Cardiovascular System Flashcards
Questions from the BNF chapter on the CV system
Which is NOT included in the CHADSVAS score?
- Hypertension
- Renal Impairment
- Aged 65-74
- Diabetes
Renal Impairment
Which would score 2 POINTS when calculating the CHADSVAS score?
- Female gender
- Age 65-74
- Previous stroke/TIA/thromboembolism
- Existing vascular disease including MI/atherosclerosis/peripheral disease
Previous stroke/TIA/thromboembolism
The other risks would score one point each
What does the CHADSVASC score measure?
Stroke + thromboembolism risk in AF
When would you use the CHADSVASC score?
To assess risk of stroke and thromboembolism in AF
What is ‘rate control’ in AF?
Where the heart remains in AF but the ventricular heart rate is reduced
What is ‘rhythm control’ in AF?
Where the heart is converted back to sinus rhythm either through electrical or pharmacological cardioversion
What should be used for 1st line rate control in AF?
Beta-blockers or rate limiting CCBs
Which drug should not be used in rate control of AF?
- Digoxin
- Verapamil
- Amiodarone
- Propranolol
Amiodarone
When is ‘pill in the pocket’ used?
Paroxsymal AF
Which drug is the ‘pill in the pocket’ for paroxsymal AF?
Flecainide 300mg or Propafenone 600mg
Which antiarrythmic class is flecainide?
Class Ic
What score in CHADSVAS means that stroke prevention is indicated?
1 or more for men
2 or more for women
Which is NOT included in the HAS-BLED score?
- abnormal liver function
- age >65
- harmful alcohol consumption
- hypotension
Hypotension
uncontrolled hypertension is
‘Anticoagulation should not be withheld solely because of risk of falls’
True or False
True
Which is included in the HAS-BLED score?
- labile INR
- use of anti-epileptic drugs
- risk of falls
- abnormal thyroid function
Labile INR
Poorly controlled INR, less than 60% time in range
‘Hypokalaemia can induce long QT syndrome’
True or false?
True
‘Verapamil is a positive inotrope’
True or false?
False - it is a negative inotrope
‘Anti-arrythmics can never cause arrythmias’
True or false?
False - in some circumstances anti-arrythmics can provoke arrythmias
Which calcium channel blocker is licensed for atrial fibrillation?
- Verapamil
- Amlodipine
- Diltiazem
Verapamil
Diltiazem can be used but this is an unlicensed treatment
Why should digoxin only be started in sedentary patients?
It is only effective at controlling the ventricular rate at rest
What is the aim of rate control in AF?
Reduce the ventricular rate to <100
Which is a common side effect of verapamil?
- constipation
- vomiting
- hallucinations
- anorexia
Constipation
When should diltiazem be prescribed by brand?
- All MR preparations
- In elderly patients
- MR preparations containing over 60mg
- Always
MR preparations containing over 60mg.
Different versions of MR preps containing over 60mg may not have the same clinical effect
Which statement is FALSE?
- Sotalol can prolong the QT interval
- Sotalol is a selective beta blocker
- Sotalol is contra-indicated in asthma
- Sotalol can cause life threatening ventricular arrythmias, particularly in hypokalaemia
Sotalol is a selective beta blocker
It is non-selective
Name a class II anti-arrythmic
Class II = Beta blockade
propranolol, esmolol, sotalol
Name a class III anti-arrythmic
Class III = K+ channel blockade amiodarone, sotalol (also class II)
Name a class IV anti-arrythmic
Class IV = calcium channel blockade
diltiazem, verapamil
Name a class Ic (strong) anti-arrythmic
flecainide, propafenone
Name a class Ia (moderate) anti-arrythmic
quinidine
Name a class Ib (weak) anti-arrythmic
lidocaine
How do class I anti-arrythmics work?
Membrane stabilising drugs
Work via sodium channel blockade
What is the major interaction between verapamil and beta-blockers?
Cardiac depressant effects
Risk of asystole, bradycardia and sinus arrest
Which CCB can never be given with beta-blockers
Verapamil - risk of cardiac depression
How does digoxin work?
Cardiac glycoside
Increases force of myocardial contraction and reduces conductivity in the AV node
What is xanthopsia?
Colour vision deficiency - a ‘yellowing’ of vison
Caused by digoxin toxicity
Which drug can cause a yellowing of vision?
Digoxin - causes xanthopsia
Sign of digoxin toxicity
Which of these is not a sign of digoxin toxicity?
- blurred vision / visual disturbances
- vomiting
- syncope
- abdominal pain
Syncope - although fatigue and delirium are common signs
‘Digoxin is mainly hepatically cleared’
True or False?
False - it is largely eliminated renally
Which of these can contribute to digoxin toxicity?
- Hypernatraemia
- Dehydration
- Hypokalamia
- Liver disease
Hypokalaemia can contribute to digoxin toxicity
Which of these would not be involved in causing digoxin toxicity?
- AKI
- Hypokalaemia
- Use of vitamin D supplements
- Hypertension
Hypertension
Name the four DOACs
Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Edoxaban
Dabigatran
Which is not an indication for an anticoagulant?
- PE
- DVT
- AF
- HTN
HTN
What is the most common side effect of anticoagulants
Bleeding/ haemorrhage
What colour is a 1mg warfarin tablet?
Brown
What colour is a 3mg warfarin tablet?
Blue
What colour is a 5mg warfarin tablet?
Pink
What colour is a 500mcg warfarin tablet and why is this not usually stocked?
White
Easily confused with other tablets
What is the maximum amount of time that a patient on warfarin can go without having their INR checked?
12 weeks
How long does it take for the anticoagulant effect of warfarin to develop?
48 to 72 hours
What can be given to reverse the effects of warfarin?
Vitamin K (phytomenadione)
In which circumstance would you advise to stop warfarin and give vitamin K by a slow IV injection?
- INR >8, no bleeding
- INR 6, minor bleeding
- INR 5, no bleeding
- INR 2, minor bleeding
INR 6 and minor bleeding
For unexpected bleeding at therapeutic levels you should always investigate the possibilty of underlying causes
In which circumstance would you advise to stop warfarin and give vitamin K injection orally?
- INR >8, no bleeding
- INR 6, minor bleeding
- INR 5, no bleeding
- INR 2, minor bleeding
INR >8 no bleeding
unlicensed use of vitamin K injection
restart warfarin when INR <5
Which drugs interact with digoxin?
- alfacalcidol
- ramipril
- amoxicillin
- prednisolone
- salbutamol
Alfacalcidol - increased risk of digoxin toxicity. Manufacturer advises monitor.
Prednisolone - increased risk of digoxin toxicity. Manufacturer advises caution.
Salbutamol - increased risk of digoxin toxicity. Manufacturer advises caution.
‘There is an interaction between macrolides and digoxin’
True or false?
True - macrolides can cause a 2x to 4x increase in digoxin concentration, advised to monitor digoxin levels
‘Hypokalaemia contributes to digoxin toxicity’
True or False
TRUE - monitor for K+ depleting diuretics as this can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity
Which anti-arrythmic class is amiodarone in?
Class III
K+ channel blockade
Which system is NOT affected by amiodarone?
- Skin
- Renal
- Thyroid
- Respiratory
Renal
‘Amiodarone has a short half life’
True or false?
False
Amiodarone has a long half life and takes several weeks to reach steady state. Because of this, drug interactions can still occur several weeks after treatment cessation
What colour can amiodarone potentially cause skin to become?
Slate-grey
Which drug can cause patients to become dazzled by headlights at night?
Amiodarone
What effect can amiodarone have on the eyes?
Causes corneal microdeposits which can cause patient to be dazzled
Reversible on withdrawal of treatment
How does amiodarone affect the thyroid and what is the reason for this?
Can cause disorders in thyroid function - both hyper and hypo.
Because amiodarone contains iodine.
Hyperthyroidism can be permanent and fatal
What monitoring should a patient prescribed amiodarone have?
Thyroid function tests at beginning of treatment and every 6 months
Chest x-ray prior to treatment + should be told to report any new/progressive SOB
Liver function tests at beginning of treatment and every 6 months
Which drug does NOT interact with amiodarone
- warfarin
- simvastatin
- lithium
- ramipril
- bisoprolol
RAMIPRIL
warfarin - inhibited metabolism, increase in anticoagulant effect
simvastatin - increased risk of myopathy
lithium - increased risk of arrythmias
bisoprolol- increased risk of cardiovascular side effects
Why should amiodarone NEVER be given with sofosbuvir/ hep C treatments
Risk of severe bradycardia and heart block
MHRA warning
‘Warfarin is teratogenic’
True or false?
True - risk of congenital malformations in first trimester
Which vitamin K antagonist can rarely cause calciphylaxis?
Warfarin
- more common in patients with renal disease
- patients should report any painful skin rash
What is the interaction between St John’s Wort and warfarin?
St John’s wort decreases the INR/anticoagulant effect
What is the interaction between fluconazole and warfarin?
Fluconazole raises the INR/ increases anticoagulant effect
What is the target concentration/therapeutic range for serum digoxin?
1 - 2 mcg/L
Toxicity can occur >2.0 mcg/L
What is the approx time for dioxin to reach steady state?
7 days
When should a digoxin level be taken?
Pre-dose or 6 - 8 hours post dose
Name two non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
Verapamil + diltiazem
What are the advantages of beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?
Less coldness to the extremities and bradycardia
can stimulate as well as block adrenergic receptors
Which beta blockers have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?
Celiprolol
Oxprenolol
Pindolol
How do beta blockers work?
Block beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas and liver
They slow the heart rate and depress the myocardium
What are the four most water soluble beta blockers?
Sotalol Nadolol Atenolol Celiprolol (SNACK without the K)
What are the advantages of water soluble beta blockers?
They are less likely to enter the brain and therefore are less likely to cause side effects such as sleep disturbance and nightmares
How are water soluble beta blockers excreted?
Via the kidneys
May need dose reductions in renal impairment
‘Most beta blockers have a short duration of action’
True or False?
True - they may need to be taken 2 - 3 times per day
Name 4 beta blockers that can be given once daily due to an intrinsically longer duration of action
Atenolol Bisoprolol Celiprolol Nadolol (ABCN)
Why should beta-blockers be avoided in asthma?
Beta blockers can precipitate bronchospasm
Name the cardioselective beta blockers
Atenolol Bisoprolol Metoprolol Nebivolol Acebutolol
What does the term ‘cardioselective beta blocker’ mean?
These beta blockers have less of an effect on the B2 (bronchial) receptors.
They can have a lesser effect on airways resistance and should be used in patients with a history of asthma or COPD.
Which is NOT a side effect of beta blockers?
- Dry Eyes
- Hyperkalaemia
- Cold extremities
- Syncope
- Fatigue
Syncope
In which condition would a beta-blocker be CONTRAINDICATED?
- Diabetes
- Psoriasis
- Second degree heart block
- COPD
- Myasthenia gravis
Second degree heart block
Beta-blockers are cautioned in the other listed conditions
Why are beta-blockers cautioned in diabetes?
- They can affect carbohydrate metabolism, causing hyper or hypoglycaemia
- They can also mask symptoms of hypos such as tachycardia by interfering with metabolic and autonomic responses
‘Abrupt withdrawal of beta-blockers should be avoided’
True or False?
True
Esp in ischaemic disease as can cause worsening of myocardial ischaemia
‘Propranolol can be used for anxiety and prophylaxis od migraine’
True or False?
True
What serious side effect can occur when beta-blockers are given IV?
Excessive bradycardia
Symptoms = dizziness, light headedness and syncope
Can be treated with IV atropine
‘Labetalol is a selective beta blocker’
True or False?
False - it is a non-selective alpha and beta blocking drug
Can labetalol be used in hepatic impairment?
NO - avoid.
Risk of liver damage
What monitoring is required for patients taking labetalol?
Patients should be monitored for signs of liver damage.
There is a risk of severe hepatocellular damage
LFTs required after first sign of liver dysfunction and stop treatment if there is evidence of any liver damage or jaundice
‘Liver damage only occurs in patinets who take labetalol long term’
True or False?
False - there is risk of liver damage in short term and long term treatment
Can sotalol affect the QT interval?
Yes.
Sotalol can prolong the QT interval and cause life-threatening ventricular arrythmias
What monitoring is required for a patient taking sotalol?
ECG and monitor QT interval
Monitor electrolytes and AVOID/CORRECT hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia or any other disturbances
Name the 2 non-dihydropyridine CCBs
Verapamil and diltiazem
What is the most common side effect of verapamil?
Constipation
Name some dihydropyridine CCBs
Amlodipine, felodipine, nifedipine, lercanidipine, nicardipine
How do dihydropyridine CCBs work?
Relax vascular smooth muscle and dilate coronary and peripheral arteries
‘Dihydropyridine CCBs have anti-arrythmic activity’
True or False?
False
Which dihydropyridine CCBs have a long duration of action and can be given once daily?
Amlodipine + felodipine
‘Side effects of dihydropyridine CCBs are mainly to do with vasodilation’
True or False?
True
Flushing, headache and ankle swelling are common
Can calcium channel blockers cause ankle swelling?
Yes
What would IV Nicardipine be used to treat?
Acute life-threatening hypertension
How do dihydropyridine CCBs work?
- Interfere with inward displacement of calcium ions through slow channels of active cell membranes
- Influence myocardial cells, cells in the conducting system of the heart and vascular smooth muscle cells
- Can reduce myocardial contractility, depress electrical impulses and diminish vascular tone
Dihydropyridine CCBs rarely precipitate heart failure, why is this?
Because the negative inotropic effect (depression of electrical impulses) is offset but reduction in left ventricular work
Which is NOT a sign of calcium channel blocker overdose?
- Hyperglycaemia
- Coma
- Confusion
- Angioedema
- Agitation
Angioedema
‘All preparations of nifedipine must be prescribed by brand’
True or False?
False - only MR preps should be prescribed by brand
Which brands of Nifedipine must be avoided in oesophageal/GI obstruction, hepatic impairment + IBD?
Adalat LA and Valni XL
What is normal blood pressure?
120/80
What is classed as ‘stage 1’ hypertension
BP >140/90 clinic or >135/85 home/ambulatory
‘Verapamil and diltiazem must be avoided in heart failure’
True or False?
True - can cause depression of cardiac function and clinical deterioration
Which patient would NOT be treated for stage 1 hypertension?
- 52 y/o with angina and BP 150/91
- 48 y/o with CKD stage 3 and BP 141/96
- 79 y/o with no co-morbidities and BP 145/87
- 66 y/o with T2DM and BP 140/90
- 79 y/o with no co-morbidities and BP 145/87
Patient has hypertension but is <80 with no risk factors
What is classed as stage 2 hypertension?
BP >160/100 clinic or 150/95 at home
Which patients with stage 2 hypertension would receive treatment with anti-hypertensives?
Every patient with stage 2 hypertension would recieve treatment
What would be the target blood pressure for a 91 year old patient receiving anti-hypertensives?
<150/90 clinic or <145/85 home
For all patients over 80
What would be target blood pressure for a 49 year old patient receiving anti-hypertensives?
<140/90 clinic or <135/85 home
For patients under 80 with no co-morbidities
What is the target blood pressure for patients receiving anti-hypertensives with cardiovascular disease or diabetes with eye, kidney or CVD?
<130/80
When using a stepwise approach to hypertension, how long should be left between steps to determine response?
4 weeks
What is the stepwise approach for hypertension for patients under 55?
- ACEi/ARB (if not tolerated give beta-blocker)
- Add CCB
- Add thiazide-like diuretic
- Add low dose spironolactone or alpha/beta blocker if diuretics not tolerated
What is the stepwise approach for hypertension for patients over 55 or with African or Carribean family origin?
- CCB (if not tolerated/HF give thiazide-like diuretic)
- Add ACEi/ARB
- Add thiazide-like diuretic
- Add low dose spironolactone or alpha/beta blocker if diuretics not tolerated
ACEi or ARB?
Which is preferred in patients of African/Carribean heritage?
ARB
Should aspirin be prescribed for patients with uncontrolled hypertension?
No, only for secondary prevention in cardiovascular disease
What causes a dry cough with ACEi?
Build up of braydkinin
Which is not a side effect of ACEi?
- Taste disturbances
- Angioedema
- Profound hypotension
- Agitation
- Pancreatitis
Agitation
What monitoring is required for patients receiving ACEi?
Renal function and electrolytes should be monitored before treatment, before dose adjustments and during treatment
‘ACEi can have hepatic effects’
True or False?
True - there is a risk of choleostatic jaundice, hepatitis and hepatic failure.
Treatment should be discontinued if there is a marked elevation of hepatic enzymes or evidence of jaundice
Why should an ACEi and ARB not be used together?
There is an increased risk of hypotension, hyperkalaemia and renal impairment
Which is not a side effect of ARBs?
- Angioedema (w delayed onset)
- Hyperkalaemia
- Dry cough
- Symptomatic hypotension
Dry cough
Name some ARBs
Candesartan, Losartan, Irbesartan, Valsartan, Telmisartan
What is diuresis?
Increased or excessive urine
How do thiazide + related diuretics work?
Inhibit sodium re-absorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule
How quickly do thiazide + related diuretics work?
Act within 1-2 hours of administration
How long is the duration of action thiazide + related diuretics?
12 - 24 hours
What time of day should thiazide + related diuretics be administered?
Early so diuresis does not interrupt sleep
‘Thiazide + related diuretics are generally ineffective if eGFR <30’
True or False?
True - except metolazone
Why are low-dose thiazide + related diuretics recommended for the treatment of hypertension?
Lower doses produce maximal BP-lowering effects with less biochemical disturbance
Lower doses - vasodilation more prominent than diuresis
Which types of diuretics can cause hypokalaemia?
Thiazide + related diuretics and loop
Which thiazide + related diuretic has a long duration of action?
Chlortalidone
Useful if rapid diuresis causes acute retention or if patients dislike altered urination
What are some problems with diuretics that cause hypokalaemia?
In hepatic failure hypokalaemia can precipitate encephalopathy/coma
Hypokalaemia is also dangerous in patients with severe cardiovascular disease
‘Thiazide + related diuretics are cautioned in diabetes as they can excerbate this condition and cause hyperglyceaemia’
True or False?
True.
Loop diuretics also have this effect but hyperglycaemia is more likely with thiazide + related diuretics.
Indapamide is associated with less metabolic disturbance including less aggrivation of diabetes.
Which thiazide + related diuretic can be combined with a loop diuretic to give profound diuresis?
Metolazone.
Even effective when eGFR <30 but risk of excessive diuresis, patient requires careful monitoring
Why can loop diuretics not be used in patients with enlarged prostates?
Risk of urinary retention
How quickly do loop diuretics act?
Within 1 hour of oral administration.
IV furosemide has a peak of 30 mins
What is the duration of action for loop diuretics?
Diuresis complete within 6 hours. Suitable for BD dosing without interrupting sleep
‘The diuresis associated with loop diuretics is dose-related’
True or False?
True
How is diuretic-resistant oedema treated?
Loop diuretic combined with bendroflumethiazide or metolazone
How is furosemide administered IV?
Max rate of 4mg/min
What are the risks of giving furosemide IV?
Can cause ototoxicity (tinnitus and deafness) if administered too quickly
When are weak diuretics amiloride+ triamterene used?
Given with thiazidelike or loop diuretics as a more effective alternative to potassium supplements.
Act as weak diuretics that cause potassium retention
Potassium-sparing diuretics should never be given with … ?
Potassium supplements
ACEi / ARBs - risk of severe hyperkalaemia
‘Aldosterone antagonists are potassium sparing’
True or False?
True - contraindicated in hyperkalaemia
Why should diuretics be used with caution in the elderly?
They are particularly susceptible to side effects. Low doses should be used initially then adjusted according to renal function
‘Brinzolamide and dorzolamide are diuretics’
True or false?
True - they inhibit the formation of aqueous humour
Why are heparins less useful in preventing thromboembolism in arteries?
They are faster flowing vessels, thrombi are formed of less fibrin
Why is heparin preferred to LMWH where there is a high bleeding risk?
Heparin has a short duration of action therefore the effect can be terminated rapidly when the infusion is stopped
What is the reversal agent for heparin?
Protamine sulfate
Name the LMWHs
Dalteparin
Enoxaparin
Tinzaparin
Why are LWMH preferred to heparin in the prevention and treatment of VTE?
- Lower risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
- Longer duration of action - once daily dosing is possible
Which LMWHs are licensed for extended treatment and prophylaxis of VTE in patients with solid tumours?
Dalteparin and Tinzaparin
What are the 3 main side effects of heparin?
Haemorrhage
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Hyperkalaemia
What are the signs of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?
- 30% reduction in platelet count
- Thrombosis
- Skin allergy
Why does heparin cause hyperkalaemia?
Inhibits aldosterone secretion
Which patient would NOT be at higher risk for hyperkalaemia caused by LMWH?
- CKD stage 4
- Diabetic
- Receiving IV antibiotics
- Taking regular spironolactone
Patient receiving IV antibiotics
When might factor Xa levels be monitored in a patient receiving LMWH?
If they are renally impaired or over or under weight
Which of these does NOT increase risk of VTE?
- Hepatic impairment
- Age >60
- Obesity
- Malignant disease
- Reduced mobility
Hepatic impairment
‘Pharmacological prophylaxis should start within 14 hours of admission’
True or False?
True
Which DOAC can be used for oral treatment and prophylaxis of VTE?
Edoxaban
In the diagnosis of heart failure what is the range/significance of the N-terminal proBNP level?
Suspect a diagnosis of heart failure if the N-terminal pro BNP level is 400-2000ng/L
If the level is <400 then HF is unlikely
A high level can also indicate AF
What are some non-pharmacological treatments for heart failure?
- Exercise based rehab
- Smoking cessation
- Reduced alcohol intake
Name the New York Heart association classification of HF symptoms
Class I - no limitations on exercise
Class II - slight limitation of physical activity
Class III - marked limitation of physical activity
Class IV - symptoms of heart failure present at rest
‘Verapamil and diltiazem should never be used in heart failure’
True or False?
True - the negative inotropic action can further depress cardiac function and cause clinically significant deterioration
What are the aims of treatment in heart failure?
- Relieve symptoms
- Improve exercise tolerance
- Reduce acute exacerbations
- Reduce mortality
Which two treatments should always be initiated in HF with LVSD?
- ACEi
- Beta blocker
Which ARBs are licensed in heart failure?
Candesartan, losartan and valsartan
Which beta blockers are licensed in heart failure?
Bisoprolol, carvedilol, nebivolol (in over 70s with mild HF)
‘In heart failure beta blockers should follow the start low and go slow rule’
True or false
True
They should be titrated slowly and heart rate, blood pressure and clinical status should be monitored following each dose increase
‘Beta blockers may initially cause a deterioration in symptoms when initiated in heart failure’
True or false?
True
Which MRA is usually started in heart failure?
MRA = mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist
Spironolactone 25-50mg OD
‘Spironolactone does not affect mortality when used in heart failure’
True or false?
False - it can reduce mortality
Which criteria must be met for specialist treatment with ivabradine for heart failure?
HF with LVSD,
NYHA class II-IV symptoms,
Treatment with ACEi, B blocker and MRA,
Heart rate over 75 BPM
What is the minimum resting heart rate that a patient taking ivabradine should be maintained at?
Resting heart rate should be above 50bpm
Patients taking ivabradine should be monitored for ….
Bradycardia and AF
What is sacubitral?
Neprilysin inhibitor, used with valsartan in specialist treatment of heart failure
Does digoxin reduce mortality in heart failure?
No but can improve symptoms and reduce hospitalisation
When should digoxin be used in heart failure?
Specialist use only
In worsening/severe HF with LVSD that remains symptomatic with all other treatments
How regularly should patients with heart failure be monitored?
Minimum of every 6 months.
Monitor at shorter intervals (days to 2 weeks) if clinical condition or drug treatment changes
Which is not included in the QRISK2 score calculator?
- Diabetes status
- Systolic BP
- BMI
- Diet
- Severe mental illness
Diet
Which drugs can cause dyslipidaemia as a side effect and so are included in the QRISK2 calculator?
- Antipsychotics
- Corticosteroids
- Immunosuppressants
Can a diagnosis of erectile dysfunction increase your risk of heart disease/stroke?
Yes
‘Cardiovascular risk is underestimated in patients taking antihypertensive drugs’
True or false?
True
How are statins categorised?
In terms of % reduction in LDL-cholesterol levels
- low intensity is 20-30% reduction
- medium intensity is 30-40% reduction
- high intensity is >40% reduction
Which is an example of high-intensity statin therapy?
- Atorvastatin 20mg
- Simvastatin 10mg
- Fluvastatin 80mg
Atorvastatin 20mg
Which is an example of medium-intensity statin therapy?
- Atorvastatin 40mg
- Rosuvastatin 5mg
- Pravastatin 40mg
Rosuvastatin 5mg
Pravastatin is always low-intensity therapy
How should a QRISK2 score of over 10% be treated?
High-intensity statin eg, atorvastatin 80mg
Why is simvastatin 80mg not recommended?
MHRA found increased risk of myopathy with high dose simvastatin.
How is statin therapy monitored?
Total cholesterol, HDL and non-HDL cholesterol should be monitored before treatment and 3 months into treatment.
Aiming for >40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol
Why is it important to correct hypothyroidism before initiating a statin?
Correcting hypothyroidism may resolve the lipid abnormality and untreated hypothyroidism has an increased risk of myositis with lipid regulating drugs
‘Statins reduce cardiovascular disease and total mortality irrespective of initial cholesterol concentration’
True or False?
True
They are also more effective than other lipid-regulating drugs at reducing LDL-cholesterol concentration
‘Statins are more effective than fibrates are reducing triglyceride concentration’
True or false?
False
How do bile acid sequestrants such as cholestyramine work?
Bind to bile acids and prevent reabsorption, promoting hepatic conversion of cholesterol into bile acid
What counselling should be given with bile acid sequestrants?
- They can interfere with the absorption of fat soluble vitamins
- They can affect absorption of other drugs so should be taken 1 hour prior or 4-6 hours after other drugs
Which drug that inhibits intestinal absorption of cholesterol can be given if a statin is not tolerated?
Ezetimibe 10mg OD
How do statins work?
Competitively inhibit HMG CoA reductase, an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis especially in the liver
Which patients are at increased risk of muscle toxicity caused by statins?
- Personal/family history of muscle disorders
- High alcohol intake
- Renal impairment
- Hypothyroidism
How is baseline creatinine kinase used when monitoring statin treatment?
Statins should be avoided if creatinine kinase is persistently five times the upper limit of normal
In patients with diabetes taking a statin how should HbA1c be measured?
Before treatment and 3 months after initiation as risk of hyperglycaemia
Do not discontinue statin if HbA1c is increased as benefits outweigh risks
Can statins be taken in pregnancy?
No.
Risk of congential abnormalities and decreased cholesterol synthesis can affect foetal development.
Use adequate contraception during treatment and discontinue 3 months before trying to get pregnant.
How should patients taking statins be counselled?
Report any muscle pains, tenderness or weakness
How should liver function be monitored in patients taking statins?
Monitor before treatment and at 3 and 12 months.
More frequently if signs of hepatotoxicity.
Avoid in active liver disease and use with caution if history of liver disease.
Why should most lipid-regulating medicines be taken at night?
Cholsterol levels are highest at night and this allows the drugs to work best
Which statins do NOT need to be taken at night?
Atorvastatin and Rosuvastatin
Have a longer duration of action and can also be taken in the morning
What is first line treatment for stable angina?
- Sublingual GTN - take before activities known to trigger an attack
- B-blocker or (rate-limting) CCB titrated to max. tolerated dose
What therapy can be added in patients with stable angina who cannot tolerate a CCB or B-blocker?
Monotherapy with:
- long acting nitrate
- Ivabradine
- Nicorandil
- Ranolazine
Why should patients taking ivabradine be monitored for bradycardia and AF?
It lowers heart rate through action on the sinus node.
Discontinue if HR is persistently below 50bpm
‘Ivabradine is a black triangle drug’
True or false?
True
‘Nicorandil can cause serous ulceration’
True or false?
True - including GI ulcers which may perforate. Stop treatment if ulceration occurs
Name some cautions for ranolazine?
Weight <60kg, eGFR <80ml/min (avoid if <30), elderly, QT interval prolongation
How do nitrates work?
They are potent coronary vasodilators
Also reduce venous return meaning reduction in left ventricular work
Some common side effects of nitrates?
- Flushing
- Headache
- Postural hypotension
NItrates are cautioned in patients with ‘tolerance’. How can tolerance be reduced with different nitrate preparations?
Transdermal patches - leave off for 8-12 hours/day
MR isosorbide dinitrate + isosorbide mononitrate - Give the 2nd of 2 daily doses after 8 hours not 12
MR isosorbide mononitrate - give OD
How long do the effects of sublingual GTN last?
20-30 mins
When does the ‘POM’ restriction not apply to adrenaline?
When 1mg of 1 in 1000 adrenaline is used for emergency treatment of anaphylaxis
Which drugs are used in the long term management of ACS?
- Dual antiplatelet Aspirin + clopidogrel/ticagrelor/prasugrel for 12 months - B-blocker - ACEi - Statin - Nitrate (if angina/MI) - Eplenerone (if MI in HF)