Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 1 medicine > Cardiovascular > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage in the cellular component of blood?

A

45% formed predominantly of red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage is the fluid component of blood?

A

55% made of plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many litres of blood do humans have?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a haematocrit and a normal value for this

A

The ratio of the red cells to the total volume of blood, 0.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the name of the process of creating blood cells and platelets?

A

Haemopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Whereabouts does haemopoiesis occur in adults?

A

Bone marrow of the ribs, sternum, pelvis, skull and vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Whereabouts does haemopoesis occur in embryonic life?

A

Yolk sac, liver then spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Whereabouts does haemopoesis occur in infants?

A

All bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lifetime of a RBC

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Platelet lifetime

A

7-10days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

WBC lifetime

A

6hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Whereabouts are precursor cells found?

A

In the bone marrow. if they are found in the blood this is a sign of leukaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hormonal growth factor stimulating RBC proliferation?

A

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hormonal growth factor stimulating WBC proliferation?

A

G-CSF (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hormonal growth factor stimulating platelet proliferation?

A

Tpo (thrombopoietin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens to the O2 disassociation curve when the pH is decreased or the temperature is increased?

A

Shifts to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens to the oxygen dissociation curve then the pH is increased or the temp is decreased?

A

Shifts to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function of haemoglobin?

A

Transporting oxygen to the myoglobin in the muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does O2 bind to in the haem group?

A

Fe2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the structure of haemoglobin?

A

2 alpha chains, 2 beta chains and 4 haem groups. quarternary structure of protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which antigens and antibodies do blood type A have?

A

A antigen and antibody B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which antigens and antibodies do blood type B have?

A

B antigen and antibody A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which antigens and antibodies do blood type AB have?

A

A and B antigens no antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which antigens and antibodies do blood type O have?

A

Anti A and Anti B antibodies, neither antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which rhesus antigen is the most important?

A

D antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does rhesus negative mean?

A

The D antigen is not present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are normal haemoglobin levels?

A

12.5 - 15.5 g/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do low levels of haemoglobin indicate?

A

Anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do higher levels of haemoglobin indicate?

A

Polycthaemia (caused by smoking and lung diseases. a higher amount of haemoglobin is requiredas less O2 is naturally exchanged)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the symptoms of anaemia?

A

Tiredness, lethargy, malaise, reduced exercise tolerance, shortness of breath on exertion and angina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What happens to the size of RBC’s in iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Lack of iron results in smaller RBC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Causes of iron deficiency anaemia.

A

GI bleeding, menorrhagia, not getting enough iron in diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What happens to the size of RBC’s in B12 and folate deficiency anaemia?

A

Macrocytosis anaemia (larger RBC’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What happens in B12 deficient anaemia?

A

B12 needed for DNA synthesis, RBCs cannot be produced in the bone marrow and so there are fewer of them and they’re bigger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

An auto immune disease causing antibodies to be made against the gastric parietal cells leading to reduced intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What other compound produced in the stomach is needed for the absorption of B12 in the terminal ileum?

A

Intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Reasons for folate deficiency?

A

Malabsorption due to coeliac diseases; dietary, increased need due to haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is haemolysis?

A

Normal red cell production but reduced life span, destroyed after 30 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A

Defect in beta globin chain in haemoglobin; red blood cells become sickle shaped and get trapped in vessels easily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Risks of a Rh -ve mother and +ve baby?

A

Rhesus disease, problems with second baby as antibodies made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The lifespan of a neutrophil?

A

10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Function of a neutrophil?

A

Phagocytose and kill bacteria, release chemotaxins to signal more WBCS to come to the site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where do b lymphocytes mature?

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where do T lymphocytes mature?

A

Thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a sign of acute leukaemia?

A

Primitive rbcs present in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Do platelets have a nucleus?

A

No

47
Q

What is the lifespan of a platelet?

A

5-10 days

48
Q

What risks are associated with low platelets?

A

Thrombocytopenia (cerebral bleeding or spontaneous bleeding)

49
Q

What risks are associated with high platelets?

A

Increased risk of stroke, arterial/venous thrombosis/ heart attack

50
Q

Which vitamin is essential for the synthesis of coagulation factors?

A

Vitamin K

51
Q

What is the most numerous plasma protein?

A

Albulmin

52
Q

Why is blood fluid in vessels?

A

The proteins of the coagulation cascade and platelets circulate in an inactive state

53
Q

What are platelets activated by?

A

Tissue factors on every cell but the endothelium, so clotting occurs when the endothelium is damaged.

54
Q

Which is the key enzyme generated by the coagulation cascade?

A

Thrombin

55
Q

What is the function of thrombin?

A

Cleaves fibrinogen into fibrin

56
Q

What is haemophilia?

A

A severe, x-linked recessive, bleeding disorder which results into bleeding into joints and muscles

57
Q

Hemophilia A is deficient in which factor?

A

Factor 8

58
Q

Haemophilia B is defienct in which factor?

A

Factor 9

59
Q

What is Von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Lack of VWF which binds platelts to damaged blood vessels. can be male to male inherited. dominant condition.

60
Q

First step when a blood vessel is damaged.

A

Release of endothelin 1 causing vasoconstriction

61
Q

What happens to exposed collagen?

A

Platelets adhere to the collagen via VWF

62
Q

Binding of the plateltes to collagen triggers what?

A

Exocytosis of platelt contents leading to platelet amplification

63
Q

What does the coagulation cascade and platelets activation result in?

A

Shape change of platelets from spiky to circular

64
Q

When ADP is releaed in the coagualtion cascade which receptors does this act upon?

A

P2Y1 and P2Y12

Leading to platelet amplification

65
Q

Platelet activation leads to an increase in which receptor?

A

Glycoprotein 2b/3a

66
Q

What do the glycoprotein 2b/3a receptors bind to?

A

Fibrinogen, leading to platelt aggregation

67
Q

What is the role of thromboxane A2?

A

Released into the ECF and acts locally to further stimulate platelet aggregation

68
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?

A

activated by trauma inside the vascular system. Activated by platelts, exposed endothelium, chemicals or collagen

69
Q

What is the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?

A

Faster response than the intrinsic responds to external trauma that causes blood to escape from the vascular system.

70
Q

Where are clotting factors produced?

A

In the liver

71
Q

Which other chemical produced by the liver is required for the absorption of Vit K?

A

Bile salts

72
Q

Why is cardiac muscle striated?

A

Regularly repeating sarcomeres

73
Q

Are cardiac muscle cells mononucleate?

A

Yes

74
Q

What are intercalated discs within cardiac muscle?

A

2 cells joined together by desmosomes and gap junctions to allow the passage of electrical impulses between cells

75
Q

What is the thick filament composed of in muscle?

A

Myosin

76
Q

What is the thin filament composed of in muscle?

A

Actin but also troponin and tropomyosin

77
Q

What is myosin composed of?

A

2 heavy polypeptide chains and 4 smaller light chains

78
Q

What is the structure of actin?

A

Globular protein made of 2 intertwined helical chains

79
Q

What is tropomyosin?

A

Lies between the 2 layers of actin blocking the myosin binding sites

80
Q

What is troponin?

A

Changes shape when Ca2+ binds to it, pushing the tropomyosin out of the way so myosin can bind

81
Q

What is the A band?

A

Thick and a few overlaping thin filaments

82
Q

What is the I band?

A

Occupied only by thin filaments

83
Q

What is a z line?

A

Defines the limits of one sarcomere

84
Q

What is the H zone?

A

Only contains thick filaments

85
Q

What is the M line?

A

In the centre of the H zone

86
Q

What is titin?

A

Extends from the z line to the M line in the line of the thick filaments to keep them aligned

87
Q

What is the contents of 1 sarcomere?

A

2 half I bands, 1 A band, 1 H zone, 1 M line and 2 Z lines

88
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

A network that surrounds the contractile proteins released Ca2+ when it binds to the ryanodine receptor.

89
Q

What are the steps of a cardiac action potential?

A
  1. resting potential maintained by Na+/K+ atpase pumps
  2. AP arrives NA+ channels open
  3. +52mV Na+ close, K+ opens partially repolarising membrane
  4. Ca2+ channels also triggered but much slower than Na+
  5. Plateau as the inflow balances outflow
  6. L type ca2+ channels close and repolarisation occurs.
90
Q

What is excitation-contraction coupling?

A

AP causes a small influx of Ca2+ ions, this binds to ryanodine receptors on the t tubules causing a large influx of Ca2+ ions leading to the initiation of the cross-bridge cycle.

91
Q

How much longer does cardiac muscle contraction last compared to skeletal muscle contraction?

A

15 times longer

92
Q

Why is the refractory period of a cardiac action potential longer than a skeletal muscle action potential?

A

To allow for adequate filling time of the heart and to prevent excessive frequent contraction

93
Q

Which arteries supply blood to the myocardial cells?

A

Coronary arteries

94
Q

Which vein to the coronary arteries drain into?

A

Coronary sinus

95
Q

From which group of cells does the initial depolarisation of the heart originate?

A

SAN cells

96
Q

Whereabouts is the AV node located?

A

Base of the right atrium

97
Q

Why is the propagation of AP through the node slow?

A

To allow time for ventricular filling

98
Q

What are the fibres down the intraventricular septum called?

A

Bundle of HIS

99
Q

What fibres separate at the bottom of the Septum?

A

Left and right bundle branches

100
Q

Which fibres distribute electrical impulses throughout the ventricles?

A

Purkinje fibres

101
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of the heart

A

Vagus nerve

102
Q

What does parasympathetic stimulation do to the heart?

A

Controlled by acetylcholine
Decreases heart rate
Decreases force of contraction
decreased cardiac output

103
Q

What does sympathetic stimulation do to the heart?

A

Postganglionic innervate the entire heart.
Controlled by adrenaline and noradrenaline
Increases heart rate
Increases force of contraction
Increases cardiac output

104
Q

What is the p wave on an ecg?

A

Atrial depolarisation

105
Q

What is the PR interval on an ECG?

A

Time taken for the atria to depolarise and electrical activation through the AV node

106
Q

What is the QRS complex?

A

Ventricular depolarisation

107
Q

What is the ST segment?

A

Interval between depolarisation and repolarisation

108
Q

What is the T wave

A

Ventricular repolarisation

109
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

Increased heart rate

110
Q

What is Bradycardia?

A

Decreased heart rate

111
Q

What is isovolumetric contraction?

A

Contraction of the ventricles increase in pressure but the same volume

112
Q

What is maximal ejection?

A

When the pressure in the ventricles is greater than the arteries the aortic and pulmonary valves open and blood is ejected into them.

113
Q

How long is systole?

A

0.3s

114
Q

How long is diastole?

A

0.5s

Phase 1 medicine (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions