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Phase 2 > CardioResp > Flashcards

CardioResp Flashcards

1
Q

List the cardiac questions

A 
Chest pain
SOB
Palpitations
Dizziness/syncope
Orthopnoea/PND
Peripheral oedema
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2
Q

List modifiable and non modifiable risk factors for IHD

A 
Modifiable:
Hypertension
Diabetes
Obesity
Hypercholesterolaemia 
Smoking
Non modifiable:
Age
Gender
Family history
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3
Q

List cardiac differentials for breathlessness

A

Acute - severe pulmonary oedema, MI, arrhythmia, pericardial disease with effusion
Chronic - LV dysfunction, valvular disease, arrhythmia, pericardial disease with effusion, coronary artery disease

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4
Q

Describe the NYHA classification of chronic heart failure

A

I - no limitation of physical activity, fatigue, breathlessness, palpitation
II - slight limitation of physical activity + angina
III - marked limitation of physical activity, moderate HF
IV - inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort, severe HF

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5
Q

List differentials for chest pain

A 
Cardiac - MI, angina, pericarditis
Aortic dissection
Lung/pleura - pneumothorax
MSK - inflammation
Oesophagus - GORD, gastritis
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6
Q

Explain ECG axis

A 
aVL - -30
I - 0
II - +60
aVF - +90
III - +120
aVR - -150
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7
Q

How is an ECG calibrated?

A

Paper runs at 25 mm/s
One large square - 5mm = 0.2s
Five large squares = 1s (300/min)
Rate = 300/R-R

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8
Q

Describe the protocol for interpreting an ECG

A
  1. Machine in working order? 25mm/a
  2. Check correct person “12 lead ECG of…”
  3. Rate - regular (300/RR) or irregular (QRSs x 6)
  4. Rhythm - P wave preceded by QRS = sinus. AF = absent P waves, irregular. Atrial flutter = saw tooth P waves, block. VT = 120-180, broad QRS. VF/asystole = capture or fusion beats, concordance.
  5. Axis
  6. Intervals - PR, QRS complex, QT
  7. ST segment/T wave changes
  8. R wave progression
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9
Q

List the possible locations of ischaemia according to ECG changes

A 
V1-V4 - anteroseptal, LAD
V1-V6 - anteroapical, LAD
V4-V6 - anterolateral, LAD
V5-V6, I, aVL - lateral, circumflex
II, III, aVF - inferior, circumflex, RCA
V7-V9 - posterior, circumflex
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10
Q

Describe the general appearance, pulse rate and rhythm, volume and character, internal jugular, apex beat, palpation and auscultation findings of aortic stenosis

A 
Pale, sweaty, elderly
Sinus rhythm, tachycardia, low BP
Low volume, slow rising pulse
Normal JVP
Apex non displaced, pressure loaded
Thrill
Ejection systolic, crescendo decrescendo, radiates to carotid (LUB SH DUB)
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11
Q

Describe the general appearance, pulse rate and rhythm, volume and character, internal jugular, apex beat, palpation and auscultation findings of aortic regurgitation

A

Corrigan’s, de Musset’s, quincke’s, pistol shot femoral
Normal pulse, wide pulse pressure
High volume, collapsing pulse
Normal JVP
Displaced, volume loaded thrill
No thrill
High pitched diastolic murmur, heard best at left sternal edge in expiration with patient leaning forward (LUB DUB SH)

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12
Q

Describe the general appearance, pulse rate and rhythm, volume and character, internal jugular, apex beat, palpation and auscultation findings of tricuspid regurgitation

A

COPD/lung disease, elephant ears, pulsatile liver
Normal pulse and BP
JVP - giant V waves, sharp Y descent
Normal apex beat
Right ventricular heave
Pansystolic murmur at lower sternal edge, heard best in inspiration (LUB ZZZ DUB)

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13
Q

Describe the general appearance, pulse rate and rhythm, volume and character, internal jugular, apex beat, palpation and auscultation findings of mitral stenosis

A

Mitral facies (malar flush)
AF
Normal or low volume pulse
Raised JVP
Non displaced, tapping (open snap) apex beat
Right ventricular heave
Rumbling, mid diastolic murmur, heard best with bell in expiration with patient rolled to left (LUB DUB RRR)

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14
Q

Describe the general appearance, pulse rate and rhythm, volume and character, internal jugular, apex beat, palpation and auscultation findings of mitral regurgitation

A

Normal general appearance, connective tissue disorder, pulse (maybe AF), blood pressure and JVP
Displaced, volume loaded apex beat
Right ventricular heave, thrill (rare)
Pansystolic murmur radiates to axilla (LUB ZZZ DUB)

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15
Q

Describe the general appearance, pulse rate and rhythm, volume and character, internal jugular, apex beat, palpation and auscultation findings of a small VSD

A

Normal appearance, pulse, block pressure, JVP and apex beat
Thrill at lower left sternal edge
Loud, harsh pansystolic murmur (LUB ZZZ DUB)

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16
Q

List differentials of bradycardia on ECG

A

Sinus node disease, sinus bradycardia

AV block

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17
Q

Describe the different types of heart block

A

1st degree - widened PR
2nd degree:
Mobitz I/Wenkebach) - progressive lengthening until a dropped QRS = longer longer longer drop
Mobitz II - intermittent failure of AVN = Ps don’t get through
3rd degree/complete - no synchronisation between Ps and QRS
*escape rhythm will be regular

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18
Q

Define trifascicular block

A

Bundle branch block
Left axis deviation
Widened PR interval

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19
Q

List differentials of tachycardia on ECG

A

Narrow complex, regular - sinus tachycardia, SVT, AVRT, AVNRT, atrial flutter, atrial tachycardia
Narrow complex, irregular - AF

Broad complex, regular - antidromic AVRT, VT/BBB
Broad complex, irregular - AF, atrial flutter, pre excited AF, toursades de points

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20
Q

List management of tachycardia

A

Narrow complex - ABC, O2, IV access, fatal manouvres, adenosine 6mg, antiarrhythmic, DC cardioversion (if haemodynamically unstable)
Broad complex - ABC, arrest call if pulseless, amiodarone/lidocaine, K+/Mg2+ if needed, sedation, DC cardioversion

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21
Q

Define atrial fibrillation

A

Abnormal heart rhythm, irregular beating of atria

Absent P waves, irregularly irregular on ECG

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22
Q

List some risk factors for AF

A

Hypertension, valvular heart disease, coronary artery disease, cardiomyopathy
COPD, sleep apnoea, obesity
Excess alcohol, diabetes, thyrotoxicosis

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23
Q

Describe the types of AF

A

Paroxysmal - spontaneously back to normal <7 days
Persistent - back to normal with assistance/>7 days
Long standing persistent/permanent

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24
Q

List some signs and symptoms of AF

A

Asymptomatic, palpitations, angina, SOB, tachycardia, irregularly irregular pulse

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25
Q

Describe the management of AF

A
  1. Rhythm control - cardioversion (DC/amiodarone/procainamide)
  2. Rate control - B blockers (bisoprolol, metoprolol), CCB (diltiazem, verapamil), digoxin, amiodarone
  3. Thromboembolic prophylaxis - warfarin/NOAC
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26
Q

List contraindications of flecainide

A

Structural heart disease

IHD

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27
Q

What is the CHA2DS2VASC score and when is it used?

A 
To determine if anticoagulation is necessary in AF 
Congestive heart failure = 1
Hypertension = 1
Age >75 = 2 
Diabetes = 1
Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism history = 2
Vascular disease (peripheral artery disease, MI, plaque) = 1 
Age 65-74 = 1
Sex female = 1

> 1 consider anticoagulation therapy
2 anticoagulation is recommended

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28
Q

Explain HASBLED score

A 
HTN = 1
Abnormal liver or renal function = 1
Stroke = 1
Bleeding = 2
Labile INR = 1 
Elderly = 1 
Drugs - NSAIDS, alcohol = 1
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29
Q

What anticoagulation is used for thromboembolic prophylaxis in patients with AF

A

Warfarin - inhibits vitamin K dependent synthesis of clotting factors *INR monitoring, mechanical valve, moderate/severe mitral stenosis
Dabigatran - thrombin inhibitor
Rivaroxaban - factor Xa inhibitor
Apixaban - factor Xa inhibitor

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30
Q

List scoring systems used in a patient with AF

A

CHA2DS2VASC
HASBLED*
HEMORR2HAGES*
*bleeding risk

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31
Q

Define the Sokolow-Lyon voltage criteria for LVH

A

S wave in V1 + R wave in V5/6 = >35 mm or 3.5 large squares

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32
Q

Describe ECG changes of an MI

A

Acute - ST elevation
Recent - T wave inversion, pathological Q waves
Old - pathological Q waves remain
New onset LBBB

33
Q

Describe ECG changes of a PE

A

s1, q3, t3
Large S wave in lead I
Q wave inversion in lead III
T wave inversion in lead III

34
Q

Describe ECG changes in hyperkalaemia

A

Low flat P waves
Broad bizarre QRS
Slurring into ST segment
Tall tented T waves

35
Q

List some causes of heart failure

A 
IHD
Non ischaemic dilated cardiomyopathy 
Hypertension
Valvular disease
Congenital heart disease
Arrhythmias
Anaemia
Thyrotoxicosis
Paget's 
Pericardial disease
Right HF
Alcohol/drugs e.g. chemotherapy
36
Q

List pathophysiological changes in heart failure

A 
Ventricular dilatation
Myocyte hypertrophy
ANP secretion
Salt/water retention
Sympathetic stimulation
Peripheral vasoconstriction
RAS/adrenergic activation
37
Q

List signs and symptoms of heart failure

A

Left HF:
Fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, orthopnoea/PND, displaced apex beat, gallop rhythm, mitral regurgitation, lung crackles, pitting oedema
Right HF:
Fatigue, dyspnoea, anorexia/nausea, raised JVP (+/- V waves of tricuspid regurgitation), cardiomegaly, hepatic enlargement, ascites, pitting oedema

38
Q

Explain the Framingham classification for diagnosis of heart failure

A

2 major OR 1 major + 2 minor
Major - PND, crepitations, S3 gallop, cardiomegaly, raised CVP, weight loss >4.5kg in 5 days in response to treatment, neck vein distension, acute pulmonary oedema, hepatojugular reflex
Minor - bilateral ankle oedema, dyspnoea on exertion, tachycardia, decreases in vital capacity by half, nocturnal cough, hepatomegaly, pleural effusion

39
Q

Describe the management of heart failure

A

General - exercise, low salt diet, stop smoking
Medical - diuretics (furosemide, bumetinide, thiazides), ACEi/ARB, B blockers, spironolactone, inotropic agents (dopamine, dobutamine, digoxin), nitrates, anticoagulation
Non pharmacological - revascularisation, biventricular pacemaker/implantable cardioverter defibrillator, cardiac transplantation, left ventricular assist device/artificial heart

40
Q

List signs of heart failure on CXR

A 
Alveolar oedema (bat's wings)
Kerley B lines
Cardiomegaly
Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels 
Pleural effusions
41
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis and how that leads to ACS

A

Injury –> lipoproteins oxidise and combine with macrophages –> foam cells –> cytokines –> fat/smooth muscle proliferation –> plaque –> rupture –> platelet aggregation/adhesion –> localised thrombus, vasoconstriction –> MI

42
Q

List the initial management of a patient having an MI

A

Morphine 2.5-10mg IV + antiemetic (metoclopramide 10mg)
Oxygen
Nitrates (GTN 2 puffs sublingual)
Aspirin 300mg or prasugrel 60mg/ticagrelor 180mg
Further management - PCI/thrombolysis

43
Q

List complications of a STEMI

A 
Sudden death
Pump failure/pericarditis
Ruptured papillary muscles/septum
Embolism
Aneurysm/arrhythmias
Dressler's syndrome
44
Q

What medication and further advice should an ACS patient be discharged with

A 
Aspirin
ACEi
B blockers (bisoprolol)
Clopidogrel/prasugrel
Statin (simvastatin)
Address modifiable risk factors 
1 month off work
4 weeks no driving (inform DVLA)
45
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of infective endocarditis

A

Endothelial damage/damaged valve –> platelet/fibrin deposit (vegetation) –> bacteraemia –> adherence/colonisation = mitral/aortic regurgitation

46
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of infective endocarditis

A 
Heart murmur + fever
Systemic infection
Valvular/cardiac damage (murmur)
Embolisation 
Immune vasculitis (Roth spots, splinter haemorrhages, janeway lesions, oslers nodes)
47
Q

Explain the Duke’s criteria for infective endocarditis

A

2 major OR 1 major + 3 minor OR 5 minor
Major - positive blood culture (typical organism in 2 separate cultures/persistently +ve blood cultures), endocardium involved (positive echo/new valvular regurgitation)
Minor - predisposition, fever >38C, vascular/immunological signs, positive blood culture, positive echo

48
Q

Describe the pathophysiology and causes of pericarditis

A

Inflamed pericardium –> leukocytes–> vascularisation –> constructive/effusion (tamponade)
Causes - viral, TB, idiopathic, bacteria, MI/dressler’s, renal failure, RA/sarcoid/SLE

49
Q

List signs, symptoms and treatment of pericarditis

A 
Sharp, central chest pain
Worse on inspiration 
Radiates to left shoulder
Eased by sitting forward
\+/- dyspnoea
\+/- fever 
Increased heart rate, respiratory rate
Pericardial friction rub/knock
Kussmaul's sogn
Pulsus paradoxus 
Treatment - treat cause, bed rest, oral NSAIDs/corticosteroid, pericardial window, pericardiectomy
50
Q

What are Kussmaul’s sign, pulsus paradoxus and beck’s triad

A

Kussmaul’s sign - JVP raises paradoxically with inspiration
Pulsus paradoxus - systolic pressure weakens in inspiration by >10mmHg
Beck’s triad - raised JVP, low BP, muffled heart sounds

51
Q

Describe the management of pericardial effusion/cardiac tamponade

A

medical emergency
ABC, IV access, ECG, bloods
Pericardiocentesis –> drain
(Insert needle at level of xiphisternum, aim for tip of left scapula, aspirate continuously)

52
Q

Describe ECG changes of pericarditis

A

Saddle ST elevation –> T wave flattening –> T wave inversion

53
Q

Describe different types of oxygen devices that provide supplemental oxygen

A

Nasal cannulae:
Non acute situations or mild hypoxia
Deliver 24-40%
Flow rate 1-4L/min

Simple face mask:
Step up from nasal cannulae but not fixed FiO2
Delivers 30-40%
Flow rate 5-10L/min

Venturi mask:
Delivers 24-60% (24 blue 2-4L, 28 white 4-6L, 35 yellow 8-10L, 40 red 10-12L, 60 green 12-15L)

Non rebreather (reservoir) mask:
Acutely unwell patients
Delivers 85-90%
Flow rate 15L/min

NIV (CPAP/BiPAP):
CPAP for sleep apnoea, HF, acute PE
BiPAP for COPD, atelectasis, ARDS

Invasive ventilation:
Used in intensive care, theatre
Delivers 100%

54
Q

Describe different severities of asthma in an acute setting

A

Mild - no features of severe, PEFR >75%
Moderate - no features of severe, PEFR 50-75%
Severe - PEFR 33-50%, cannot complete sentences in one breath, HR >110, RR >25
Life threatening - PEFR <33%, sats <92% or ABG pO2 <8kPa, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, near or full silent chest, exhaustion, confusion, low BP, arrhythmia, normal pCO2
Near fatal - high pCO2

55
Q

Describe the management of asthma

A

Chronic:
BTS guidelines - SABA –> ICS –> +LABA –> increase dose ICS /+LTRA or theophylline –> increase dose ICS /+LTRA or LAMA –> oral steroid
Emergency:
ABCDE, O2, ABG if sats <92%
5mg neb. salbutamol
40mg oral prednisolone STAT or IV hydrocortisone
500 micrograms neb. ipratropium bromide (severe)
ITU/anaesthetist, IV aminophylline or salbutamol (life threatening/near fatal)

56
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of COPD

A

Mucous gland hyperplasia
Loss of cilia function
Emphysema
Chronic inflammation
Fibrosis of small airways
Chronic bronchitis = cough/sputum production on most days for 3 months of 2 consecutive years
Emphysema = enlarged air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles with destruction of alveolar walls

57
Q

Describe the management of COPD

A

Stable:
Smoking cessation, pulmonary rehabilitation, diet, vaccinations, antimuscarinic/B2 agonist, steroids
(Infective) exacerbation:
ABCDE, O2 via Venturi mask, salbutamol nebs/ipratropium bromide, steroid 30 mg STAT then OD, antibiotics, CXR, consider NIV or ITU referral

58
Q

What are the requirements for LTOT?

A

Non smoker
PaO2 <7.3kPa or <8kPa if cor pulmonale
16 hours/day

59
Q

Describe different severities of COPD

A 
All FVC <0.7
Stage 1 Mild - FEV1 >80% predicted
Stage 2 Moderate - FEV1 50-79% predicted
Stage 3 Severe - FEV1 30-49% predicted 
Stage 4 Very Severe - FEV1 <30% predicted
60
Q

List likely organisms for different types of pneumonia

A

CAP - streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilis influenza, mycoplasma pneumoniae, staph. aureus, legionella, moraxella catarrhalis, chlamydia
HAP - G-be enterobacteria, staph. aureus, pseudomonas, klebsiella, bacteroides
Aspiration - orophangeal anaerobes
Immunocompromised - pneumocystis jiroveci, strep. pneumoniae, h. influenzae, s. aureus, m. catarrhalis, m. pneumoniae

61
Q

Explain a scoring system used to determine severity of pneumonia

A 
CURB-65 
Confusion <8 in abbreviated mental test 
Urea >7 mmol/L 
RR >30/min
BP <90 systolic +/- 60 diastolic
>65 years old 
0-1 = home treatment 
2 = hospital therapy
3 = Severe, consider ITU
62
Q

Describe management of pneumonia

A

ABC - pO2 >8.0 +/- sats >94%, IV fluids, VTE prophylaxis, analgesia
Antibiotics according to local guidelines
Mild - oral amox (500mg/8h)
Moderate - oral amox (500mg/8h) + clarithromycin (500mg/12h)
Severe - IV co-amox (1.2g/8h) + clarithromycin (500mg/12h)
HAP - aminoglycoside + 3rd gen cephalosporin IV
Aspiration - cephalosporin + metronidazole IV

63
Q

List some causes of non resolving pneumonia and some other complications

A 
Complications - respiratory failure, hypotension, AF, pleural effusion, empyema, lung abscess, septicaemia, pericarditis, myocarditis, jaundice
Host immunocompromised
Antibiotic - dose too low
Organism - resistance
Second diagnosis - PE, cancer
64
Q

List some clinical features of TB

A

Fever, night sweats, malaise, weight loss
Respiratory - cough, sputum, haemoptysis, pleural effusion
Non respiratory - erythema nodosum, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, pericardial effusion, meningitis

65
Q

Describe treatment for TB including monitoring required and important ADRs

A

Check patient’s weight
Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol - 2 months
Rifampicin, isoniazid - 4 months
Monitor LFTs, visual acuity, counsel re contraception
ADRs:
Rifampicin - hepatitis, orange secretions, no OCP
Isoniazid - hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, psychosis
Pyrazinamide - hepatitis, optic neuritis, vomiting, arthralgia
Ethambutol - retrobulbar neuritis

66
Q

List clinical features of pleural effusion and investigations done on pleural aspirate

A

Dyspnoea, pleuritic chest pain, decreased lung expansion, decreased breath sounds, stony dull to percussion, bronchial breathing, tracheal deviation away
USS guided pleural aspiration - protein, pH, LDH, glucose, amylase

67
Q

List some causes of pleural effusion

A

Transudate - HF, cirrhosis, hypoalbuminaemia (nephrotic syndrome, peritoneal dialysis), hypothyroidism, mitral stenosis, PE, constrictive pericarditis, SCV obstruction
Exudate - malignancy, infection (TB, HIV), inflammatory (RA, pancreatitis, dressler’s), yellow nail syndrome, fungal infections, drugs

68
Q

What is Light’s criteria?

A

Used if pleural fluid protein is 25-35g/L
Fluid is an exudate if:
Pleural fluid/serum protein >0.5
Pleural fluid/serum LDH >0.6
Pleural fluid LDH is 2/3 upper limit of normal

69
Q

List signs, symptoms and management of a pneumothorax

A

Asymptomatic, sudden onset dyspnoea, pleuritic chest pain
Decreased lung expansion, hyperresonance to percussion, decreased breath sounds, trachea deviated away (tension)
Management:
BTS guidelines - O2, aspirate, chest drain
If tension (medical emergency) - large bore needle with saline syringe in 2nd intercostal space MCL, chest drain

70
Q

List risk factors for a PE

A 
Recent surgery (abdo, pelvic, hip, knee)
Thrombophilia e.g. antiphospholipid syndrome 
Leg fracture
Prolonged bed rest, decreased mobility
Malignancy (breast, prostate, pelvis)
Pregnancy/post partum/OCP/HRT
Previous PE
71
Q

List clinical features, treatment and prevention of PE

A

Clinical features - acute breathlessness, pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, dizziness, syncope, pyrexia, cyanosis, high RR/HR, low BP, raised JVP, pleural rub, pleural effusion, DVT signs
Treatment - anticoagulation (LMWH) until INR >2, start warfarin (for 3 months), thrombolysis
Prevention - compression stockings, heparin, early mobilisation, stop OCP/HRT pre-op

72
Q

List some risk factors, clinical features and complications of lung cancer

A

Risk factors - high smoking pack years, increased age (>40), FH of lung history, carcinogen exposure
Clinical features - cough, haemoptysis, dyspnoea, chest pain, anorexia, weight loss, cachexia, anaemia, clubbing, lymphadenopathy, consolidation, collapse, pleural effusion, bone tenderness, hepatomegaly (mets)
Complications - SVC obstruction, Horner’s syndrome, paraneoplastic syndrome (high Ca, SIADH, Cushing’s/Addison’s)

73
Q

Describe the TNM staging for NSCLC

A

Primary tumour (T)
Tx malignant cells in bronchial secretions, no other evidence of tumour
TIS - carcinoma in situ
T0 - none evident
T1 - <3cm, in lobar or more distal airway
T2 - >3cm and >2cm distal to carina or any size if pleural involvement or obstructive pneumonitis extending to hilum but not all the lung
T3 - involves chest wall, diaphragm, mediastinal pleura, pericardium, or <2cm from but not at carina. T >7cm diameter and nodules in same lobe
T4 - involves mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, oesophagus, vertebral body, carina, malignant effusion or nodules in another lobe

Regional nodes (N)
N0 - none involved (after mediastinoscopy)
N1 - peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilum
N2 - ipsilateral mediastinum or subcarinal
N3 - contralateral mediastinum or hilum, scalene or supraclavicular

Distant metastasis (M)
M0 - none
M1a - nodule in other lung, pleural lesions or malignant effusions
M1b - distant metastases present

74
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnoea? How is it diagnosed and managed?

A

Intermittent closure/collapse of pharyngeal airway –> apnoeic episodes terminated by partial arousal
>15 episodes in 1 hour
Epworth Sleepiness Scale score >9
Polysomnography
Treatment - weight loss, no evening alcohol, mandibular advancement devices, pharyngeal surgery, CPAP, gastroplasty, tracheostomy

75
Q

When should an ABG measurement be considered

A

Unexpected deterioration in an ill patient
Acute exacerbation of a chronic chest condition
Impaired consciousness or impaired respiratory effort
Signs of CO2 retention (bounding pulse, drowsy, tremor, headache)
Cyanosis, confusion, visual hallucinations
Validate measurements from pulse oximetry

76
Q

List causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on CXR

A

Sarcoidosis
Infection (TB, mycoplasma)
Malignancy (lymphoma, carcinoma, mediastinal tumours)
Organic dust disease (silicosis, berylliosis)
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

77
Q

List differentials of granulomatous disease

A

Infections - TB, leprosy, syphillis, cat scratch fever, schistosomiasis
Autoimmune - primary biliary cirrhosis, granulomatous orchitis
Vasculitis - GCA, polyarteritis nodosa, takayasu’s arteritis, Wegener’s granulomatosis
Idiopathic - Crohn’s disease, de Quervain’s thyroiditis, sarcoidosis

78
Q

List differentials for a nodule in the lung on a CXR

A 
Malignancy (primary/secondary)
Abscesses
Granuloma
Carcinoid tumour
Arterio-venous malformation
Encysted effusion (fluid, blood, pus)
Cyst
Foreign body
Skin tumour (seborrhoeic wart)
79
Q

List some causes of an upper lobe infection

A

Aspergillosis
TB
Klebsiella
Staph. aureus

Phase 2 (11 decks)

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