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Hema-Immuno > Case 1 - Bloody > Flashcards

Case 1 - Bloody Flashcards

1
Q

The half- life of factor VIII is seen in how many hours.

a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 34 hours
d. 48 hours

A

B

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2
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the risk of dengue fever progressing to dengue hemorrhagic fever is/ are correct?

a. The reinfection with same serotype of dengue virus.
b. The presence of non- neutralizing heterologous dengue antibody.
c. It has a 10 fold higher during third infection.
d. Any of the options

A

C

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3
Q

Which of the following is most likely exemplified by an intrinsic factor for excessive RBC destruction?

a. Autoimmune reactions
b. Drug reactions
c. G6PD deficiency
d. Infections

A

A

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4
Q

Which of the following hematology tests determine the intrinsic pathway?

a. Bleeding time
b. Thrombin time
c. Prothrombin time
d. Partial thromboplastin time

A

D

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5
Q

Which of the following leukocytes is considered the “First line of defense” against bacterial pathogens?

a. Basophils
b. Eosinophils
c. Monocytes
d. Neutrophils

A

D

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6
Q

Which of the following is the main danger caused by acetaminophen overdose?

a. Cardiac failure
b. Hepatic failure
c. Renal failure
d. Any of the options

A

B

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7
Q

Which of the following about Type A or Augmented Adverse Drug Reaction (ADR) is/are true?

a. Not predictable
b. Qualitative and not dose dependent
c. Managed with drug reduction
d. Any of the options

A

C

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8
Q

What type of ADR is managed with IV Epinephrine or Hydrocortisone during medical emergency?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

A

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9
Q

Which of the following laboratory evaluation is considered the cornerstone for diagnosis of anemia?

a. Bone marrow aspiration with biopsy
b. Complete blood count
c. Hematocrit level determination
d. Red blood corpuscle indices

A

B

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10
Q

Which of the following is most likely indication of fresh frozen plasma usage?

a. Hypovolemia
b. Coagulation factor deficiency
c. Hypoalbuminemia
d. Any of the options

A

D

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11
Q

Which of the following is the rich source of cryoprecipitate?

a. Factor X
b. Factor VII
c. Factor VIII
d. Thromboplastin

A

C

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12
Q

The stored blood platelets are NOT functional after how many hours.

a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

A

B

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13
Q

According to CPG on dengue in children, the presence of the following symptom/s should be admitted.

a. Abdominal pain
b. Vomiting
c. Saddleback pattern of fever
d. Any of the options

A

D

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14
Q

Which of the following is the least likely complications after massive blood transfusion?

a. Metabolic acidosis - alkalosis
b. Citrate toxicity
c. Hypothermia
d. Hyperkalemia

A

A

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15
Q

Poikilocytosis is variation in red cell characteristics.

a. size
b. shape
c. color
d. Any of the options

A

B

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16
Q

All of the following infections may be transmitted via blood transfusion. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Parvo B19
b. CMV
c. Dengue
d. None of the options

A

D

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17
Q

Which of the following statements about erythropoiesis stimulation is correct?

a. It results in a decreased release of reticulocytes from the bone marrow.
b. It is due to an increase in tissue oxygen
c. It is due to a decrease in tissue oxygen
d. It is due to rising levels of epoetin from the
Liver.

A

C

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18
Q

Target of immune mediated mechanism in dengue fatal disease involves which of the following.

a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Bone marrow

A

B

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19
Q

What type of ADR is a Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptom (DRESS)?

a. Type Iva
b. Type IVb
c. Type IVc
d. Type IVd

A

C

20
Q

The neoplastic proliferation of which of the following cells in Multiple myeloma is.

a. Lymphocytes
b. Granulocytes
c. Plasma cells
d. Monocytes

A

C

21
Q

All the following are pathogenesis of leukocytes in peripheral blood leukocyte count. Which one is the exception?

A. The size of the myeloid and lymphoid precursor and storage cell pools in the bone marrow, thymus, circulation, and peripheral tissues.
B. The size of the myeloid and lymphoid precursor and storage cell pools in the bone marrow, thymus, and circulation.
C. The rate of release of cells from the storage pools into the circulation.
D. The proportion of cells that are adherent to blood vessel walls at any time.

A

B

22
Q

Which of the following biological fluids is/are susceptible to have a redding orange discoloration caused by rifampicin?

a. Tears
b. Sweat
c. Urine
d. AOTA

A

D

23
Q

The following are considered as superficial lymph nodes, which is the exception?

a. inguinal
b. axillary
c. retroperitoneal
d. supratrochlear
e. two of the options
f. none of the options

A

C

superficial: CASI di ka muna papasaok sa iskul - cervical, axillary, supratrochlear, inguinal
deep: mesenteric, retroperitoneal

24
Q

The following are true about the lymph nodes, except:

a. It is involved in the initiation of the specific immune response to foreign antigens
b. It filters particulate matter, debris, and bacteria
c. It is the site of lymphocyte proliferation
d. It plays a role in regulating hematopoietic stem and progenitor cell survival and differentiation

A

D

25
Q

There are three possible fates for hematopoietic stems cells, which is the exception?

a. self-renewal
b. differentiation
c. apoptosis
d. proliferation

A

D

26
Q

It is the earliest identifiable colony of RBCs

a. burst-forming unit erythroid
b. colony-forming unit-erythroid
c. pronormoblast
d. erythropoietin

A

A

burst-forming unit erythroid -> colony-forming unit-erythroid -> pronormoblast -> basophilic normoblast -> polychromatic normoblast -> orthochromatic normoblast -> reticulocyte -> erythrocyte

***pronormoblast: earliest visually recognizable erythrocyte precursor in bone marrow

27
Q

The following are true about Primary Hemostasis, except:

a. It is activated by large injuries to blood vessels and surrounding tissues
b. Involves vascular intima and platelets
c. It is a rapid, short-lived response
d. Blood vessels contract to seal the wound or reduce blood flow

A

A

28
Q

It is a major area structure of platelet which contains residual endoplasmic reticulum and golgi apparatus

a. Sol-gel zone
b. Peripheral zone
c. Submembrane
d. Organelle zone

A

D; also contains prostaglandins and other hormones that promote local vasoconstriction, growth factor, mitochondria, lysosomes, and alpha and dense granules

Sol-gel zone - contains microfilaments (actin and myosin) that contract the platelet and makes it change its shape, thrombosthenin
Peripheral zone - outer layer containing glycoproteins that prevents adherence to normal endothelial cells
Submembrane - prevents platelet organelles from going past the membrane

29
Q

It is a function of platelet wherein bridges are formed by fibrinogen in the presence of calcium and produces sticky surface

a. Adhesion
b. Activation
c. Aggregation
d. None of the options

A

C

30
Q

It is the ultimate substrate of coagulation pathway

a. Fibrinogen
b. Thrombin
c. Tissue factor
d. Ionic calcium

A 
A
***customarily identified by name rather than Roman numeral
F1br1nogen - Factor 1
2rombin - Factor II
Ti33ue factor - Factor III
Ionic calcIVm - Factor IV
31
Q

What intimal cell synthesizes and stores von Willebrand factor? (vWF)

a. smooth muscle cell
b. endothelial cell
c. fibroblast
d. platelet

A

B

32
Q

What subendothelial structural protein triggers coagulation through activation of factor VII?

a. thrombomodulin
b. nitric oxide
c. tissue factor
d. thrombin

A

C

33
Q

What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly?

a. factor VIII
b. fibrinogen
c. thrombin
d. factor X

A

B

34
Q

What is the primary role of vitamin K for the prothrombin group factors?

a. Provides a surface on which the proteolytic reactions of the factors occur
b. Protects them from inappropriate activation by compounds such as thrombin
c. Accelerates the binding of the serine proteases and their cofactors
d. Carboxylates the factors to allow calcium binding

A

D

35
Q

What serine protease forms a complex with factor VIIIa, and what is the substrate of this complex?

a. Factor VIIa, factor X
b. Factor Va, prothrombin
c. Factor Xa, prothrombin
d. Factor IXa, factor X

A

D

36
Q

What protein secreted by endothelial cells activates fibrinolysis?

a. Plasminogen
b. TPA
c. PAI-1
d. TAFI

A

B

37
Q

What two regulatory proteins form a complex that digests activated factors V and VIII?

a. TFPI and Xa
b. Antithrombin and protein C
c. APC and protein S
d. Thrombomodulin and plasmin

A

C

38
Q

What are the primary roles of VWF?

a. Inhibit excess coagulation and activate protein C
b. Activate plasmin and promote lysis of fibrinogen
c. Mediate platelet adhesion and serve as a carrier molecule for factor VIII
d. Mediate platelet aggregation via the GP IIb/IIIa receptor

A

C

39
Q

Most coagulation factors are synthesized in:

a. The liver
b. Monocytes
c. Endothelial cells
d. Megakaryocytes

A

A

40
Q

The events involved in secondary hemostasis:

a. Lead to the formation of a stable fibrin clot
b. Usually occur independently of primary hemostasis
c. Occur in a random fashion
d. Are the first line of defense against blood loss

A

A

41
Q

Which of the following coagulation factors is activated by thrombin and mediates the stabilization of the fibrin clot?

a. Tissue factor
b. FactorVII
c. Factor IX
d. Factor XIII

A

D

42
Q

Which of the following endogenous plasma inhibitors is (are) important for the control of excessive thrombin generation?

a. AT,TFPI
b. Platelet factor 4
c. TAT,F1.2
d. a and b

A

A

43
Q

It is a transglutaminase protein

a. Factor VIII
b. Factor VII
c. Factor XIII
d. Factor XII

A

C

44
Q

Assesses the factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VII, and X as well as the adequacy of the EXTRINSIC AND COMMON PATHWAY in the clotting mechanism

a. Bleeding time
b. Clotting time
c. Prothrombin time
d. International Normalized Ratio
e. Partial Thromboplastin time
f. Activated Partial Thromboplastin time
g. two of the options

A

C

45
Q

Used to assess the INTRINSIC AND COMMON PATHWAY of clot formation, evaluates factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII, HMWK, PK and to monitor heparin therapy

a. Bleeding time
b. Clotting time
c. Prothrombin time
d. International Normalized Ratio
e. Partial Thromboplastin time
f. Activated Partial Thromboplastin time
g. two of the options

A

G

PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME
Normal: 60-70 seconds
Critical values: >100 seconds

ACTIVATED PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME
Normal: 30-40 seconds
Critical values: >70 seconds

46
Q

It is used to assess stable anticoagulation, it is commonly used in the evaluation of patients with liver disease

a. Bleeding time
b. Clotting time
c. Prothrombin time
d. International Normalized Ratio
e. Partial Thromboplastin time
f. Activated Partial Thromboplastin time
g. two of the options

A

D

Normal: 0.8-1.1
Critical values: >5

Hema-Immuno (3 decks)

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