Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 3 > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Coarctation of the aorta presentation

A

Severe upper extremity hypertension with brachial femoral pulse delay and lower extremity claudication due to decreased blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aortic stenosis physical exam

A

Soft single s2
Delayed and diminished carotid pulse also known as Parvis and tardis
Loud and late peeking systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Echocardiogram features of tamponade

A

Right atrial and right ventricular collapse during diastole which is an indication for pericardiocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pulses paradoxes

A

Drop in systolic blood pressure greater than 10 during inspiration which is an important finding in cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Children with family history of high cholesterol or premature coronary artery disease

A

Should have a lipid profile determined soon after they are two years old

If family member has a total cholesterol greater than 240 order a random cholesterol. If it is less than 170 repeat in five years. If it is greater than 200 order fasting lipid profile.

If family member has a history of premature coronary artery disease, order fasting lipid profile directly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unstable angina with increased risk of coronary event

A

Need angiogram followed by PCI or CABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maternal hyperglycemia effect on fetal heart

A

Excessive glycogen deposition in the fetal myocardium which leads to fetal hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and possibly CHF which will resolve spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Purpose of BNP

A

Distinguish between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

First step and patient with SVT

A

If they are hemodynamically stable, identify the type with IV adenosine or vagal maneuver’s

If they are hemodynamically unstable, Urgent cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ECG findings in WPW

A

Short PR interval

Delta wave

Widening of the QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Complications of bicuspid aortic valve

A

Aortic dilation, aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SERMs and surgery

A

Discontinue four weeks prior to surgery due to increased risk of venous thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Statin indications

A

LDL greater then 190 paragraph

Age 40 to 75 with diabetes

Calculated 10 year cardiovascular risk greater than 7.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acute infarction pericarditis onset and cause

A

1 to 4 days post transmural myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dressler’s syndrome onset, presentation, and pathophysiology

A

Weeks to months status post MI

Auto immune mediated syndrome

Fever, leukocytosis, pleuritic chest pain, and pericardial rub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acute infarction pericarditis treatment

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Infarction Pericarditis and NSAIDs

A

Thought to increase risk of myocardial rupture following transmural myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dressler’s syndrome treatment

A

NSAIDs

Corticosteroids if refractory to NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment of DVT

A

Initial treatment consisted of heparin

Warfarin 3 to 6 months in case of a first DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chadsvasc score

A 
Congestive heart failure 
Hypertension
Age greater than 75
Diabetes mellitus
Stroke or TIA
Vascular disease
Age 65to 74
Female sex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Atrial fibrillation score to anticoagulate

A

Greater than two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Initial treatment of acute decompensation at heart failure and severe hypertension

A

IV diuretics plus IV vasodilators

Nitro induced vasodilation improves preload and afterload which decreases filling pressures and results in symptomatic relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When to discontinue statin therapy

A

If symptomatic or asymptomatic with a CK level greater than 10 times normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Common arrhythmia resulting from inferior MI and treatment

A

Sinus bradycardia and that usually resolves within 24 hours

Symptomatic bradycardia should be treated with IV atropine and if it persists patient should be treated with transvenous temporary pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Presentation of constrictive pericarditis

A

Peripheral edema, JVD, clear lungs

Ascites and hepatic congestion

Pericardial knock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Causes of constrictive pericarditis

A

Idiopathic
Viral pericarditis
Cardiac surgery or radiation therapy
Tubercular pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most important AAA risk factor

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CRT heart failure guidelines

A

Ejection fraction less than 35%

NYHA class 2 to 4

LBBB or QRS greater than 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bicuspid aortic valve genetics and guidelines

A

Autosomal dominant trait with incomplete penetrance

Recommend screening of first-degree relatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pathophysiology of bradycardia following inferior myocardial infarction

A

Right coronary artery he supplies blood to inferior wall and SA node

Infarction leads to SA node ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Two categories of mitral regurgitation

A

Ruptured mitral chordae tendinae which can be secondary to MVP, infective endocarditis, trauma, and rheumatic heart disease

Papillary muscle rupture which can be secondary to myocardial infarction, ischemia, and trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Adrenal cortical tumors

A

Secrete steroid hormones such as corticosteroids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens

Examples include Cushing syndrome and aldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Adrenal medullary tumors

A

Pheochromocytoma

Secrete catecholamines

Present with episodic headaches, Flushing, sweating, tachycardia, hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Symptoms of TCA overdose

A

CNS

Cardiac such as arrhythmias

Anti-cholinergic side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Treatment of TCA overdose

A

Sodium bicarbonate to prevent arrhythmias

Magnesium ore lidocaine for refractory symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Presentation and treatment of atrial myxoma

A

Signs and symptoms of mitral valve obstruction

Heart failure

Atrial fibrillation

Frequently embolize leading to arterial occlusion

Treatment is surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Risks of factor V Leiden

A

Venus thrombosis such as DVT, PE, cerebral, mesenteric, and portal vein thrombosis

Usually not associated with arterial emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common cause of death and steering wheel injuries

A

Aortic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most important test following blunt chest trauma

A

ECG

If normal, no further evaluation

If abnormal, FAST or echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pathophysiology and treatment of cocaine abuse leading to myocardial ischemia

A

Vasospasm plus or minus thrombosis

Treatment includes nitrates, aspirin, or benzodiazepines

If symptoms are not reversed with the above regimen, patient will need angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Medication to avoid and cocaine users

A

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pathophysiology of compartment syndrome leading to acute kidney injury

A

Compartment syndrome may lead to rhabdomyolysis which results in the release of myoglobin in which heme is toxic to the kidneys causing acute kidney injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of compartment syndrome

A

Diagnosis by measurement of tissue pressures

Treatment consists of fasciotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Severe aortic stenosis valve area

A

Aortic valve area less than 1 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Most common cause of congestive heart failure

A

Ischemic heart disease 50 to 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Abnormal ABI

A

Less than 0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Management of PAD

A

Lipid lowering therapy

Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin or Plavix

Blood pressure control

Screening and treatment of diabetes

Supervised exercise program

Cilostazol, PCI, or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pathophysiology of hyponatremia and CHF

A

ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Treatment of hyponatremia in congestive heart failure patients

A

Water restriction

Tolvaptan for patients with CHF and symptomatic hyponatremia to raise serum sodium above 120 other options of failed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Management of cocaine related chest pain

A

Benzodiazepines

Avoid beta blockers

Phentolamine decreases vasospasm

Nitroprusside and nitroglycerin are also reasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Most dreaded complication of HOCM

A

Sudden cardiac death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Indications for alcohol septal ablation in HOCM patients

A

Persistent symptoms despite medical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Management of supra therapeutic INR

A

INR less than five with no bleeding, hold warfarin for 1 to 2 days

INR 5 to 9 with no bleeding, hold warfarin and give one to 2.5 mg of oral vitamin K if there is increased risk of bleeding

INR greater than nine with no bleeding, hold warfarin and give 2.5 to 5 mg of oral vitamin K

Any INR with bleeding, hold warfarin give vitamin K 10 mg, FFP, and it factor VIIa, or prothrombin complex concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

IV vitamin K risk

A

Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Subcutaneous vitamin K

A

Not as effective as oral or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Initial management of acute decompensated heart failure

A

Diuretics and or IV vasodilators to decrease preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

First line management of hypertension requiring more than one medication

A

ACEI plus calcium channel blocker’s such as amlodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Treatment of BPH plus hypertension

A

Alpha blockers such as doxazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Anti-thrombotic therapy in patients with mechanic heart valves

A

Aspirin – 75 to 100 mg in all patients with aortic valve or mitral valve replacement, should also take warfarin

Warfarin – goal INR 2-3– Aortic valve replacement if no risk factors are present

Warfarin – goal INR 2.5 to 3.5 – mitral valve replacement or aortic valve replacement plus risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Indications for carotid endarterectomy

A

Men
Asymptomatic – 60 to 99% stenosis
Symptomatic - 50 to 99% stenosis

Women
70 to 99% stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Treatment of symptomatic HOCM

A

Beta blockers or calcium channel blocker’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Alcohol septal ablation indications in HOCM

A

Reserved for patients with persistent symptoms despite medical therapy with calcium channel blocker’s or beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Vasodilators in hyper trophic cardiomyopathy

A

Reduce systemic vascular resistance leading to increased left ventricular outflow tract obstruction and increased symptoms

64
Q

Leading cause of morbidity and mortality and patience with Marfan syndrome

A

Aortic root disease with progressive aneurysmal dilation, aortic regurgitation, and aortic dissection

65
Q

Imaging indicated in Marfan syndrome

A

Transthoracic echocardiogram at the time of diagnosis and six-month intervals to assess the aortic root and ascending aorta

66
Q

Pathophysiology of Marfan syndrome

A

Autosomal will dominant defect in the connective tissue glycoprotein fibrillin 1 that causes abnormalities of the skeleton, eyes, and cardiovascular system

67
Q

Normal right atrial pressure

A

4

Measurement of preload

68
Q

Normal PCWP

A

Nine

Measurement of preload

69
Q

Normal cardiac index

A

2.82 4.2

Measurement of pump function

70
Q

Normal systemic vascular resistance

A

1150

Management of afterload

71
Q

Normal mixed oxygen saturation

A

60 to 80%

72
Q

Hemodynamic measurements in hypovolemic shock

A

Decreased right atrial pressure

Decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

Decreased cardiac index

Increased systemic vascular resistance

Decreased mixed oxygensaturations

73
Q

Hemodynamic measurements in cardiogenic shock

A

Increased right atrial pressure

Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

Decreased cardiac index

Increased systemic vascular resistance

Decreased mixed oxygen saturations

74
Q

Hemodynamic measurements in septic shock

A

Decreased or normal right atrial pressure

Decreased or normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

Increased cardiac index

Decreased systemic vascular resistance

Increased mixed oxygen saturations

75
Q

Prodrome a vasovagal syncope

A

Nausea, lightheadedness, pallor, diaphoresis

76
Q

Precipitating events of vasovagal syncope

A

Standing, needles, exertion, pain

77
Q

Mitral valve prolapse’s murmur

A

Mid to late systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur

78
Q

Mitral regurgitation murmur

A

Apical holosystolic murmur

79
Q

Pulmonic stenosis murmur

A

Crescendo decrescendo ejection murmur in the left upper sternal border

80
Q

Mitral stenosis murmur

A

Low pitched, rumbling diastolic murmur heard best over the apex

81
Q

Heart sounds of cardiac tamponade

A

Muffled heart sounds

82
Q

Prolonged QT interval

A

Men greater than 450

Women greater than 470

83
Q

Side effects of calcium channel blocker’s

A

Headache, Flushing, dizziness

Arteriolar dilation leads to increased capillary hydrostatic pressure leading to peripheral edema

ACEI leads to venodilation which decreases peripheral edema

84
Q

WPW pathophysiology

A

Preexcitation syndrome caused by accessory pathway that directly connects the atria to the ventricles and bypasses the AV node

The accessory pathway conducts faster than the AV node and excites the ventricles prematurely, leading to short PR interval and delta wave

QRS is prolonged

85
Q

Arrhythmia to avoid in patients with WPW

A

Atrial fibrillation which can lead to ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

86
Q

Treatment of symptomatic WPW

A

Catheter ablation therapy

87
Q

Treatment of TDP

A

IV magnesium sulfate

If no response, temporary transvenous pacing

88
Q

Initial medical therapy for acute coronary syndrome

A

Oxygen, aspirin, morphine, nitroglycerin

Plavix

Beta blocker

Anticoagulation

Statin therapy

89
Q

ICD placement guidelines in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Prior history of cardiac arrest or VT

Family history of sudden death

Recurrent or exertional syncope

Nonsustained VT

Hypotension with exercise

Extreme left ventricular hypertrophy

90
Q

Murmur of VSD

A

Holosystolic murmur heard best over the left third and fourth intercostal spaces accompanied by a palpable thrill

91
Q

Causes of left to right shut

A

Atrial septal defect

Ventricular septal defects

Patent ductus arteriosus

92
Q

Murmur of PDA

A

Continuous murmur heard best in the left infraclavicular area

93
Q

For characteristic features of TOF

A

RVOT obstruction

Overriding aorta

Right ventricular hypertrophy

VST

94
Q

Common findings in Ehlers Danlos syndrome

A

Hyperextensible skin

Velvet skin

Joint hypermobility

Mitral valve prolapse’s

Development of hernias

95
Q

Pathophysiology of Ehlers Danlos syndrome

A

COL5A mutations

Autosomal dominant

96
Q

Common findings in Marfan syndrome

A

Joint hypermobility

Increased arm span to height ratio

Aortic root dilation

Mitral valve prolapse’s

Lens dislocation

Spontaneous pneumothorax

97
Q

Murmur of ASD

A

Wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound

Mid systolic ejection murmur resulting from increased flow across the pulmonic valve

Mid diastolic rumble resulting from increased flow across the tricuspid valve

98
Q

Trastuzumab cardiotoxicity

A

May lead to congestive heart failure but is often reversible with discontinuation of the medication

99
Q

Most common cause of mitral stenosis

A

Rheumatic heart disease with symptoms presenting 10 to 20 years after initial rheumatic fever

100
Q

Management of acute limb ischemia

A

Anticoagulation and emergent surgical revascularization

101
Q

Use of target specific oral anticoagulants

A

Not intended for nonvalvular atrial fibrillation , prosthetic heart valves, or end stage renal disease

102
Q

Preferred agent’s for rate control in patients with atrial fibrillation

A

Beta blockers or calcium channel blockers

103
Q

Characteristics of multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

Three or more P waves of different morphologies

QRS complexes are narrow

PR segments in the ER or intervals are variable

Heart rate can reach 200 bpm

104
Q

Causes of multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

Hypoxia

COPD

Hypokalemia

Hypomagnesemia

105
Q

Treatment of multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

Treat the underlying cause such as hypoxia or electrolyte abnormalities

Beta blockers can be used if other therapy does not correct MAT

Verapamil is the drug of choice in patients with asthma or COPD

106
Q

The most effective nonpharmacologic measure to decrease blood pressure

A

Weight loss

107
Q

Goal of aortic dissection treatment

A

Adequate pain control

Lowering systolic blood pressure to 100 to 120

Decreasing left ventricular contractility reduce aortic wall stress

108
Q

Treatment of aortic dissection

A

IV beta blockers such as esmolol, propranolol, or labetalol are preferred to slow the heart rate to less than 60 bpm, lower the blood pressure, and reduce myocardial contractility

Nitroprusside should only be used in addition to beta blockers if systolic blood pressure remains above 100 to 120 after adequate beta blockade

109
Q

Signs of pulmonary hypertension

A

Loud S2

Enlarged pulmonary arteries on chest x-ray

Signs of right heart strain on ECG such as right bundle branch block

110
Q

Diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension

A

Echocardiogram

CT of the chest should be obtained after echocardiogram to evaluate secondary causes a pulmonary hypertension

111
Q

Treatment of pulmonary hypertension

A

Positive vasoreactivity test – calcium channel blocker’s

Negative vasoreactivity test – prostanoid medication such as epoprostenol, an endothelial receptor antagonist such as bosentan, or a phosphodiesterase inhibitor such as sildenafil

112
Q

ECG findings in 2nd° AV block

A

Mobitz type one – progressive prolonged PR interval’s lead to a nonconducted P wave

Mobitz type two –PR interval remains constant with intermittent nonconducted P waves

113
Q

Atropine and 2nd° AV block

A

Improves type one AV block in worsens type two AV block

114
Q

Risk of complete heart block in 2nd° AV block

A

Low risk in Mobitz type one

Higher risk in Mobitz type two AV block requiring pacemaker

115
Q

Warfarin and amiodarone

A

It is recommended that the warfarin dose be reduced by 25 to 50% to compensate for the increase in serum concentration of warfarin after initiating amiodarone therapy

116
Q

Four components of tetralogy of Fallot

A

VSD

Pulmonary stenosis

Aortic override

Right ventricular hypertrophy

117
Q

Most common structural disorder that occurs following TOF repair

A

Pulmonary regurgitation

118
Q

Presentation of pulmonary regurgitation

A

Right heart volume overload

Single S2 because the pulmonary valve is sacrificed during the procedure

119
Q

Murmur of VSD

A

Systolic murmur heard at the left sternal border that often obliterates the first and second heart sound

120
Q

Definition of intermediate risk of myocardial infarction

A

5 to 7.5% defined by the pooled cohort equations

121
Q

Use of high sensitivity CRP

A

Useful for guiding primary prevention strategies in intermediate risk patients as you try to re-classify them into low risk or high-risk

122
Q

Usefulness of lipid particle size and number

A

Not useful

123
Q

TTE indications in a patient with a murmur

A

Asymptomatic patients with a system all like a murmur that his grade 3/6 or higher

A late or holosystolic murmur

Diastolic or continuous murmur

124
Q

Indications for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation following an ablation

A

Oral anticoagulation for any patient with a nonvalvular atrial fibrillation and a CHADS VASc score greater than one

125
Q

Aspirin and warfarin in patients with atrial fibrillation

A

Aspirin therapy with warfarin is reserved for patients with active coronary artery disease

The addition of aspirin to warfarin significantly increases the risk of bleeding

126
Q

Use of aspirin alone in treatment of a fib

A

Aspirin is insufficient therapy for a patient at high risk of stroke

127
Q

Treatment of hypertrophic cardio myopathy

A

Initial therapy is medication that addresses the factors that predispose towards LVOT of obstruction

Beta blockers or calcium channel blocker’s are the cornerstone of therapy

128
Q

Medications to avoid in patients with hypertrophic cardio myopathy

A

Need to avoid medications that decrease preload such as diuretics

Need to also avoid medications that decrease afterload such as vasodilators

All of these medicationscan lead to worsening LVOT obstruction

129
Q

Maneuvers in hypertrophic cardio myopathy

A

Squat to stand decreases preload

Expiration decreases afterload

130
Q

What is PAU

A

Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer

A focal defect or lesion occurring at the site of an intimal atherosclerotic plaque

131
Q

What category of acute aortic syndrome does PAU fit into

A

Type B aortic syndrome

132
Q

Treatment of type B acute aortic syndrome

A

Treated medically, initially with beta blockade to decrease the heart rate below 60 bpm followed by an arterial dilator such as nitroprusside to control blood pressure

133
Q

Three potentially lethal causes of chest pain

A

Acute myocardial infarction

Pulmonary embolism

Acute aortic syndrome

134
Q

Most common location of penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer

A

Descending aorta

135
Q

Candidates for high intensity Statin therapy

A

Patients with known atherosclerotic disease such as CHD, cerebrovascular disease, or PAD

Patient with an LDL of greater than 190

Patients with diabetes and an LDL below 190 and a calculated 10 year CHD risk of 7.5% or higher

136
Q

Indications for moderate intensity Statin therapy

A

Patients with diabetes who are not receiving high intensity Statin therapy

Most patients without diabetes with an LDL below 190 and calculated 10 year CHD risk greater than 7.5%

137
Q

Drugs considered to be high intensity Statins

A

Lipitor 40 to 80 mg

Rosuvastatin 20 to 40 mg

Simvastatin 80 mg

138
Q

Low intensity Statin drugs

A

Fluvastatin

Lovastatin

Simvastatin 10 mg

139
Q

Two most common causes of a nonproductive cough in patients with heart failure

A

Volume overload

ACEIs

140
Q

ACE inhibitors cough on set

A

Can occur at any point after initiation of therapy

141
Q

Indications for repeating echocardiograms in patients with heart failure

A

A decline in functional status and to reassess function after up titrating medications

142
Q

BNP association with mortality

A

Higher levels associated with greater mortality

143
Q

What is atrial septal aneurysm

A

Redundant atrial septal tissue that is often associated with a patent foramen ovale

144
Q

Treatment of atrial septal aneurysm

A

When found incidentally, no medical treatment or intervention is needed

Antiplatelet therapy is recommended for patients with cryptogenic stroke and an isolated atrial septal aneurysm

145
Q

Additional treatment for atrial septal aneurysm

A

In patients with recurrent stroke despite antiplatelet therapy, anticoagulant therapy is recommended

Rarely, surgical excision of the atrial septal aneurysm is considered in patients with stroke despite anticoagulant

146
Q

Management of stable angina with a low risk stress test

A

Initiation of a long acting nitrate such as isosorbide mono nitrate is recommended

Most patients Will require beta blockers and nitrates for symptomatic relief

147
Q

Use of calcium channel blocker’s in stable angina

A

Second line therapy for patients who cannot tolerate beta blockers or who have continued symptoms despite beta blockers and nitrates

148
Q

Most common congenital heart lesion

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

149
Q

Murmur of bicuspid aortic stenosis

A

Maybe systolic or diastolic depending on if there is regurgitation

150
Q

Complications of bicuspid aortic stenosis

A

Aortic regurgitation

Aortic aneurysm

Aortic dissection

151
Q

Murmur of aortic coarctation

A

Systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area and under the left scapula

152
Q

Most characteristic finding on auscultation in patients with an atrial septal defect

A

Fix the splitting of the second heart sound

153
Q

Flu vaccine and heart disease

A

Annual flu vaccine has been shown to reduce risk for future cardiovascular events

154
Q

Appropriate follow-up for patients with asymptomatic severe aortic stenosis

A

Clinical evaluation and echocardiography every 6 to 12 months

155
Q

Surgical treatment of aortic stenosis indications

A

Symptomatic patients with severe aortic stenosis

Asymptomatic patients with severe aortic stenosis and LV systolic dysfunction

Patients with severe aortic stenosis who are undergoing CABG or surgery on the aorta or other valves

156
Q

Indications for TAVR in patients with aortic stenosis

A

Patients with severe aortic stenosis who are considered unsuitable for surgery due to multiple comorbidities

Step 3 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions