Cardiorespiratory Post-Op Complications Flashcards

1
Q

what is atelectasis?

A

the partial collapse of the small airways in the lungs

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2
Q

true or false: most patients develop some form of atelectasis

A

true.

post-op patients develop it at varying degrees, compromising lung function

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3
Q

how does atelectasis increase the risk of lung complications?

A

reduced airway expansion leads to an accumulation of pulmonary secretions.
this can cause hypoxaemia, reduced lung compliance, respiratory infections, acute respiratory failure

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4
Q

what are the risk factors for atelectasis?

A
age
smoking
general anaesthesia 
duration of surgery
lung or neuromuscular disease
prolonged bed rest
poor post-op pain control
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5
Q

what are the clinical signs of atelectasis?

A

increased respiratory rate
reduced oxygen saturations
patient may have fine crackles on auscultation

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6
Q

how long does it usually take for a patient to show signs of post-op atelectasis?

A

symptoms normally develop within 24 hours of surgery

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7
Q

what is first line imaging in atelectasis and what would it show?

A

chest x-ray

small areas of airway collapse, however it may also be inconclusive

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8
Q

what other imaging can be taken in atelectasis and why?

A

CT imaging

it has good sensitivity in identifying renal collapse and reduced airway volume

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9
Q

how is atelectasis managed?

A

deep breathing exercises and chest physiotherapy

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10
Q

why is pain control important in a patient with atelectasis?

A

if a patient is in pain, they will not be able to deep breathe and adequately clear secretions from their lungs

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11
Q

what further treatment is given to atelectasis patients if physiotherapy doesn’t work?

A

bronchoscopy is done to try and clear secretions

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12
Q

how do you prevent atelectasis?

A

patients who have undergone major surgery should be referred for chest physiotherapy to prevent atelectasis

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13
Q

what are the four different kinds of pneumonia?

A
  • community acquired pneumonia (CAP)
  • hospital acquired pneumonia (HAP)
  • aspirational pneumonia
  • immunocompromised pneumonia
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14
Q

what is the definition of hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

pneumonia that has onset >48 hours since being in hospital

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15
Q

why are post-operative patients more at risk for developing pneumonia?

A
  • reduced chest ventilation
  • change in commensals
  • debilitation
  • intubation
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16
Q

why do post-op patients have reduced chest ventilation and how can this lead to pneumonia?

A

they have reduced mobility and are bedridden leading to an inability to fully ventilate their lungs - accumulating secretions which then become infected

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17
Q

why do post-op patients have a change in commensals and how can this lead to pneumonia?

A

patients are exposed to more bacteria in a hospital and can be effected by them
common ones that cause HAP: e. coli, s. aureus, s. pneumoniae, pseudomonas

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18
Q

why are post-op patients debilitates and how can this lead to pneumonia?

A

post-op patients are likely to have co-morbidities or be ill, compromising their immune system and predisposing to infections

19
Q

what are the risk factors for pneumonia?

A
age
smoking
known respiratory disease
poor mobility
immunosuppression
underlying co-morbidities e.g. DM or CVD
20
Q

what are the clinical features of pneumonia?

A

cough, dyspnoea, chest pain, pyrexia, general malaise

21
Q

what are the clinical signs of pneumonia?

A

reduced O2 sats
increased resp rate and heart rate
on examination: bronchial breath sounds, inspiratory crackles and dull percussion

22
Q

what are the differential diagnoses of pneumonia?

A
acute heart failure
acute coronary syndrome
PE
asthma
COPD exacerbation
pleural effusion
empyema
23
Q

what laboratory investigations should be done if you suspect post-op pneumonia?

A
  • routine bloods: FBC, CRP, U&Es to show evidence of inflammatory response
  • ABG if patients O2 sats are low
  • sputum sample
  • blood cultures
24
Q

what imaging should be done if you suspect post-op pneumonia?

A

chest x-ray to confirm the infection and if either lobar or bronchopneumonia

25
Q

how do you manage hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

O2 therapy targeting 94% sats

antibiotics

26
Q

what antibiotic should be given to treat hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

co-amoxiclav

27
Q

true or false: all patients should have a target sats of 94% in O2 therapy

A

false.

COPD patients should have a target of 88%-92% because of the risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure

28
Q

what are the major complications of pneumonia?

A
  • pleural effusion
  • empyema
  • respiratory failure
  • sepsis
29
Q

what lobes of the lung does aspirational pneuminitis tend to affect and why?

A

right middle or lower lung lobes

due to the anatomy of the bronchi

30
Q

what are the risk factors in surgical patients for aspiration?

A
  • reduced GCS (secondary to anaesthetic)
  • iatrogenic interventions (e.g. misplaced NG tube)
  • prolonged vomiting
  • oesophageal strictures or fistula
  • post-abdominal surgery
31
Q

what are the risk factors for developing a VTE?

A
age
previous VTE
smoking
pregnancy or post-partum
recent surgery
prolonged immobility
HRT or COCP
cancer
obesity
32
Q

what is DVT?

A

formation of a blood clot in the deep veins of a limb - most commonly the legs

33
Q

what are the clinical features of DVT?

A
  • unilateral leg pain
  • swelling
  • low-grade pyrexia
  • pitting oedema
  • tenderness
34
Q

true or false: most DVTs are asymptomatic

A

true.

35
Q

how do you manage a DVT?

A

direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is first line

36
Q

what drugs are considered DOACs and what is their mechanism of action?

A

apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban are factor Xa inhibitors

dabigatran is a thrombin inhibitor

37
Q

what is the treatment regime for patients with a DVT?

A

anticoagulants should be continued for at least 3 months

38
Q

what are the clinical features of a pulmonary embolism?

A
  • sudden onset dyspnoea
  • pleuritic chest pain
  • cough or haemoptysis
39
Q

what are the clinical signs of a pulmonary embolism?

A
  • tachycardia
  • tachypnoea
  • pyrexia
  • signs of DVT
40
Q

what are the common investigations done in a suspected DVT?

A
  • ECG as a common differential is an MI

- CT pulmonary angiography to show the PE

41
Q

what is the management for a stable PE?

A

the same as a DVT

42
Q

what is the management for a PE with complications?

A

thrombolysis may be considered

43
Q

what is the management for recurrent PEs?

A

an IVC filter may be considered