Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Hypoperfusion of end organs stimulates the heart to…

A

Maximize contractility and heart rate in an attempt to increase cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hypoperfusion signals the kidneys to…

A

Retain salt and water through renin-angiotensin system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

__________ released by the sympathetic nervous system to increase heart rate and myocardial contractility during hypoperfusion

A

Catecholalmines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some congenital lesions that cause increased pulmonary blood flow?

A
  • Large VSD
  • Large PDA
  • Transposition of the great arteries
  • Truncus arteriosus
  • Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What obstructive lesions may cause CHF?

A
  • Severe aortic, pulmonary, and mitral valve stenosis
  • Coarctation of the aorta
  • Interrupted aortic arch
  • Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What acquired heart diseases may lead to CHF?

A
  • Viral myocarditis (common)
  • Endocarditis, pericarditis
  • Metabolic disease (hyperthyroidism),
  • Medications
  • Cardiomyopathies
  • Ischemic diseases
  • Dysrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are clinical features suggesting pulmonary congestion in CHF?

A
  • Tachypnea, cough, wheezing, and rales on examination
  • Pulmonary edema on CXR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What clinical features are evidence of impaired myocardial performance in CHF?

A
  • Tachycardia, sweating, pale or ashen skin color
  • Diminished urine output
  • Enlarged cardiac silhouette on CXR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What clinical features are evidence of systemic venous congestion in CHF?

A

Hepatomegaly and peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are late manifestations of CHF?

A

Cyanosis and shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What types of medical management are used to treat CHF?

A
  • Cardiac glycosides (digoxin)
  • Loop diuretics (furosemide)
  • Inotropic medications administered IV (dobutamine, dopamine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What other methods of management are used to treat CHF besides medication?

A
  • Interventional catheterization (balloon valvuloplasty for critical aortic and pulmonary valve stenosis)
  • Surgical repair (definitive treatment of CHF secondary to congenital heart disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Approximately ___% of children have an innocent heart murmur at some point during childhood

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the acyanotic congenital heart diseases?

A

ASD, VSD, PDA, Coarctation of the aorta, Aortic stenosis, Pulmonary stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the differences between Ostium primum ASD and Ostium Secundum ASD?

A
  • Ostium Primum: Defect in lower portion of atrial setptum, common in Down Syndrome
  • Ostium Secundum: Defect in middle portion of atrial septum, most common type of ASD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a sinus venosus ASD?

A

A defect high in the septum near the junction of right atrium and SVC - the right pulmonary veins usually drain anomalously into the right atrium or SVC instead of the left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does an ASD lead to increased pulmonary blood flow?

A

Blood flows from the left atrium to the right (higher resistance to lower resistance) leading to increase in size of the right atrium and right ventricle, and to increased pulmonary blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are 3 innocent heart murmurs?

A
  • Still’s murmur (ages 2-7)
  • Pulmonic systolic murmur (any age)
  • Venous Hum (any age, but especially school age)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe a still’s murmur

A
  • Grade 1-3, systolic vibratory twanging or buzzing.
  • Loudest supine and louder with exercise
  • Mid-left sternal border
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe a pulmonic systolic murmur

A
  • Grade 1-2, peaks early in systole
  • Blowing, high pitched
  • Upper left sternal border
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe venous hum

A
  • Continuous murmur heard only sitting or standing - disappears if supine
  • Neck and below the clavicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patients with a ostium primum defect may develop ______ _______ that results in CHF

A

mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Physical examination findings of ASD include:

A
  • Increased right ventricular impulse
  • Systolic ejection murmur best heard at mid and upper left sternal borders
  • Fixed split second heart sound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the management of ASD?

A

Treatment is closure by open heart surgery to prevent right sided heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, dysrhythmias and paradoxic embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the classifications of VSD?
* Inlet * Trabecular (muscular) * Membranous * Outlet (supracristal)
26
How does a VSD lead to pulmonary hypertension?
Blood flows from left to right ventricle owing to lower resistance within pulmonary circulation; with time, the pulmonary vessels hypertrophy in response to increased pulmonary flow leading to increased vascular resistance
27
What two factors determine the amount of blood flow directed from one side of the heart to the other in a VSD?
Determined by the size of the VSD and the degree of pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
28
As the size of the VSD decreases, the intensity of the murmur \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Increases (thrill and grade 4 high pitched holosystolic murmur may indicate small VSD)
29
If excessive blood flows across the VSD (moderate or large VSDs) then a diastolic murmur of _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may be heard at the apex
mitral turbulence (mitral filling rumble representing excess blood from the lungs no passing through the mitral valve)
30
What is Eisenmenger syndrome?
If PVR remains elevated, pulmonary hypertension becomes irreversible, even if VSD is surgically closed - PVR exceeds SVR and shunting changes from left-to-right to right-to-left
31
When is surgical closure indicated in management of a VSD?
* Heart failure refractory to medical management * Large VSDs with pulmonary hypertension (closed at 3-6 months) * Small to moderate VSDs are closed between 2-6 years of age
32
What is the medical management of VSDs?
Medical management of CHF is indicated in a symptomatic child (Cardiac glycosides, Loop diuretics, Inotropic medications administered IV)
33
What is connected by the ductus arteriosus in the fetus?
Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta
34
Incidence of PDA is high in _____ infants
preterm
35
Physical examination findings of PDA?
* "Machinery-like" continuous murmur at upper left sternal border * If the left-to-right shunt is large: diastolic rumble of blood flow across mitral valve at the apex * Widened pulse pressure and brisk pulses
36
Risk of ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is significant in children older than several years of age with a PDA
Pulmonary hypertension
37
\_\_\_\_\_ is used in premature infants to close a PDA medically
Indomethacin
38
PDAs may be closed surgically by what methods?
* Coil embolization * Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery * Ligation in a thoracotomy
39
What is Coarctation of the Aorta?
Narrowing of the aortic arch just below the origin of the left subclavian artery and typically at, or just proximal to the ductus arteriosus
40
Neonates or infants with severe coarctation may depend on a right-to-left shunt through the ____ for perfusion of the lower thoracic and descending aorta
PDA
41
What is the key blood pressure finding in coarctation of the aorta?
Blood pressures may be elevated in the upper extremities and low in the lower extremities (before the onset of CHF)
42
What occurs once an infant with Coarctation of the Aorta develops CHF?
* Pulses in all four extremities are poor * Any murmur is absent * Hypotension may develop
43
What findings are significant for the following in older children or adolescents with coarctation of the aorta? * Femoral pulse: * Aortic valve: * Turbulence: * Collateral vessels:
* Femoral pulse: is dampened and delayed until after the radial pulse * Aortic valve: Bicuspid aortic valve or aortic stenosis is present in 50% of patients * Turbulence: bruit through the coarctation may be audible at the left upper back * Collateral vessels: Intercostal arteries may develop into collateral vessels which allow the ascending aortic circulation to circumvent the coarctation
44
Initial management of coarctation of the aorta (2)?
1. Intravenous prostaglandin E (PGE) to open the ductus arteriosus 2. Inotropic medications are given to overcome myocardial depression
45
What corrective repairs are used to treat coarctation of the aorta (2)?
1. Surgery - excision of the narrowed segment followed by end-to-end anastomosis 2. Balloon angioplast is the therapy of choice for recurrent coarctation
46
What is pathologic aortic stenosis?
Commissural fusion of the three normal leaflets leading to a bicuspid or unicuspid valve
47
How does aortic stenosis lead to myocardial ischemia?
* Aortic stenosis results in reduced left ventricular output * Imbalance between myocardial oxygen demand (which is higher than usual due to increased ventricular work as a result of outflow obstruction) and supply
48
Severe aortic stenosis may be associated with ______ of the left ventricle
hypoplasia (as a result of imparied fetal left ventricular development)
49
Neonates with severe stenosis appear normal at birth but develop signs and symptoms of CHF at ____ -\_\_\_\_ hours of age
12-24 hours of age
50
Older children who develop severe stenosis show what symptoms?
* Exercise intolerance * Chest pain * Syncope * Sudden death
51
What are indications for intervention of aortic stenosis?
* CHF * Chest pain or syncope * Documentation of high resting pressure gradient across the aortic valve (\>50-70 mm Hg)
52
Management of aortic stenosis?
* Balloon valvuloplast (inital management) * Surgery for aortic stenosis with insufficiency and 5-10 years after palliative valvuloplasy
53
What is the Ross procedure?
The aortic valve is replaced with the patient's own pulmonary valve as a treatment for aortic stenosis
54
Pulmonary stenosis results in ______ right ventricular pressure and ______ right ventricular output
Increased; Reduced
55
What symptoms are present in most children with pulmonic stenosis? What happens in severe cases?
Most children: Asymptomatic Severe: Cyanosis as a result of right-to-left shunting at the atrial level through a patent foramen ovale
56
What is the management of pulmonary stenosis? When is management indicated?
Treatment is balloon valvuloplasty for symptomatic infants with critical pulmonary stenosis and for older children with significant gradiants across the pulmonary valve (\>35-40 mm Hg)
57
What is the difference between central and peripheral cyanosis?
* Peripheral cyanosis is usually caused by vaosomotor instability or vasoconstriction as a result of cold temp. * Central cyanosis, especially apparent in the tongue and mucous membranes may be attributable to both cardiac and noncardiac causes
58
What are some non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis?
Pulmonary disease, sepsis, hypoglycemia, polycythemia, and neuromuscular diseases that impair chest wall function
59
What are the most comon cardiac causes of central cyanosis?
* 5 Ts * Tetralogy of fallot * Transposition of the great arteries * Tricuspid atresia * Truncus arteriosus * Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
60
What are the methods of evaluating Cynaosis?
* Physical examination * Pulse oximetry * Complete blood count * ABG, ECG, CXR * 100% oxygen challenge test * Echo
61
What are the four components of Tetralogy of Fallot?
* VSD * Overriding aorta * Pulmonary stenosis * Right ventricular hypertrophy
62
Which cyanotic congenital heart diseases cause increased pulmonary flow (Pulm Vasc. Markings)? Decreased?
Increased: Transposition of the great arteries, TAPVC, Truncus arteriosus Decreased: Tetralogy of Fallot, Tricuspid atresia
63
Which cyanotic congenital heart disease presents with no murmur, a single S2 sound, and a small heart with narrow mediastinum ("egg-on-a-string" appearance)?
Transposition of the great arteries
64
Which cyanotic congenital heart disease presents with a single S2 systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border as well as a diastolic murmur at the apex?
Truncus arteriosus
65
Describe the murmur heard in TAPVC
Pulmonary ejection murmur along left sternal border
66
What type of murmur is associated with tetralogy of fallot?
Systolic ejection murmur of pulmonary steonsis
67
What actions increase right-to-left shunting in Tetralogy of Fallot? Which actions reduce cardiac shunting?
* Increase * Actions that decrease SVR (exercise, vasodilation) * Actions that increase resistance through RVOT (crying, tachycardia) * Reduce * Actions that increase SVR or reduce resistance through the RVOT (volume infusion, systemic hypertension, valsalva, bradycardia)
68
What is a Tet spell (Tetralogy of Fallot)? How does a child compensate?
Sudden cyanosis and decreased mumur intensity triggered by any maneuver that decreases arterial oxygen saturation A child compensates by squatting (increases venous return and increases SVR)
69
What is the definitive management of tetralogy of Fallot and when is it performed?
Complete surgical repair at 4-8 months of age
70
Transposition of the great arteries arises when the aorta rises from the ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and the main pulmonary artery from the _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
right ventricle; left ventricle
71
Adequate saturation in transposition of the great arteries can only occur by...
Shunting blood from one circulation to the other (PFO, ASD, VSD, PDA)
72
What is the acute management of Tetralogy of Fallot?
* Knee-chest position * IV fluid bolus * Oxygen * Sedation * Beta blocker * IV sodium bicarbonate
73
What is the initial management of transposition of the great arteries? What is the definitive repair?
Initial: PGE to improve oxygen saturation by keeping the ductus patent or emergent balloon atrial septostomy (increases size of ASD or PFO) Definitive repair: Arterial switch operation
74
What is tricuspid atresia? What is **always** present?
A plate of tissue located in the floor of the right atrium in the location of the tricuspid valve An ASD or PFO is always present
75
In tricuspid atresia what is the significance of a VSD?
Whether or not a VSD is also present determines the direction of blood flow, the presence of other anatomic features, and the degree of stenosis
76
In Tricuspid atreisa, if no VSD is present and the ventricular septum is intact ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is also present; For blood to flow to the lungs in this situation, a ___ must also be present
Pulmonary atresia; PDA
77
What is seens on ECG in tricuspid atresia?
Right atrial enlargement, left axis deviation, and left ventricular hypertrophy
78
What is the management of tricuspid atresia? Describe it
The fontan procedure at 3-6 years of age Flow from the inferior vena cava is directed into the pulmonary arteries
79
What other congenital heart defect is present in truncus arteriosus?
VSD
80
What causes the diastolic murmur in truncus arteriosus?
Diastolic murmur of flow across the mitral valve at the apex as a result of excessive pulmonary blood flow that returns to the left atrium
81
What is TAPVC?
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection occurs when the pulmonary veins drain into the systemic venous side rather than into the left atrium
82
What are the sites of TAPVC?
* Supracardiac (into right superior vena cava or innominate vein) * Cardiac (into right atrium or coronary sinus) * Infracardiac (into the portal system)
83
What is the most common cause of acquired heart disease in children in the United States? Worldwide?
United States: Kawasaki disease Worldwide: Acute rheumatic fever
84
What are the most common bacterial agents in infective endocarditis?
Gram positive cocci, including alpha-hemolytic streptococcus (viridans) and staphylococcus species
85
How is infective endocarditis diagnosed?
* Blood culture is the single most important laboratory test * Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is usually elevated (unless polycythemia is present) * Acute phase reactants (rhematoid factor) found in 50% of patients * Transthoracic echocardiography detects vegitations
86
What are clinical signs of infective endocarditis?
* New/changing murmur * Hematuria * Splinter hemorrhages * Osler's nodes (on palms, soles, or pads of toes/fingers) * Janeway lesions (smal, erythematous hemorragic lesions on palms or soles) * Roth's spots (round or oval white spots seen in the retina)
87
Management of infective endocarditis?
Intravenous antimicrobial therapy against identified organism for 4-6 weeks
88
When is antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis recommended?
Before invasive procedures such as dental work, gastrointestinal, or urologic surgery Also to all postop cardiac surgery patients for up ot 6 months after surgical repair
89
What is the most common cause of pericarditis in children?
Viral infection
90
What are the most common agents of purulent pericarditis (bacterial)?
Staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pneumoniae
91
What is postpericardiotomy syndrome?
Occurs in as many as 1/3 of patients whose pericardium has been opened during surgery - thought to be an autoimmune response to a concomitant viral infection
92
How does pericariditis lead to cardiac tamponade?
Inflammation of parietal and visceral pericardial layers leads to exudation or transudation of fluid and impairment of venous return and cardiac filling
93
Describe the positional changes in chest pain in pericarditis?
Chest pain most intense while supine and relieved when sitting upright
94
What physical exam findings are associated with pericarditis?
Pericardial friction rub, distant heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus, hepatomegaly
95
What is both diagnostic and therapeutic in children with pericarditis?
Pericariocentesis
96
What is seen on ECG in patients with large pericardial effusions?
ST-segment changes or low voltage QRS complexes
97
Evidence of _______ is apparent in 20% of children who die suddenly
Myocarditis
98
What viruses can cause myocarditis? Bacteria? Fungi? Protozoa?
* Viruses: Enteroviruses, especially coxsackievirus * Bacteria: Corynebacteria diphteriae, Strep. pyogenes, Staph. aureus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis * Fungi: Candida, Cryptococcus * Protosoa: Trypansoma cruzi
99
What autoimmune disease are associated with Myocarditis?
SLE, Rheumatic fever, Sarcoidosis
100
What labs are significant in myocarditis?
* Elevated ESR * Creatinine kinase (CK) MB fraction * C-reactive protein * Viral serology or PCR of endomyocardial biopsy specimens
101
Echocardiogram of myocarditis shows an anatomically ______ heart
normal
102
What management may be beneficial for myocarditis patients with CHF refractory to medical management?
Cardiac transplantation
103
What are the three types of cardiomyopathy?
1. Dilated cardiomyopathy 2. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 3. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
104
What are some causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?
* Viral myocarditis * Mitochondrial abnormalities * Carnitine deficiency * Nutritional deficiency (such as selenium and thiamine deficiency) * Hypocalcemia * Medications (doxorubicin)
105
Evaluation of dilated cardiomyopathy should include ______ \_\_\_\_\_ and ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_ level
Viral serologies; serum carnitine
106
What is ALCAPA? How does it cause dilated cardiomyopathy?
Anomalous origin of left coronary artery from the pulmonary artery Results in myocardial ischemia and infarction
107
Management of dilated cardiomyopathy?
* Medical management of CHF * Treatment of underlying metabolic or nutritional problem * Surgical repair of ALCAPA * Cardiac transplantation
108
What is the genetic inheritence of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Autosomal dominant in 60% of cases
109
What causes left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Caused by the anterior mitral leaflet being swept into the subaortic region during systole
110
What is the most common cause of sudden death in athletes?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
111
What type of murmur is associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? What accenuates it?
Harsh, systolic ejection murmur at the apex - accenuated with physiologic maneuvers that reduce left ventricular volume such as Valsalva or standing
112
Beta-adrenergic blockers or ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ blockers reduce the LVOT obstruction in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
calcium-channel
113
What is the benefit of dual chamber pacing in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Has been shown to reduce septal hypertrophy and LVOT obstruction in some studies
114
What is restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Excessively rigid ventricular walls that impair normal diastolic filling
115
What are some causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
* Amyloidosis * Inherited infiltrative disorders (fabry disease, gaucher disease, hemosiderosis, hemochromatosis)
116
What causes edema, hepatomegaly, and ascites in restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Elevated central venous pressure (CVP)
117
What is SVT?
Abnormally accelerated heart rhythm that originates proximal to bundle of His
118
What is the most common dysrhythmia in childhood?
SVT
119
What are the two types of SVT?
Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT) - retrograde conduction through accessory pathway leads to SVT Atrioventricular node re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT) - Conduction abnormality occurs in different pathways within the AV node itself
120
What is the syndrome of anterograde conduction though a bypass tract between the atria and ventricles?
Wolff-Parkinson-White (associated with sudden cardiac death)
121
WPW may be identified on ECG by the presence of a _____ wave
delta
122
What is the management of supraventricular tachycardia?
* Vagal maneuvers * Ice pack to teh face * IV adenosine * Cardioversion in patients who are hemodynamically stable * Medical management (digoxin or propanolol) * Catheter ablation
123
Describe the following: * 1st degree heart block: * 2nd degree heart block * Type 1: * Type 2: * 3rd degree heart block:
* 1st degree: prolongation of PR interval * 2nd degree * Type 1: Progressive prolongation of PR interval leading to failed AV conduction * Type 2: Abrupt failure of AV conduction * 3rd degree: Complete block with not conduction of atrial impulses to the ventricles
124
Management of AV block?
Pace maker
125
Long QT syndrome increases the risk of lethal ventricular arrhythmias known as...
torsades de pointes
126
What is the most common presenting sign of long QT syndrome?
Syncope
127
Diagnosis of long QT syndrome is based on the QTc interval which is calculated by...
Taking the measurement of the QT interval divided by the square root of the previous RR interval (\>0.44 seconds)
128
What is the treatment of long QT syndrome?
* Beta blocker to reduce symptoms * Treatment of asymptomatic individuals in controversial
129
What is the most common cause of cardiac chest pain?
Pericarditis
130
What are some causes of noncardiac chest pain?
Asthma, esophagitis, and costochondritis