Cardiology Formative Flashcards

1
Q

The chambers of the heart possess unique, distinguishing features enabling them to function effectively and efficiently. The right atrium possesses:

a) A bicuspid valve leading to the right ventricle
b) An opening for the azygos vein
c) An opening for the coronary sinus
e) An oval fossa in its anterior wall

A

C

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2
Q

Which of these is NOT a shared feature of skeletal and cardiac muscle?

a) Myocytes in both are electrically connected via gap-junctions
b) The duration of the depolarising phase of the action potential in both is less than 5msec
c) They both exhibit sustained contraction (tetanus) in response to high frequency stimulation
d) They both have an unstable resting membrane potential
e) None of the above features are shared in common

A

E

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3
Q

During embryological development, which of the following gives rise to the common carotids?

a) 2nd pair of aortic arches
b) 3rd pair of aortic arches
c) 4th pair of aortic arches
d) 5th pair of aortic arches
e) 6th pair of aortic arches

A

B

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4
Q

The arteries function as resistance vessels because:

a) They only allow blood flow in 1 direction
b) They have a relatively narrow lumen and a thin elastic wall
c) They have a relatively narrow lumen and strong muscular wall
d) They have a relatively wide lumen and strong muscular wall
e) The statement is wrong- arterioles are not resistance vessels

A

C

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5
Q

In the heart, the fast depolarising phase of the cardiac action potential is caused by:

a) Influx of Ca2+
b) Influx of Cl-
c) Influx of K+
d) Influx of Mg2+
e) Influx of Na+

A

E

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6
Q

In the electrocardiogram, depolarisation of the atria corresponds to the:

a) P-wave
b) QRS complex
c) T-wave
d) U-wave
e) None of these

A

A

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7
Q

The second heart sound is heard when:

a) Blood enters the aorta
b) The atria contract
c) The atrioventricular valves close
d) The atrioventricular valves open
e) The seminal valves close

A

E

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8
Q

A HR in excess of 150bpm is likely too:

a) Decreased afterload and therefore decrease stroke volume
b) Decreased contractility and therefore decrease stroke volume
d) Increase after load and therefore decrease stroke volume
e) Increase preload and therefore decrease stroke volume

A

C

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9
Q

Activation of B1-adrenoceptors on cardiac myocytes will:

a) Increase afterload and therefore decrease stroke volume
b) Increase afterload and therefore increase stroke volume
c) Increase contractility and therefore increase stroke volume
d) Increase preload and therefore decrease stroke volume
e) Increase preload and therefore increase stroke volume

A

C

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10
Q

Which of the following is the most significant feature of the pulmonary circulation:

a) Most pulmonary blood flow occurs during diastole
b) Pulmonary arterioles constrict in response to local hypoxia
c) Pulmonary arterioles express B1- adrenoreceptors
d) The pulmonary circulation shows excellent pressure autoregulation
e) The pulmonary circulation shows good active (metabolic) hyperaemia

A

B

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11
Q

During exercise, venous pressure (and hence venous return to the heart) may be increased by:

a) An increase in the systemic filling pressure
b) Contraction of smooth muscle surrounding the veins
c) Increased rate and depth of respiration
d) Rhythmic contraction of skeletal muscle
e) All of the above

A

E

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12
Q

A 46-year-old woman is usually well but complains of intermittent rapid regular palpitations that are terminated by the valsalva manoeuvre. Which arrhythmia does she suffer?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

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13
Q

A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents to the acute medical admissions unit with sudden onset of severe breathlessness, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. She is tachycardia with an elevated JVP, crackles in both lung fields to the mizzens and significant peripheral oedema.
Select the most appropriate drug treatment:
a) ACEi
b) ARB
c) Beta-Blocker
d) IV diuretic
e) Oral diuretic

A

D

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14
Q

A 65-year-old with a BP of 220/90 mmHg complains of breathlessness and fatigue.
Select the single most informative investigation that could be used to determine the cause of his hypertension:
a) chest x-ray
b) Echocardiography
c) Renal Arteriography
d) Renal ultrasound
e) Serum potassium

A

C

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15
Q

A 40yo man presents with severe hypertension. You believe he may suffer from “white coat hypertension”
Select the single most informative investigation that could be used to confirm this:
a) 24 hour ABPM
b) 24 hour urinary catecholamines
c) Echocardiography
d) Renal arteriography
e) Renal ultrasound

A

A

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16
Q

A 26yo lady in the first trimester of pregnancy presents with deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

a) Aspirin
b) clopidogrel
c) LMWH
d) Thrombolysis
e) Warfarin

A

C

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17
Q

What is the congenital condition that is associated with coarctation of the aorta, short stature, neck webbing and gonadal dysgenesis?

a) Down Syndrome
b) Noonan Syndrome
c) Shprintzen Syndrome
d) Turner Syndrome
e) Williams Syndrome

A

D

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18
Q

Which congenital condition causes mainly atrioventricular septal defects?

A

Down syndrome

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19
Q

Which congenital condition is associated with pulmonary stenosis and septal defects

A

Noonan Syndrome

20
Q

Which congenital condition is associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Shprintzen Syndrome

22q11 leading to DiGeorge syndrome

21
Q

What cardiovascular defect is williams syndrome associated with?

A

Supravalvular aortic stenosis

22
Q

What 4 conditions make up tetralogy of fallot?

A

Overriding aorta
Pulmonary stenosis
Ventricular septal defects
Right ventricular hypertrophy

23
Q

A 70 yo male who routinely walks his dog, presents with pain in the back of his calves after walking 500 meters.
What is the most likely cause?

A

Intermittent claudication

24
Q

A newborn infant with a murmur is found to have an atrioventricular septal defect on cardiology. The baby is hypotonic.
The most likely diagnosis is:
a) 22q11 microdeletion
b) Down syndrome
c) Fetal alcohol syndrome
d) Multifactorial congenital heart disease
e) Turner syndrome

A

B

25
Q

A 70yo man presents with an ulcer of his left leg. His sleep is being interrupted by severe lower limb pain.

a) Chronic venous insufficiency
b) Critical limb ischaemia
c) Diabetic neuropathy
d) Post-phlebitic syndrome
e) Squamous carcinoma

A

B

26
Q

What imaging investigations would you consider in Marfans?

A

Chest x-ray (apical blebs)
Echocardiogram
Pelvic X-ray (protrusio acetabulae)
MRI scan of lumbar spine (dural ectasia=widening of the dural sac)

27
Q

What are the main treatments for preventing aortic dissection in marfans?

A

Antihypertensives (Beta-blockers, ACEi, ARB, CCBs)
Prophylactic aortic root surgery
Lifestyle advice (avoid heavy exertion, contact sports)

28
Q

Name 3 systolic murmurs

A

Aortic sclerosis
Aortic stenosis
Mitral regurgitation

29
Q

What are the clinical findings of mitral regurgitation?

A

Heard loudest at the apex
Radiates to the axilla
Pan systolic murmur
Maximal on expiration

30
Q

What are the clinical findings of aortic stenosis?

A

slow rising upstroke in the pulse waveform
low output pulse
murmur radiating to the carotids

31
Q

What differentiates sclerosis from stenosis of the aorta

A

Aortic sclerosis doesn’t radiate to carotids

32
Q

With heart murmurs what 3 basic investigations should be carried out in primary care prior to hospital referral?

A

FBC
Chest X-ray
ECG

33
Q

What happens to the 1st and 2nd aortic arches?

A

Disappear early.

Remnant of 1st arch forms part of the maxillary artery (branch of external carotid artery)

34
Q

What is the 3rd aortic arch?

A

Constitutes the commencement of the internal carotid artery.

Therefore named the carotid arch

35
Q

Which aortic arches form the right subclavian

A

4th Right arch

36
Q

Which aortic arch forms the arch of the aorta?

A

4th Left arch

37
Q

What do the 5th aortic arches form

A

They disappear on both sides

38
Q

What do the 6th aortic arches form?

A

Pulmonary arteries

39
Q

What does Pousielle’s law tell us?

A

The radius has a powerful effect on the resistance (R^4)

40
Q

The resting membrane potential is due to what?

A

Leaky potassium channels which allow potassium ions to flow down their concentration gradient

41
Q

What causes the plateau of non-pacemaker action potentials?

A

Opening of L-type voltage gated calcium channels

Closure of leaky potassium channels

42
Q

What causes repolarisation of non-pacemaker cells

A

Closure of L-type calcium channels

Opening of leaky potassium channels

43
Q

What two arrhythmias cause irregular palpitations?

A

Atrial fibrillation and ventricular ectopics

44
Q

What are the signs of heart failure?

A

PND, Elevated JVP, lung field crackles, peripheral oedema

45
Q

What is the treatment of acute heart failure?

A

IV diuretics