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CCE AR version > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is unstable angina?

A

Chest pain which occurs at rest and is >10 mins duration
Severe and new onset
Crescendo pattern: episodes are worse than those previously

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2
Q

What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Due to mutations (inherited or spontaneous) in genes encoding myocyte contractile filament proteins
Ventricular hyper trophy with systolic dysfunction
Cause of sudden death in young people

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3
Q

What is rheumatic heart disease?

A

Results from acute rheumatic fever often precipitated by strep pyogenes
Streptococcal antigens cross react with myocardial antigens, resulting in an autoimmune response against heart valves, most often mitral and aortic valves

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4
Q

What is dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilation of all 4 chambers of the heart and thinning of ventricle wall
Caused by: viral infections, endocrine disease, chronic alcohol use, severe protein malnutrition

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5
Q

What is pancarditis?

A

Triad of endocarditis, myocarditis and pericarditis

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6
Q

A 24 year old man has been admitted to a surgical ward for treatment of an abscess on his back. He is due to for theatre tomorrow and his pre operative ECG shows ST elevation. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

A

Organise ECHO as an outpatient

Changes are that of an athletic heart with mild ST elevation and prominent T waves

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7
Q

What is Wolff Parkinson white syndrome?

A

Abnormal accessory electrical conduction pathway between atria and ventricles called bundle of Kent
This may stimulate ventricles to contract prematurely, resulting in supraventricular tachycardia

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8
Q

What prophylaxis should be given for DVT?

A

Once daily low molecular weight heparin

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9
Q

How is DVT most reliably diagnosed?

A

Venography

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10
Q

In what proportion of patients is DVT clinically apparent?

A

70% of cases

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11
Q

Which organs can cause central chest pain?

A 
Heart
Lungs 
Thoracic wall
Great vessels
Stomach
Pancreas
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12
Q

What are the cardiac causes of central chest pain?

A 
Acute coronary syndrome
Myocardial infarction 
Pericarditis 
Arrhythmias 
Cardiac failure 
Dissection
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13
Q

What features of a history would support a theory of a cardiac cause for central chest pain?

A

Central / L-sided
Sudden, on exertion
Crushing, heaviness, sharp
Classically into L arm/neck, may be none
Sweating, SOB, fever, palpitations, associated risk factors
Constant, worsening, periodic on exertion or at rest
Exacerbating: exertion (MI), inspiration/lying flat (Pericarditis)
Alleviating: GTN (MI), leaning forward (Pericarditis)
Severity – 0 -10

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14
Q

For cardiac causes of central chest pain, what would you look for on examination?

A

Around the bed: GTN spray
End of the bed: comfortable/uncomfortable, sweating
Pulse: regular/irregular, character, rate
BP: may be high if in pain, worrying if low
JVP: may be raised if constrictive pericarditis or cardiac
tamponade
Cardiac examination: may be normal (MI, ACS); pericardial friction rub (Pericarditis); Evidence of valvular disease (Arrhythmias)
Peripheral oedema

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15
Q

What would expect in history/examination of a patient with aortic dissection?

A

History: very acute, sharp, tearing, radiating into the back, associated with hemiplegia/paraplegia or acute limb ischaemia as dissection progresses
Examination: Unequal pulses/BP between arms, may be hemiplegia / paraplegia

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16
Q

What are the respiratory causes of central chest pain?

A

Pneumonia
Pneumothorax
PE

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17
Q

What factors in the history would make you suspect a respiratory cause of central chest pain?

A

Central or L/R sided
Sudden (PE/Pneumothorax), gradual (Pneumonia)
Sharp
SOB, fever, cough (productive/non-productive), haemoptysis, associated risk factors
Constant (PE/Pneumothorax) or intermittent
Exacerbating: inspiration, coughing
Severity – 0 -10

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18
Q

What might you expect to find on examination for a respiratory cause of central chest pain?

A

Around the bed: sputum pot, inhalers
End of the bed: comfortable/ uncomfortable, visibly short of breath
Hands: cyanosis
BP: worrying if low
Mouth: cyanosis
Chest: Pneumonia – bronchial breathing, creps, dull percussion note (assoc effusion), use of accessory muscles
- Pneumothorax – deviated trachea, absent breath sounds,
hyperresonant percussion note
- PE – may be normal apart from raised respiratory rate

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19
Q

What are thoracic wall causes for central chest pain?

A

Costochondritis
Rib fractures
Herpes zoster

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20
Q

What features in a history and examination would make you suspect Costochondritis as a cause of chest pain?

A

Usually L or R sided, sharp, worse on inspiration, may have recently had cough/pneumonia
Evidence of pneumonia, chest pain is reproducible on palpation, usually at costosternal junction

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21
Q

What features in the history and examination would make you suspect rib fractures as a cause of chest pain?

A

Usually L or R sided, sharp, worse on inspiration, history of trauma
Evidence of trauma elsewhere, overlying bruising or visible flail segment, localised tenderness, significant shortness of breath

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22
Q

What features in the history and examination would make you suspect herpes zoster as a cause for chest pain?

A

Dermatomal pattern, vesicular lesions visible within a single dermatome, may be normal examination

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23
Q

What are some abdominal causes of central chest pain?

A

Perforated peptic ulcer
Pancreatitis
GORD
Cholecystitis

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24
Q

What features from a history and examination would make you think of a ruptured peptic ulcer as a cause of chest pain?

A

Sudden onset, sharp, associated with vomiting/abdominal pain/sweating, risk factors (alcohol excess,previous GORD or ulcer) will look uncomfortable, may be tachycardic and hypotensive, cold peripheries, chest examination may well be normal apart from raised RR, abdominal examination – epigastric tenderness, guarding, rebound

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25
Q

What features in the history and examination would make you suspect pancreatitis as a cause for central chest pain?

A

Gradual but worsening, dull, radiation to back, associated with vomiting/abdominal pain, risk factors (alcohol excess,previous gallstones or pancreatitis)
Look uncomfortable, tachycardic and hypotensive, cold peripheries, chest examination may well be normal apart from raised RR,
abdominal examination – epigastric tenderness, guarding,
rebound
Grey-Turner’s sign or Cullen’s sign

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26
Q

What features in the history and examination would make you suspect GORD as a cause for central chest pain?

A

Intermittent, burning, radiation into throat, associated with certain foods, may be worse on lying flat
Examination will be largely normal

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27
Q

What is buergers test?

A

Assesses arterial circulation of lower limb
Raise patients leg and observe angle at which there is blanching. After one minute, lower legs so dependent with feet on floor
If reactive hyperaemia is observed - arterial insufficiency present

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28
Q

How do you differentiate between an anterior MI and pericarditis on an ECG?

A

Anterior MI: convex, upwards, gravestone sign ST elevation in leads V1-5
Pericarditis: concave, downwards ST elevation

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29
Q

What would a posterior MI look like on an ECG?

A

Dominant R wave in lead V1 and posterior leads V5-8 revealing ST elevation

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30
Q

What does a PE look like on an ECG?

A

SI QIII TIII acute cor pulmonale, right heart strain

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31
Q

A 55 year old male presents with weight gain and shortness of breath, he has a long history of chronic airway disease. On examination he has a raised JVP with prominent v waves and auscultation of the heart reveals a soft systolic murmur. What is the likely cardiological defect?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

Elevated right sided pressures following pulmonary hypertension

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32
Q

A 22 year old female presents with a six month history of deteriorating shortness of breath. She has turners syndrome. On examination she has a blood pressure of 162/88 and has a harsh ejection systolic murmur over the aortic and pulmonary areas. What is the likely cardiological defect?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

Hypertension and ejection systolic murmur

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33
Q

A man in his 30s presents with cadiac type chest pain and has had an MI. On further investigation he is found to have familial Hypercholesterolaemia but normal triglycerides. Biochemically what is the underlying abnormality?

A

Defective LDL receptors

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34
Q

What is Flecainide?

A

Class 1c sodium channel blocker that is used for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation

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35
Q

What class of anti arrhythmic is atenolol?

A

Class II

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36
Q

What is Amiodarone?

A

Class III anti arrhythmic drug that prolongs the action potential by blocking K channels

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37
Q

What is digoxin? What is it used for as an anti arrhythmic?

A

Positive Inotrope that increases vagal activity

Used in atrial fib and flutter

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38
Q

What is the mechanism of adenosine as an anti arrhythmic drug?

A

Causes hyperpolarisation when bound to its receptor therefore decreases the pacemaker potential slope

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39
Q

In which patients might a silent MI occur?

A

Elderly
Hypertensive
Diabetes

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40
Q

What dose of aspirin should be given in an acute MI?

A

300mg PO immediately reduces mortality

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41
Q

What condition typically has a pericardial rub on auscultation?

A

Pericarditis

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42
Q

What could result from inappropriate thrombolysis of pericarditis?

A

Haemopericardium

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43
Q

What are some absolute contraindications for thrombolysis?

A

Active internal bleeding
Suspected aortic dissection
Recent head trauma/intracranial neoplasm
Previous haemorrhagic stroke at any time
Previous ischaemic stroke in the past year
Previous allergic reaction to fibrinolytic agent
Trauma/surgery within 2 weeks at risk of bleeding

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44
Q

What is a gallop rhythm?

A

Presence of S3 and S4 at a rate making it impossible to accurately distinguish the two

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45
Q

What is the acute management for an MI?

A 
High flow oxygen 
300mg aspirin chewed 
5mg IV morphine 
300mg clopidogrel 
GTN spray
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46
Q

What is the acute management for left ventricular heart failure?

A

High flow oxygen
2.5-5mg diamorphine IV
40mg furosemide IV
Two puffs GTN spray

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47
Q

What are the risk factors assessed for in the CHA2DS2 VASc

A 
C: congestive heart failure
H: hypertension
A: age >75 (2) 
D: diabetes
S: stroke or Tia history (2)
V: vascular disease history 
A: age 65-74 
S: female
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48
Q

What are the Ts and Hs which are major contributing factors to pulseless arrest?

A 
Hypovolaemia
Hypoxia
Hydrogen ions (acidosis)
Hyper/hypokalaemia
Hypoglycaemia 
Hypothermia 
Toxins
Tamponade
Tension pneumothorax
Thrombosis 
Trauma
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49
Q

What 4 things should be done in the acute management of an MI?

A

Morphine
Oxygen
Nitrates
Aspirin

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50
Q

What is PCI?

A

Percutaneous coronary intervention
Revascularisation technique
Non surgical widening of the coronary artery using a balloon catheter. A stent is placed after dilation

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51
Q

What is the target door to balloon time in a STEMI patient needing PCI?

A

90 minutes

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52
Q

What drugs are required post PCI procedure?

A

Dual anti platelet therapy: aspirin and clopidogrel

53
Q

What are possible complications of PCI?

A

Stent thrombosis: acute MI with high mortality

Restenosis: excessive healing of vessel wall, angina symptoms

54
Q

What are the main contraindications to thrombolysis?

A 
Bleeding disorder
History of recent haemorrhage
Trauma
Surgery
Acute cerebrovascular event
55
Q

What should be given to patients presenting with ACS 12 hours after onset of symptoms where reperfusion therapy is not possible?

A

Aspirin
Clopidogrel
Anti thrombin agent: heparin, enoxaparin or fondaparinux

56
Q

What factors determine whether PCI or CABG is used in an MI patient?

A

PCI: Short, non calcified lesion on straight unbranched artery. Single or 2 vessel disease
CABG: longer, calcified lesions in tortuous vessels, involving major bifurcations, chronic occlusions, left anterior descending involvement, patients with diabetes, LV dysfunction or strongly positive exercise test

57
Q

What are possible complications of CABG?

A 
MI
AKI
Ventricular arrhythmia 
Stroke
Low output state requiring supportive measures
58
Q

What long term medications should a patient be on after an MI?

A

Antiplatelet: low dose aspirin, clopidogrel
Beta blocker
ACE inhibitor
Cholesterol lowering agent

59
Q

What are common and rare causes of atrial fibrillation?

A 
Mitral valve disease
Hypertension 
Myocardial ischaemia
Hyperthyroidism 
Alcohol 
Rarer: Endocarditis
Constrictive pericarditis 
Pneumonia
60
Q

What investigations are useful for AF?

A 
ECG
FBC: anaemia can complicate 
TFTs
Echo 
24 hour ECG tape
U&Es
61
Q

If an apex beat is described as heaving, what is the underlying mumur?

A

Aortic stenosis

Left ventricular hypertrophy

62
Q

If an apex beat is in the sixth intercostal space and is thrusting in nature. What is the underlying murmur?

A

Aortic regurgitation

Volume overload

63
Q

If an apex beat is described as tapping in nature, what is the underlying murmur?

A

Mitral stenosis

Opening snap

64
Q

Which drug is considered first line to treat AF with rate control?

A

B blocker

65
Q

What is the embryological origin of the diaphragm?

A

Mesoderm of second pharyngeal arch

66
Q

What is the embryological origin of the cardiac muscle?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

67
Q

A 35 year old man diagnosed with HTN. He has visible pulsation a suprasternal notch, heaving apex beat and a continuous bruit best heard over back. What pulse abnormality would you expect to feel?

A

Radio femoral delay

HTN in young with abnormal pulse think of coarctation of aorta

68
Q

A 65 year old female with a tapping apex best, loud first heart sound, opening snap and rumbling mid diastolic murmur best heard medial to apex beat. No pre systolic accentuation of the murmur. What pulse abnormality would you expect to feel?

A

Irregular pulse
she has mitral stenosis
Patient is likely to develop AF

69
Q

A 68 year old man with a heaving apex beat, soft single second heart sound and harsh ejection systolic murmur radiating to neck, what pulse abnormality would you expect to find?

A

Anacrotic
He has systolic overload - aortic stenosis or severe systemic HTN. Soft second heart sound and neck radiation suggests AS
Character of pulse is small volume and slow rising - anacrotic

70
Q

When does pulsus paradoxus occur?

A

Severe obstructive airway disease

Decreased venous return to left atrium that normally occurs is exaggerated

71
Q

When does pulsus alternans occur?

A

Left ventricular failure

72
Q

When do you hear a soft first heart sound?

A

Mitral regurgitation

Poor apposition of mitral valves prior to systole

73
Q

When would you expect to hear a gallop rhythm with a third heart sound?

A

Congestive cardiac failure

Stretching of the ventricles during diastolic filling, restriction to the stretch causes a jarring noise

74
Q

What is corrigans sign?

A

Rapid upstroke and collapse of the carotid pulse associated with a decrescendo diastolic murmur
Associated with aortic regurgitation, water hammer pulse best felt in the carotids

75
Q

What is kussmauls sign?

A

Elevated jvp which rises on inspiration and has a knock on auscultation of the heart
Constrictive pericarditis/ pericardial effusion

76
Q

What are some risk factors for atrial fibrillation?

A 
COPD 
IHD/MI
Thyrotoxicosis 
Mitral stenosis 
Pneumonia 
PE
Sepsis
77
Q

What causes an s3 gallop?

A

Heart failure

78
Q

What are causes of complete heart block?

A

MI
Cardiac operations
Rheumatic disease
Drugs

79
Q

50 year old female with worsening SOB on exertion and orthopnoea. On examination, tapping apex, loud first heart sound and apical rumbling mid diastolic murmur. What is it?

A

Mitral stenosis

80
Q

What are common causes of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever
Congenital
SLE/RA

81
Q

What are some complications of mitral stenosis?

A

Atrial fibrillation
Embolism
Infective endocarditis

82
Q

30 year old female with palpitations, SOB on exertion. On examination she has a high arched palate, arm span greater than her height. Soft first heart sound, mid systolic click and apical blowing late systolic murmur radiating to axilla. What is it? And what does she have?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

Marfans syndrome

83
Q

Name some causes of mitral valve prolapse

A 
Connective tissue disorders: Marfans, ehlers danlos
DMD
Fragile X syndrome
Congenital heart disease 
Ebstein anomaly 
Ischaemic heart disease
84
Q

80 year old man presents with exertional syncope. On examination he has slow rising carotid pulse and loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper right sternal edge, radiating to carotids. What is it?

A

Aortic stenosis

85
Q

What are some causes of aortic stenosis?

A

Congenital bicuspid valve
Rheumatic fever
Senile calcification

86
Q

What is the classical triad of symptoms for aortic stenosis?

A

Chest pain
Heart failure
Syncope

87
Q

55 year oral female presets with ankle swelling. On examination, early diastolic murmur at aortic area. Loudest with the patient sitting forward in expiration. What is it?

A

Aortic regurgitation

88
Q

What are some causes for aortic regurgitation?

A 
Rheumatic fever
Infective endocarditis
Trauma
Aortic dissection 
Marfans 
Ankylosing spondylitis 
RA
SLE 
HTN
89
Q

An otherwise healthy female of 6 months is found to have a continuous machinery murmur at the upper left apex during routine examination at baby clinic. What is it?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

90
Q

What might a child with patent ductus arteriosus have a history of?

A 
Premature birth
Perinatal distress 
Born at extreme altitude 
Failure to thrive 
Low birth weight
91
Q

What can be used to close a patent ductus arteriosus if there are no other heart abnormalities?

A

Indomethacin

92
Q

On auscultation there is a soft first heart sound, what is this?

A

Mitral regurgitation: poor apposition of mitral valves prior to systole

93
Q

On auscultation there is a gallop rhythm with a third heart sound. What is this?

A

Congestive cadiac failure: stretching of the ventricles during diastolic filling being restricted, creating a jarring noise

94
Q

On auscultation there is a loud first heart sound and an opening snap heard in diastole, what is it?

A

Mitral stenosis: close proximity of tethered valves, high velocity closure of leaflets - loud first heart sound
Opening snap - rapid opening of a pliable valve, as it becomes more calcified this may disappear

95
Q

List some causes of atrial fibrillation

A 
Thyrotoxicosis 
Mitral valve disease 
Congenital heart disease 
Cardiac surgery
Pericarditis 
Ischaemic heart disease 
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia 
Sepsis 
Alcohol
Excess caffeine 
Cardiomyopathy
Sleep apnoea
96
Q

What are the 3 main modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease?

A

Hyperlipidaemia
Smoking
Hypertension

97
Q

An 84 year old patient is incidentally found to have an ejection systolic murmur loudest over the second right intercostal space. The patient is asymptomatic and an echo reported no pressure gradient across the valve. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Aortic sclerosis

98
Q

An 84 year old patient is incidentally found to have an ejection systolic murmur loudest over the second right intercostal space. The patient is asymptomatic and an echo reported no pressure gradient across the valve. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Aortic sclerosis

99
Q

In a patient newly diagnosed with HTN who is 50 and Caucasian, what is the first line therapy?

A

ACE inhibitor

Under 55 and Caucasian

100
Q

Name some drugs which may cause Hyperkalaemia as a side effect?

A 
ACE inhibitors
Heparin
Ciclosporin
Amiloride 
Spironolactone 
Angiotensin II receptor blockers
101
Q

Where does the right coronary artery originate?

A

Right aortic sinus

102
Q

Where does the diagonal artery originate?

A

Anterior descending artery

103
Q

Where does the right atrioventricular nodal artery originate?

A

Right coronary artery near its termination

104
Q

Where does the left marginal artery originate?

A

Circumflex artery

105
Q

Describe the branches of the right coronary artery

A

60% individuals SA nodal artery
Right marginal
Posterior descending
AV nodal

106
Q

Describe the branches of the left coronary artery

A

40% individuals SA nodal
Left anterior descending, branches to give diagonal
Circumflex, branches to give left marginal

107
Q

A 56 year old male with a five year history of HTN attends ED complaining of severe chest pain which radiates to the back. He describes it as tearing in nature. He is tachycardic and hypertensive with a BP of 185/95 and a soft early diastolic murmur. The ECG shows st elevation of 2mm in inferior leads and there is a small left sided pleural effusion on chest X-ray. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Aortic dissection

Murmur is aortic regurgitation

108
Q

What examination findings might there be in a patient with pericardial constriction or effusion?

A 
Dyspnoea
Raised JVP
Pulsus paradoxus 
Pericardial knock
Pericardial rub 
Kussmauls sign
109
Q

What is the definition of orthostatic hypotension?

A

Fall in systolic BP of at least 20mmHg (30 in HTN), or diastolic of 10mmHg within 3 mins of standing

110
Q

How is perfusion rhythm maintained in complete heart block? What happens if this doesn’t occur?

A

Junctional or ventricular escape rhythm

Or ventricular standstill leading to syncope or sudden cardiac death

111
Q

What causes orthopnoea?

A

Left heart can’t cope with increased venous return when recumbent

112
Q

What causes PND?

A

Inability to cope with increased volume return when recumbent along with interstitial pulmonary oedema leading to increased airway resistance

113
Q

What are the categories of the chads2 VASc score?

A 
Congestive heart failure
Hypertension 
Age over 75
Diabetes 
Stroke
Vascular disease
Age 65-74
Sex
114
Q

How do you manage a haemodynamically stable patient with SMVT? What if they are pulseless?

A

IV arrhythmic: amiodarone, procaineamide, lidocaine

DC cardio version and CPR

115
Q

What are causes of aortic stenosis?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve
Age related calcification
Rheumatic fever

116
Q

What are signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis?

A 
Syncope
Angina
Dyspnoea 
Slow rising pulse 
Left ventricular hypertrophy 
Micro angiopathic haemolytic anaemia 
Systolic ejection murmur
117
Q

What are some causes of aortic regurgitation?

A

Tertiary syphilis
Connective tissue disorders
Endocarditis
Rheumatic fever

118
Q

What are signs and symptoms of aortic regurgitation?

A 
Fatigue 
Syncope
SOB
Palpitations
Widened pulse pressure 
Left ventricle dilation
S3 heart sound 
Displaced apex beat
Early diastolic murmur
119
Q

What are 3 mechanisms for arrythmogenesis?

A

Accelerated automaticity
Triggered activity
Re entry

120
Q

What is sick sinus syndrome and what can cause it?

A 
Fibrosis of sinus node
Idiopathic 
Ischaemic heart disease
Cardiomyopathy 
Myocarditis
121
Q

What are potential side effects of IV adenosine?

A 
Bronchospasm
Flushing
Chest pain
Heaviness of limbs
Sense of impending doom
122
Q

A 68 year old male presents with breathlessness and weight loss. He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes a day. On examination he has a raised JVP, two finger breadth pulsatile hepatomegaly and ankle oedema. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Congestive heart failure

Secondary to COPD

123
Q

What heart abnormality is pulsatile hepatomegaly a sign of?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

124
Q

A 55 year old male presents with weight gain and SOB. He has a long hx of chronic airway disease. On examination he has a raised jvp with prominent v waves. Auscultation of the heart reveals a soft systolic murmur. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

125
Q

60 year old man with chest pain, NSTEMI changes on ecg, pulse 66, BP 130/82 and sats 98%. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 
Aspirin 
Nitrates 
Morphine
Clopidogrel 
Calculate GRACE score
126
Q

70 year old man with chest pain, STEMI changes on ECG, pulse 102, BP 160/90, sats 93%. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 
Aspirin
Nitrates 
Morphine 
Oxygen 
Prasugrel 
Arrange immediate percutaneous coronary intervention
127
Q

What are absolute contraindications for thrombolysis?

A

Active internal bleeding
Suspected aortic dissection
Recent head trauma or intracranial neoplasm
Previous haemorrhagic stroke at any point
Previous ishchaemic stroke in past year
Previous allergic reaction to fibrinolytic agent
Trauma or surgery in past 2 weeks at risk of bleeding

128
Q

What are causes of a collapsing pulse?

A

Aortic regurgitation

Patent ductus arteriosus

129
Q

What can cause an ejection systolic mumur?

A 
Aortic stenosis 
Pulmonary stenosis 
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy 
Tetralogy of fallot
Atrial septal defect

CCE AR version (20 decks)

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