Care of the elderly Flashcards

1
Q

What increases the susceptibility of acquiring C. difficile?

A
  1. Antibiotic related: Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin), cephalosporins (cefotaxime), penicillin and clindamycin
  2. In contact with another person who has C. diff
  3. PPIs
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2
Q

How is C. diff spread?

A

In bacterial spores within faeces

prevented by handwashing, room sterilisation, limited antibiotic use

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3
Q

What are the symptoms of a C. diff infection?

A

Watery diarrhoea
Fever
Nausea
Abdominal pain

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4
Q

How is c. diff diagnosed?

A

Blood culture: C diff toxin positive

Stool culture: c diff toxin positive

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5
Q

What is the management of C. diff?

A
  1. Stop offending antibiotics.
  2. infection control
  3. oral metronidazole
  4. if severe - vancomycin
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6
Q

What are some of the complications of c. diff

A
dehydration
pseudomembranous colitis
toxic megacolon
perforation of the colon
sepsis
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7
Q

How can c. diff be prevented?

A
  1. prevent cross infection

2. reducing antibiotic misuse

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8
Q

How likely is an elderly person going to fall within one year of having a fall?

A

66%

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9
Q

What are the risk factors for falling?

A
  1. Age >80
  2. Low weight
  3. Dependent on others for ADLs
  4. Previous fall (in the last 12 months)
  5. Fear of falling
  6. Balance problems
  7. Gait and motility problems ie parkisons
  8. Pain
  9. Drugs ie polypharmacy, antihypertensives
  10. Cardiovascular conditions
  11. Cognitive impairment
  12. Urinary incontinence (rushing to the toilet)
  13. Stroke
  14. Diabetes
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10
Q

What increases the risk of injury from falling?

A
  1. Weak bones (osteoporosis, osteomalacia, paget’s diseaese, bone mets)
  2. predisposition to falls
  3. poor self protection (lack of subcutaneous fat, loss of consciousness, neuropathy)
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11
Q

What questions should be asked when a patient presents with a fall?

A
  1. Is it an isolated event? is there a pattern to the falls?
  2. What causes the fall?
  3. What was the patient doing at the time?
  4. Was there a loss of consciousness?
  5. Was there any warning signs before the fall?
  6. What was there post-fall state like?
  7. Collateral history
  8. When was their last eyesight and optician review?
  9. Ask about past medical history
  10. Polypharmacy and drugs?
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12
Q

What examinations should be done in a person who has fallen?

A
Vital signs (postural hypotension)
Cardiac examination
Neurological examination
Systemic examination
Mini-mental state examination
Blood glucose
Visual impairment assessment
'Timed up and go test'
'Turn 180 degree test'
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13
Q

What is the management of a fall?

A
Treat any injuries
Treat underlying causes
Medication review
Physiotherapy review
OT review
Optician review
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14
Q

How can falls be prevented?

A
  1. Group and home based exercise programmes
  2. Home safety interventions
  3. T’ai chi
  4. Risk assessment of environmental factors
  5. Treating underlying medical condition
  6. Alcohol reduction
  7. Vitamin D for ‘weak bones’
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15
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A progressive systemic skeletal disease characterised by reduced bone mass and micro-architectural deterioration of bone tissue

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16
Q

What is an osteoporotic fracture?

A

Fractures resulting from mechanical forces that wouldn’t ordinarily result in fracture

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17
Q

What does a T score of below -2.5 SD from normal indicate?

A

Osteoporosis

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18
Q

What is the epidemiology of osteoporosis?

A

Women are more likely to get it than men

Age related disease (bone mass declines with age, and is accelerated when women hit menopause)

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19
Q

What are the risk factors for fragility fractures?

A
REDUCED BMD
Increasing age
Female sex
Low body mass (<19kg/m2)
Parental history of a hip fracture
Parental history of fragility fracture
Corcticosteroid therapy
Cushing’s syndrome
Alcohol (>3 units a day)
Smoking
If increased risk of falling due to medical conditions
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20
Q

What are some of the secondary causes of osteoporosis (medical conditions)

A

Rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory arthropathies.
Prolonged immobilisation or a very sedentary lifestyle.
Primary hypogonadism (men and women).
Primary hyperparathyroidism.
Hyperthyroidism.
Post-transplantation.
Chronic kidney disease.
Gastrointestinal disease such as Crohn’s disease, ulcerative colitis and coeliac disease.
Untreated premature menopause (<45 years) or prolonged secondary amenorrhoea.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Chronic liver disease
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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21
Q

What is the presentation of osteoporosis?

A

Asymptomatic until patient has a fall resulting in a fragility fracture
Fractures are commonly at the spine, hi[ and wrist

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22
Q

What are the investigations for osteoporosis?

A

Xray
DEXA scan
Bloods (FBC, ESR, CRP, U&E, LFTS, TFTS, hormones, serum immunoglobulins and urinary bence Jones’ proteins)

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23
Q

What is the management of osteoporosis?

A
  1. Lifestyle advice
  2. Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake
  3. Bisphosphonates
  4. Denosumab
  5. Treatment of fractures
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24
Q

What is incontinence and what are the different types?

A
  • An involuntary leakage of urine
    1. Functional
    2. Stress
    3. Urge
    4. Mixed
    5. Overflow
    6. True incontinence
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25
Q

What are the characteristics of functional incontinence?

A
  • patient is unable to reach the toilet in time
  • usually have poor mobility
  • can be unfamiliar to surroundings
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26
Q

What are the characteristics of stress incontinence?

A
  • Involuntary leakage during effort or exertion, coughing or sneezing.
  • Due to an incompetent sphincter
  • Can be associated with a genitourinary prolapse
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27
Q

What are the characteristics of urge incontinence?

A
  • Involuntary urinary leakage accompanied by, or immediately preceded by urgency of micturition
  • Detrusor instability or hyperreflexia = involuntary detrusor contraction
  • Can be idiopathic or secondary to neuro problems
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28
Q

What are the characteristics of mixed incontinence?

A

Involuntary leakage or urine associated with urgency and exertion, effort, coughing or sneezing

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29
Q

What is the characteristics of overflow incontinence?

A

-Chronic bladder outflow obstruction. Often seen in prostatic disease in older men. Can lead to obstructive nephropathy

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30
Q

What is true incontinence?

A

Fistulous track between vagina and ureter or bladder or urethra causing continuous leakage or urine

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31
Q

What is the epidemiology of incontinence?

A

Prevalence increases with age

32
Q

What are the risk factors for incontinence?

A

Women: pregnancy and vaginal delivery, Diabetes mellitus, high BMI, hysterectomy, UTIs, oral oestrogen therapy
Men: LUTS, infections, functional and cognitive impairment, euro disorders
Prostatectomy

33
Q

What is the management for incontinence?

A
  • Temporary containment pads
  • pelvic floor exercises
  • Stress: duloxetine or surgery
  • Mixed: antimuscarinics (oxybutynin)
  • intermittent self-catherterisation
  • bladder training
  • Botulinum toxin type A for neuro conditions
  • urostomy
34
Q

What are some neurological conditions that can result in incontinence?

A
  1. Stroke
  2. Parkinsons
  3. Multiple sclerosis
  4. Dementia
  5. Spinal cord injury
35
Q

What is parkinsons?

A

Neurodegenerative disease

-decrease in dopamine due to depletion of the substantia nigra

36
Q

What are the parkinsonian cardinal features?

A
  • rigidity of movement
  • hypertonia (resting tremor)
  • bradykinesia
  • postural instability
37
Q

What is the aetiology of parkinsons?

A

UNKNOWN

  • ?genetic factors
  • ?synthetic opioid impurity
  • ?pesticide exposure
38
Q

What is found histiologically in Parkinsons?

A

Lewy bodies in the substantia nigra

39
Q

What is the epidemiology of parkinsons?

A

Typically develops between 55-65

slightly more common in men

40
Q

What are the clinical features of parkinsons?

A
  • resting tremor - pill rolling of thumb and fingers, improved by voluntary movement
  • rigidity - leadpipe/cogwheel rigidity
  • bradykinesia - slowness of voluntary movement, difficulty initiating movement, monotonous speech, shuffling gait

-sleep disturbances, shuffling gait, reduced arm swing, depression and associated with lewy body dementia

41
Q

What investigations are done in parkinsons?

A
  1. Clinical

2. Exclude other causes for parkinsonism ie CT for head injury, multi infarct dementia, medication review

42
Q

Pharmacological management of parkinsons

A
  1. Levodopa with carbidopa
  2. Dopamine agonists (ropinirole)
  3. Catecholamine-O-Methyltransferase inhibitors (Entacapone)
  4. Monoamine-oxidase B inhibitors (Selegiline)
  5. Anti-cholinergic (Benztropine)
43
Q

What’s the non-pharmacolgoical management of parkinsons?

A
  1. Physiotherapy
  2. Occupational therapy
  3. SALT
  4. Deep brain stimulation
44
Q

What is drug induced parkinsonism and how is it treated?

A

Antipsychotics and antihypertensives are known to block dopaine receptors
When the drug is stopped, the symptoms stop

45
Q

What is parkinsonian dementia?

A
  • dementia with lewy bodies
  • visual hallucinations, falls and memory loss
  • changes in executive functioning ie planning the day, anticipating events, understanding jokes
46
Q

What is a stroke?

A
  • A clinical syndrome caused by a disruption of bloody supply to the brain causing a focal or global disturbance to cerebral functions
  • > 24 hours
47
Q

What are the 2 types of stroke?

A
  1. Ischaemic infarction (85%)

2. Haemorrhage (15%)

48
Q

What are ischaemic infarctions caused by?

A
  1. thromboembolisms
  2. atheromas
  3. trauma
  4. infection
  5. malignancy
49
Q

What are haemorrhagic stroke classical features?

A
  1. meningism
  2. severe headache
  3. coma within a few hours
50
Q

What’s the aetiology of stroke?

A
  1. thrombosis in situ
  2. atherothrombolism
  3. heart emboli
  4. cns bleed (aneurysm rupture)
  5. vasculitis
  6. space occupying lesion
  7. venous sinus thrombosis
51
Q

What’s the epidemiology of a stroke?

A

->65 years old

52
Q

What are the risk factors for stroke?

A
  1. hypertension
  2. smoking
  3. diabetes mellitus
  4. heart disease (valvular, ischaemic, af)
  5. peripheral artery disease
  6. post-tia
  7. carotid artery occlusion
  8. combined oral contraceptive pill
  9. hyperlipidaemia
  10. excess alcohol
  11. clotting disorders
53
Q

What’s the presentation of stroke?

A

SUDDEN ONSET

  • cerebral hemisphere infarcts: contralateral hemiplegia, contralateral hemiplegia, homonymous hemianopia, dysphasia
  • posterior circulation ischameia: ataxia, motor defecits and weakness, crossed syndrome, sensory defecit, diplopia, dysphagia, locked in syndrome
54
Q

What are the investigations for a stroke?

A

CT SCAN: excludes haemorrhagic stroke for thrombolysis

BLOODS: FBC, ESR, hypoglycaemia, syphillis screen

55
Q

Management of ischaemic stroke

A

aspirin 300mg
thrombolysis (once haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded as cause)
-long term antiplatelet therapy
-carotid endarectomy

56
Q

Management of heamorrhagic stroke

A

surgery

57
Q

What’s the MDT approach to treating a stroke?

A
  1. physio
  2. occupational therapy
  3. TREATMENT OF RISK FACTORS
58
Q

What’s the ABCD2 score?

A

to determine the likelihood of having a stroke after having a TIA

  • Age >60
  • Blood pressure >140/90mmHg
  • Clinical features (unilateral weakness, or speech disturbance without weakness)
  • Duration of symptoms (>60 mins+ or 10-59mins)
  • Diabetes
59
Q

What is a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Spontaneous arterial bleeding into the subarachnoid space

Caused by a rupture of ‘berry aneurysms’ or congenital arteriovenous malformations

60
Q

What are the clinical features of a SAH?

A
  • Sudden onset of severe (thunderclap headache)
  • Absence of similar headaches in the past
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Sometimes loss of consciousness
  • meningeal irritation
  • focal neurological signs
  • papilloedema
61
Q

What are the investigations for a SAH?

A

CT head
lumbar puncture
MR angiography (establishes fitness for surgery)

62
Q

What’s the management for SAH?

A
  1. bed rest
  2. supportive measures
  3. nimodopine (reduces artery spasming)
  4. surgery
63
Q

What is a subdural haematoma?

A
  • an accumulation of blood in the subdural space

- usually caused by a rupture of bridging veins in the sagital sinus

64
Q

Who are most at risk of having a subdural?

A

elderly or alcoholics

  • due to atrophied brains
  • increased likelihood to fall
65
Q

what are the clinical symptoms of a subdural?

A

headache
drowsiness
fluctuating confusion
LATENT INTERVAL BETWEEN INJURY AND SYMPTOMS

66
Q

How are subdurals diagnosed?

A

ct head

67
Q

What is the management of a subdural?

A

surgical removal of the haematoma

68
Q

What is an extradural haematoma?

A

-injuries that fracture the temporal bone and rupture the middle meningeal artery

69
Q

what is the typical presentation of an extradural haematoma?

A
  • history of head injury with brief loss of consiousness
  • followed by lucid interval
  • rapid deterioration with focal neurological sigsn
70
Q

What’s the treatment for an extradural haematoma?

A

surgical drainage

71
Q

What are pressure ulcers?

A

localised damage to the skin and/or underlying tissue that usually occur over a bony prominence resulting from pressure

72
Q

What causes pressure ulcers?

A
  • external pressure causes obstruction of the blood capillaries
  • friction damages the superficial vessles
  • shearing (separation of the skin from underlying tissues due to opposing forces)
  • moisture
73
Q

Where are common sites for pressure sores?

A

sacrum
coccyx
heels
hips

74
Q

What are risk factors for pressure sores?

A
  • immobile
  • microclimates
  • malnutrition
  • low bmi
  • arteriosclerosis
  • neuropathies
  • age >70
  • dry skin
  • malignancy
75
Q

What are the stages of severity of pressure sores?

A

-Stage 1: intact skin, non-blanchable redness
-Stage 2: partial thickness loss of dermis: Shallow open ulcer with red pink wound bed
-Stage 3: full thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat may be visible
-Stage 4: full thickness tissue loss, with exposed bone, tendon, muscle. Slough may be present.
Deep tissue injury - A purple or maroon localized area of discolored intact skin or blood-filled blister due to damage of underlying soft tissue

76
Q

What is the treatment for pressure sores?

A
  • debridement
  • dressings
  • smoking cessation
  • treatment of medical conditions which can slow down healing process ie infection
77
Q

How can pressure sores be prevented?

A
  • regular movement of the pt
  • balanced diet with adequate protein and vit c
  • support surfaces ie pressure sore mattresses