Cardiology Flashcards
When do NICE say an angiogram should be performed following a STEMI?
< 12 hours or <120 mins of when fibrinolysis could have been given
What drug therapy does NICE recommend if undergoing medical management only of STEMI (3)
- Aspirin
- Ticagrelor (clopidogrel or only aspirin if increased bleeding risk)
- LMWH
What drug therapy dose NICE recommend in a STEMI going to cath lab?
- Aspirin
- Prasugrel (if on anticoagulant then clopidogrel)
- UFH
What does NICE recommend for STEMI being thrombolysed?
- Aspirin
- LMWH/UFH at same time as:
- Fibronlysis
- Ticagrelor (unless increased bleeding risk, then clopidogrel)
- ECG 60-90mins later and if not improved transfer PCI
What treatment does NICE recommend for NSTEMI?
- Aspirin
- LMWH (unless cath lab)
- Ticagrelor unless high bleeding risk then clopidogrel or cath lab (prasugrel)
- GRACE risk score then decide angiogram < 72 hours or considering ischaemia testing (low risk = <3%)
What are Scarbossa’s Criteria and which bits are the most and least sensitve?
- Concordant STE >1mm in 1 or more leads (most sensitive) (5 points)
- Concordant ST depression >1mm V1-3 (3 points)
- Discordant ST elevation >5mm (2 points)
3 or more needed
What are the signs on an ECG of RV infarct? (2)
STE VI suggest RV involvemnet
STE V4R highly specific
What part type of MI is right ventricular infarct usually a part of?
What is managed differently about RV infarct?
Inferior
Very pre-load sensitive, may need fluid and nitrates can lead to hypotension
What defines a pathological Q wave? (4)
- > 40ms (1mm) wide
- > 2mm deep
- > 25% depth QRS
- any in V1-3
Causes of acute heart failure:
CHAMPIT
C - acute Coronary Syndrome
H - ypertensive emergency
A - rrhythmia
M - echanical cause
P - E
I - infections (myocarditis)
T - amponade
What are first line agents to rate control AF according to NICE? (3)
- Beta blocker
- CCB
- Digoxin if very sedentary
What does NICE recommend if 1st line treatment not managing rate for AF?
Add second agent e.g beta blocker/CCB/ digoxin
When is flecainide c/i?
IHD/structural heart disease
What is first line agent for long term rhythm control according to NICE?
Beta blocker
What medical cardioversion does NICE recommend in AF if CCF/LVF?
Amioderone
What rate controlling agent does NICE recommend avoiding in AF with decompensated CCF?
CCB
Which group should avoid ACEinh and ARBs in particular?
Pregnancy
How do you calculate rate on an ecg? (3)
- 300 divided by no. of large squares between R waves
- 1500 divided by number of small squares between R waves
- Number of R waves in rhythm strip x 6
What are u waves?
Small deflection after the T wave
What are prominent u waves? (2)
- > 1-2mm
- > 25% height of T wave
What are the causes of U - waves (5)
- Low K+
- Low Ca2+
- Low Mg2+
- Bradycardia
- Increased ICP
What are inverted u-waves specific for?
CAD - particularly in context of chest pain
What is an AVNRT?
AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia.
Functional re-entry circuit within the AV node
‘Classic’ SVT
What helps distinguish AVNRT for orthodromic AVRT on ECG?
AVNRT -Pseudo R’ waves V1/2.
P waves either buried in QRS or partially seen in terminal part of QRS leading to pseudo R’ waves
AVRT - retrograde P waves occur later, usually notch in T wave
What is AVRT
AV re-entry tachycardia
Pre-excitation
What is orthodromic AVRT?
Antegrade pathway with AV node therefore looks very similar or AVNRT
What is antidromic AVRT?
Antegrade pathway via accessory pathway therefore widened QRS and looks like VT
How do we treat orthodromic AVRT?
Adenosine
How do we treat antidromic AVRT?
Procainamide (adenosine blocks AV node and always a chance of precipitating AF, if this was conducted via AP would lead to arrest)
What ECG changes are found in WPW? (4)
- PR <120ms
- Delta waves
- QRS >110ms
- Discordant ST/T wave changes
What is a type A WPW pattern? (3)
- Dominant R wave V1
- TWI VI-3
- Left sided
What is a type B WPW pattern? (3)
- Dominant S wave V1
- Tall R waves and TWI inversion V4-6 - pseudo LVH pattern
- Right sided
What is left anterior fascicular block? (3)
- LAD
- qR complex I, aVL
- rS complex II,III,aVF
What is left posterior fascicular block? (3)
- RAD
- rS complex I, aVL
- qR complex II,III,aVF
What is bifascicular block?
RBBB + either LAFB or LPFB
When does bifasciular block need invesitgating?
Pre-syncope/syncope
Has 1-4% progression to CHB per year
What is true trifascicular blocl
3 degree Hb + RBBB + LAFB/LAFP
What do some people describe as trifascicular block and what is its risk of becoming CHB?
- First degree HB + RBBB + LAFB/LPFB
- 1-4% - same as bifascicular block
What is an epsilon wave?
Small deflection and end of QRS complex
ARVD - 50% have epsilon waves
What is the name of the leads that are used to increase the sensitivity of epsilon waves?
Fontaine leads
What 3 features in electrical alterans?
- Tachycardia
- Low voltage QRS
- Consecutive normally conducted QRS that vary in height
In what condition is eletrical alterans found?
Massive pericardial effusion
What is Mobitz type I
Wenckebach
What is Mobitz type II
Intermittently non-conducted p-waves
What is Wellens syndome?
Clinical syndrome characterised by bipashic or deep T wave inversion V2-3 and a history of recent chest pain, now resolved. Strongly suggestive of critical LAD stenosis
What is Brugada sign?
Coved ST elevation >2mm in more than one of V1-3 followed by a negative T wave
Only sign that is potentially diagnostic
Aside from ECG changes, what are the clinical criteria for Brugada? (6)
One of:
1. Document VT/VF
2. FHx: SCD < 45 years
3. Coved type ECGs in family members
4. Inducible VT with programmed electrical stimulation
5. Syncope
6. Noctural agonal respiration
What does pre-excited AF look like on ECG?
Wide complex, irreg/irreg tachycardia with variable QRS morphology + fast (>200bpm)
Can look like AF with BBB (but this is slower) torsade des pointes (but without the twisting morphology)
What is the treatment for stable pre-excited AF?
IV Procainamide
What drugs should not be given in pre-excited AF?
Any AV nodal blocking drugs - VF + arrest
What is different between Torsades de Pointes and polymorphic VT?
1.ECG
2. Cause
3. Tx
- TdP ECG ‘twisting’ around isoelectric line
- Caused specifically by QT prolongation
- Magnesium
What does the Right Ventricular Outflow Tract Tachycardia (RVOT) ECG look like? (2)
- LBBB pattern
- RAD
NB QRS usually <140ms unlike VT
What part of the history can be useful in distinguishing RVOT from other causes of VT?
Usually no hx of IHD/structural heart disease + relatively young/well patients
How can RVOT be treated?
If confident of diagnosis treat as SVT (adenosine, beta blocker, calcium anatagonist)
What can help differentiate RVOT and VT?
The degree of QRS widening:
QRS 110-140 in RVOT
VT it’s usually > 140
This can make it look like SVT
+ VT less likely to have LBBB morphology
What is a simple clue that suggests AF with aberrancy/pre-excitation over polymorphic VT?
Polymorphic VT not sustained and usually leads to VF and arrest
In which types of MI should we be careful/avoid GTN?
Inferior STEMI, particularly with evidence of RV infarction
Which STEMIs can lead to second and third degree HB and what percentage of these do so?
Inferior
20%
In NSTEMIs following aspirin what is the second medication that NICE say should be given immediately after?
LMWH
What are the ECG features of AVRD (5)
- T wave inversion in right precordial leads V1-3, in absence of RBBB (85% of patients)
- Epsilon wave (most specific)
- Localised QRS widening in V1-3 (> 110ms)
- Ventricular ectopy of LBBB morphology, with frequent PVCs
- Paroxysmal episodes of ventricular tachycardia (VT) with LBBB morphology (RVOT tachycardia)
What are Lewis leads?
Lead placements that allows better visualisation of p waves
What leads have inverted T waves normally and what is a normal variant?
- aVR and V1
- III
What are the ECG changes in the 3 types of Brugada?
Type 1 - coved STE over 2mm in V1-3 with TWI
Type 2 - over 2mm ‘saddleback’ STE, no TWI
Type 3 - morphology of either 1 or 2 but < 2mm STE
Which is the only ECG type of Brugada that is potentially diagnostic?
Type 1
What areas to the following supply?
1. RCA
2. LAD
3. LCx
- RA, RV, SA node and AV node (90% patients)
- Septum and anterior LV
- LA and post-lat LV
What thrombolytic agents are preferred pre-hospital? (2)
Tenecteplase and reteplase
What is the dose of tenecteplase and when should it be given?
30-50mg over 10 mins and within 6 hours of symptoms
When should tenectaplase be avoided (aside from usual c/i)
Hx of gentamicin anaphx (containts trace gentamicin)
What are the common side effects of tenecteplase? (5)
- Anaphx
- Hypotension
- Cardiac arrest
- IC haemorrhage
- Pulmonary oedema
What are the pacemaker codes (anti-bradycardia PPM)
First letter = chamber paced
0 - no chamber paced
V - ventricle
A - atria
D - dual
Second letter = chamber sensed
0 = No chamber sensed
V = ventricle
A = atria
D = Dual
Third letter = response to senses rhythm
0 - no response
T - triggered
I - Inhibted
D - dual (triggered and inhibited)
What is the Bezold-Jarisch reflex?
Cardioinhibitory reflex of:
- bradycardia
- hypotension
- apneoas
- Caused by stretch receptors in left ventricle stimulated when poorly filled LV.
- triggers vagus nerve and inhibits vasopressin
- thought to be protective reflex seen in acute MIs and associated with coronary
vasospasm - seen in posterior/inf MIs and triggers coronary vasodilation
In what MI do you sometimes get bradycardia/hypotension/apnoeas and why?
Inferior or posterior
Due to Bezold-Jarisch Reflex
What is ventricular standstill/ p wave asystole?
Very high AV block leads to complete loss of QRS and mechanical activity e.g. just p waves on ECG
Will lead to collapse is short duration or arrest if prolonged
What is the managment for pwave asystole/ ventricular standstill?
If not in arrest, pacing