Q

Adrenaline autoinjectors

A
  • Indicated for anaphylactic reactions to an unavoidable substance or where they don’t know what they are allergic to
  • Caution in patients with cardiovascular disease (adrenaline becomes less effective, rebound hypertension) i.e. Beta Blockers
  • Patients need to carry 2 pens
  • Training required
  • Two types: Epipen, Jext
32
Q

Jext

A
  • Remove yellow cap and push into outer thigh till click is held, hold for 10s
  • Massage area for 10s
  • Call 999
  • Give second injection 5-15 minutes later
  • Can only one JEXT once
33
Q

EpiPen

A
  • Pull of blue cap push into thigh till click is heard hold for 3s
  • Epipen can only be used once
34
Q

Definitions: Urticaria and Angiodema

A
  • urticaria: superficial swelling of the skin (epidermis and mucous membranes) that results in a red, raised, itchy rash
  • angioedema: a deeper swelling within in the dermis (skin) and submucosal (mouth or upper airway) or subcutaneous tissues
  • acute: symptoms < 6 weeks
  • chronic: symptoms > 6 weeks, on a nearly daily basis
35
Q

Urticaria

A
  • AKA ‘hives’ or ‘nettle rash’
  • characterised by a red (sometimes pale centre) raised wheels. Itchy sometimes burning. A central swelling surrounded by erythema
  • can vary in size (mm- hand size)
  • main mediator = histamine (there are others) released by mast cells in the skin. Results in vasodilation, increased blood flow and increased vascular permeability
  • commonly accompanied by angioedema
  • Fleeting duration: returns to normal 30mins-24hrs
36
Q

Angiodema

A
  • tissue swelling due to a local increase in vascular permeability
  • can affect face, oropharynx, genitals, gastrointestinal tract
  • swellings not itchy, but can be painful. No rash is skin coloured
  • involves the submucosa, the deeper reticular dermis and subcutaneous tissues
  • main mediator = bradykinin
  • Slower resolution compared to wheals, can last up to 72hrs
37
Q

Urticaria prevalence

A
  • Urticaria: peak age is 20-40 with more females affected
  • Chronic urticaria: peak age is 30-40 and is more common in patients with atopy, caused significantly reduced QoL
38
Q

Types of urticaria

A
  • Chronic spontaneous urticaria (CSU): spontaneous appearance of wheels/angioedema or both for >6 weeks due to unknown causes
  • Inducible urticaria: cold urticaria, delayed pressure urticaria, solar urticaria etc
39
Q

Triggers for urticaria

A
  • idiopathic (i.e. CSU): most common
  • stress
  • infection
  • medications: NSAIDs, opiates, ACEi (angioedema only)
  • environmental: hot, cold, pressure
  • minor trauma (dermographism)
  • Exercise
  • Vibration
  • Heat
  • Thyroid dysfunction
  • Electrolyte abnormalities: B12, folate, ferritin, Vit-D
  • H.pylori infection
  • Urticarial vasculitis
40
Q

Urticaria investigations

A
  • Clinical diagnosis
  • Blood tests: FBC, U&Es, LFTs, TFTs, Vit B12, Folate, Ferritin, Vit D

–C4, C1 inhibitor (for angioedema)

–ANA, TPO/TG antibodies (for autoimmunity)

  • Provoking tests for known triggers: scratch with wooden spatula (dermographism). Ice cube, exercise, pressure, water
  • Skin prick tests (SPT) shouldn’t be used in CSU as food is not a trigger
41
Q

Urticaria prognosis

A
  • Acute urticaria: self limiting and short lived. Resolve once trigger is removed. Responds well to treatment
  • Chronic urticaria: relapsing and remitting. Majority of patients resolve within 1-5 years. 20% are symptomatic after 10 years
42
Q

Urticaria treatment (in order)

A
  1. Education and avoidance of triggers: avoid heat, stress, exercise and medications. Discontinue ACEi if angiodema
  2. Standard dose non-sedating H1 antihistamine (Cetirizine, Loratadine)
  3. Higher dose of H1-antihistamine (>4 x recommended dose or add a second antihistamine)
  4. Second line agent, anti-leukotriene (montelukast) or if angioedema present Tranexamic acid
  5. Immunomodulator: Omalizumab, cyclosporine
43
Q

Urticaria medications

A
  • 2nd generation antihistamines: Cetirizine, Loratadine, Fexofenadine. Less sedating than 1st gen (Chlorphenamine). Start with daily dose and titrate up
  • Short course of Corticosteroids i.e. prednisolone if severe symptoms
  • Leukotriene antagonists: Montelukasts. May be useful if concurrent reactivity to aspirin, NSAIDs, pressure or autoimmune based urticaria
  • Tranexamic acid: angioedema only
  • Immunosuppression: Cyclosporine
  • Anti-IgE therapy: Omalizumab
44
Q

Cyclosporine

A
  • inhibits mast cell and basophil degranulation
  • requires monitoring: blood pressure, FBC, UECs, urinalysis
  • S/E: headache, nausea, tremor, renal impairment
45
Q

Omalizumab

A
  • Monoclonal antibody against IgE also used in severe asthma
  • Used in severe CSU if >12 age and: evidence of disease severity (UAS7 score >28) and failed medical therapy i.e. antihistamine + leukotriene receptor antagonist
  • 300mg SC monthly injections
  • Side effects: injection site reactions, sinusitis, headache, arthralgia, transient worsening of urticaria (first 24-48hrs)
  • If Omalizumab doesn’t work consider Cyclosporine, Mycophenolate, Methotrexate and combination (Omalizumab + Y). ?wrong diagnosis
46
Q

Assessing severity of urticaria

A

Urticaria Activity Score (UAS7)

  • patient records severity of itching and number of wheals daily for 7 days
  • score <7: good control of disease
  • score ≥28: severe disease
47
Q

Questions to ask in venom allergy history

A
  • Clarify the timeline of symptoms following the sting
  • If he has ever been stung in the past
  • If he is certain it was a wasp/bee
  • Any systemic symptoms eg. breathing problems
  • Did he take any medication which helped or need any adrenaline
  • Does he often work outdoors
  • Does he have asthma and how well controlled is it
48
Q

Management of wasp allergy

A
  • Anaphylaxis episode: Call 999 and state anaphylaxis, Sit or lie down
  • Administer adrenaline autoinjector (2 to be carried at all times/ training to be given when prescribed)
  • Refer to allergy clinic for possible immunotherapy
  • Advise on risk reduction for future stings e.g. full protective clothing
  • Antihistamines )cetirizine 2x10mg stat) if rash / localised symptoms only after future sting
  • Prednisolone rescue pack (STAT 20mg given if moderate allergy symptoms i.e. facial swelling)
49
Q

Large local reaction to sting

A
  • No systemic symptoms
  • Large area of erythema with itchiness and swelling which resolves by itself
50
Q

Management of large local reactions

A
  • Antihistamine (cetirizine 20mg)
  • Prednisolone rescue pack (STAT 20mg dose in the event of moderate allergy symptoms eg. facial swelling)
  • Advise patient to seek urgent medical advice if experiencing systems
  • Advise on reducing risk with full cover clothing
  • Re-review in allergy clinic if she experiences a systemic reaction