Cardiothoracic Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What are the potential complications of prolonged lateral patient positioning in theatre?

A
  • Tube displacement
  • Shunt
  • Radial nerve palsy
  • Common peroneal nerve palsy
  • Saphenous nerve palsy
  • Brachial plexus injury
  • Ear injury
  • Optic neuropathy
  • Pressure injury over bony prominence such as iliac crest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the anaesthetic implications of oesophageal perforation?

A

Sepsis highly likely with possibility of shock, so consider ketamine for induction

RSI with rocuronium to avoid increased intragastric pressure of suxamethonium

Left sided double lumen endotracheal tube is preferred over a right sided DLETT as this risks occlusion of right upper lobe bronchus.

Low tidal volume 6-8ml/kg while ventilating both lungs, 5-6ml/kg during one-lung ventilation

Permissive hypercapnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What might you see on a CT scan in oesophageal rupture?

A
  • Peri-oesophageal gas
  • Pneumomediastinum
  • Pneumopericardium
  • Pneumothorax
  • Pneumoperitoneum
  • Surgical emphysema
  • Lung abscess or pleural effusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What clinical signs might suggest oesophageal perforation?

A

Surgical emphysema

Reduced air entry

Hamman crunch - this is a cracking sound of pneumomediastinum on auscultation

Percussion can be dull or resonant
- Dull if collapse or consolidation
- Resonant if pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the indications for insertion of an intra-aortic balloon pump?

A

Acute myocardial infarction
Cardiogenic shock not responding to pharmacological treatment
Cardiothoracic Surgery
Weaning from bypass
Sepsis
Acute MR and VSD
Infants with congenital heart defects
Refractory unstable angina
Refractory LV failure
Cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to IABP?

A

Aortic regurgitation
Aortic dissection
Chronic end stage heart failure not deemed operable
Aortic stenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What impact does an IABP have on the following?

  1. Aorta
  2. Left ventricle
  3. Heart
  4. Blood flow
A
  1. Reduced systolic pressure, increased diastolic pressure
  2. Reduced systolic pressure, reduced end diastolic pressure, reduced volume and reduced wall tension
  3. Reduced afterload, reduced preload, increased cardiac output
  4. Increased coronary blood flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is helium used to inflate an IABP?

A

It has a very low density so it can inflate and deflate the balloon very quickly

It is rapidly absorbed into the blood in the event of balloon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the equation for coronary perfusion pressure?

A

CPP = ADP - LVEDP

CPP = Coronary perfusion pressure
ADP = Aortic diastolic pressure
LVEDP = Left ventricular end diastolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the complications of IABP?

A

Balloon rupture and gas embolus
Haemolysis and thrombocytopenia
Occlusion of cerebral or renal arterial supply
Limb ischaemia
Aortic trauma or dissection
Bleeding and infection
Tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the components of the DeBakey classification of aortic dissection?

A

Type 1 = Ascending and descending Aorta

Type 2 = Limited to ascending aorta

Type 3 = Limited to descending aorta

Note that in type 3 the dissection must be distal to the left subclavian artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the components of the Stanford classification of aortic dissection?

A

Stanford Type A = DeBakey 1 and 2

This means ascending aorta or both ascending and descending

Stanford type B = DeBakey 3

This means just descending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which radial artery should be used in aortic dissection?

A

Type A = left radial, as the right arm may be affected by the dissection

Type B = right radial is preferred as it is further from the site of dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the knock-on physiological effects of severe mitral stenosis?

A

Raised left atrial pressure
Chronic pulmonary venous congestion
Pulmonary hypertension
Reduced lung compliance
Right ventricular dilatation
Tricuspid regurgitation
Raised central venous pressure
Hepatic congestion
Ascites
Peripheral oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does mitral stenosis cause peripheral oedema and ascites?

A

Mitral stenosis causes increased left atrial pressure and an increased resting diastolic mitral valve gradient.

This causes pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular hypertrophy.

This causes tricuspid regurgitation, which causes increased central venous pressure.

This causes hepatic congestion, which then leads to ascites and peripheral oedema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the classic xray findings of mitral stenosis?

A

Double right heart border

Straightened left heart border

17
Q

What is the definition of mitral stenosis?

A

A mitral valve area of less than 2cm squared

Normal area = 4-6cm squared

18
Q

What are the components of a cardiopulmonary bypass circuit?

A
  • aortic cross clamp
  • venous reservoir
  • systemic blood pump
  • vent pump
  • cardiotomy reservoir
  • gas exchanger or oxygenator
  • cardioplegia solution
19
Q

What dose of heparin should be given, and what activated clotting time should be achieved before bypass is initiated?

A

Heparin 300-400 units per kilogram

ACT of more than 480 seconds

20
Q

How does cardioplegia solution work?

A
  • Potassium inactivates fast inward sodium channels, preventing phase 0 of the action potential
  • Renders the myocardium unexcitable in diastolic arrest
21
Q

What are the benefits of blood cardioplegia over crystalloid cardioplegia?

A
  • Better oxygen carrying capacity
  • Reduced free radical production
  • Better acid buffering
  • Improved microvascular flow
  • Reduced myocardial oedema
  • Delivery of other nutrients
  • Glutamate and aspartate are sometimes added to cardioplegia to promote oxidative metabolism in energy-depleted hearts
22
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using hypothermia in cardiopulmonary bypass?

A
  • Advantages
    • Reduced cerebral oxygen demand
    • Reduced myocardial oxygen demand
    • Reduced inflammatory response
    • Improved blood brain barrier permeability
  • Disadvantages
    • Increased blood viscosity
    • Increased infection risk
    • Impaired wound healing
    • Peripheral vasoconstriction
    • Increased bleeding risk
    • Hyperglycaemia
    • Metabolic acidosis
23
Q

Why is a transoesophageal echo important prior to administration of cardioplegia solution?

A

To rule out aortic regurgitation

Aortic regurgitation is a contraindication to retrograde cardioplegia administration