Pharmacological Flashcards

1
Q

What type of medication is a thiopentone?

A

Barbiturate

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2
Q

What are the main issues in the with using thiopentone for RSI? (3)

A
  1. Increased laryngospasm
  2. Low BP (vasodilation and myocardial depression)
  3. Anaphx
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3
Q

What is the main pro for using thiopentone?

A

Decreased cerebral metabolic rate and significant anti seizure properties

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4
Q

What is the main benefit of etomidate?

A

CV stable

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5
Q

What are the cons of using etomidate? (3)

A
  1. Adrenal suppression
  2. Myoclonus
  3. Pain on injection
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6
Q

What are the main side effects of suxamethonium?

A
  1. Raised K+ intravascular by approx 1mmol/L
  2. Bradycardia - particularly if repeated doses
  3. Raised ICP and intra-ocular pressure
  4. Malignant hyperthermia
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7
Q

What are the c/i (5) and relative c/i (2) of suxamethonium?

A

C/i:
1. Recent burns
2. Spinal cord trauma causing paraplegia (can be given immediately after the injury, but should be avoided
from approximately day 10 to day 100 after the injury),
3. Hyperkalaemia
4. Severe muscle trauma, or 5. Hx of malignant hyperpyrexia

Relative c/i
1. Atypical plasma cholinesterase (metabolised by cholinesterase)
2. Muscle diseases.

There may be prolonged paralysis
or dangerous rises in potassium levels.

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8
Q

Why is suxamethonium calculated using TBW?

A

Due to increased
plasma cholinesterase activity

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9
Q

How are doses for non-depolarising paralytics calculated and why?

A

Hydrophilic drugs such as neuromuscular blocking drugs are distributed primarily in the central compartment and lean body weight is a suitable dosing scalar.

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10
Q

Broadly speaking which drugs are calculated using TBW and which IBW (or LBW)?

A

TBW - lipophilic

IBW - hydrophilic

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11
Q

Why does suxamethonium lead to a decreased safe apnoea time?

A

As a depolarising muscle relaxant will cause significant muscle contraction and therefore increased basal metabolic oxygen consumption and reduce time to hypoxia

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12
Q

What temperature should suxamethonium be stored and once out of the fridge how long can it be used for?

A
  1. 4 degrees C
  2. 4 weeks
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13
Q

Re: syntometrine
1. What temp should it be stored at
2. How quickly should it be used after removing it from the fridge?
3. What should also be done with regards to storing it?

A
  1. 2-8 degrees C
  2. 2months
  3. Protect from light
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14
Q

How long after being removed from the fridge can rocuronium be used?

A

3 months

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15
Q

Following removal from the fridge, how quickly should the following be used?
1. Suxemathonium
2. Syntometrine
3. Rocuronium

A
  1. 1 month
  2. 2 months
  3. 3 months
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16
Q

What is the action of glucagon?

A

Mobilises glycogen and stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis

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17
Q

What are the licenses uses of glucagon?

A
  1. Diabetic hypoglycaemia
  2. Endogenous hyperinsulinism

Not B-Block OD but still advised by toxbase and used regularly

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18
Q

When is glucagon c/i?

A

Pheochromocytoma (due to persistent sympathetic hyperstimulation meaning would lead to rebound hypogylcaemia)

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19
Q

Re: glucagon - what is the dose:
1. Hypoglycaemia
2. Beta blocker OD
3. 1unit

A
  1. 1 unit
  2. 10mg
  3. 1 unit = Img

Can be given IM/IV

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20
Q

What to drugs sometimes used in RSI are chemically incompatible and why?

A

Thiopentone and rocuronium

Acidic + basic drugs = crystallisation

Thiopentone = basic
Roc = acidic

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21
Q

What is the difference between nitrous oxide and Entonox?

A

Nitrous oxide is liquid and Entonox is mixed with oxygen 50:50 and is gaseous.

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22
Q

How does nitrous oxide provide analgesic affect? (2)

A
  1. Opiate agonist
  2. NMDA inhibitor
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23
Q

How much more soluble is nitrous oxide than nitrogen in blood?

A

x 35 more

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24
Q

What is the critical temperature of nitrous oxide

A

36.5 degrees C

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25
Q

How is are the following stored?
1. Nitrous oxide
2. Entonox

A
  1. French blue cylinders as a liquid
  2. French blue body with white striped shoulders, at a pressure of 137 bar, horizontally and >5 degrees C
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26
Q

Why is Entonox stored hoirzontally?

A

To avoid the risk of delivering a hypoxic mixture

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27
Q

How long after diving can entonox be used?

A

> 48 hours

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28
Q

What is the pseudocritical temperature of Entonox?

A
  • 7 degrees C

This is the temperature above which the mixture of gases cannot be liquified by pressure alone

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29
Q

What are the c/i to Entonox? (5)

A
  1. Diving < 48 hours
  2. Bowel obstruction
  3. PTX
  4. Recent eye surgery (particularly with injected intra-ocular gas)
  5. Base of skull fractures - risk of pneumocephalus
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30
Q

Generally what do alpha receptors do and more specificically:
- alpha -1
- alpha - 2

A

Vasoconstriction and decreased flow and gastric smooth muscle

Alpha-1 = vasoconstriction and smooth muscle contraction of urinary system/GI/brain/hair

Alpha -2 = decrease insulin, increase glucagon, decreased SVR

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31
Q

Rank the agonistic affect of the following on alpha-1 receptors - noradrenaline, adrenaline, isoprenaline

A
  1. Noradrenaline
  2. Adrenaline
  3. Isoprenaline (much less)
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32
Q

Give 4 examples of an alpha-1 agonist?

A
  1. Noradrenaline
  2. Phenylephrine
  3. Metaraminol
  4. Midodrine
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33
Q

Give 2 examples of an alpha-1 antagonist?

A

Doxazosin
Tamsulosin

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34
Q

What is the action of:
1. Beta-1
2. Beta-2

A
  1. Chronotropic/ionotropic, dromotropic (increased conduction velocity) and lusitropic affect (increased calcium sequestration)
  2. Smooth muscle relaxation (bronchi), vasodilation (although usually overwhelmed by alpha affects) and GI tract. Increase uptake of potassium into cells
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35
Q

In what order to the following affect B-receptors - noradrenaline/adrenaline/isoprenaline

A
  1. Isoprenaline
  2. Adrenaline
  3. Noradrenaline
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36
Q

What are examples of beta-1 agaonists?

A
  1. Dobutamine
  2. Noradrenaline
  3. Isprenaline
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37
Q

Which beta blocker has both beta-1 and beta-2 agonist affects?

A

Propanolol

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38
Q

What is the mechanism of action for labetalol and what is the difference when given orally vs IV?

A

Non selective beta-blocker but also has selective alpha-1 inhibitory affect

PO - 3 x more action on beta receptors

IV - 7 x more action on beta receptors

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39
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron?

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonist

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40
Q

When is ondansetron c/i ? (2)

A
  1. Prolonged QTc
  2. Hepatic impairment - either reduced dose of avoided
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41
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Penthrox?

A

Poorly understand but thought to be GABA and glycine receptor modulation

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42
Q

How is Penthrox metabolised?

A

Liver

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43
Q

What is the dose penthrox?
1. 1 dose
2. Max/day
3. Max/week

A
  1. 3ml
  2. 6ml
  3. 15ml
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44
Q

Can Penthrox be used in pregnancy/breast feeding?

A

Yes

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45
Q

What are the c/i for Penthrox?

A

The ‘CHECK ALLL’ checklist should be used to screen for contraindications

C-ardiovascular instability
H-ypersensitivity to Penthrox or any fluorinated anaesthetic
E-stablished or genetically susceptible to malignant hyperthermia.
C-onsciousness reduced due to any cause including head injury, alcohol or drugs
K-idney impairment* (clinically significant, eGFR<30) or nephrotoxic drugs (tetracycline, gentamicin, colistin, amphotericin, polymyxin B)
—————————————————————–
- Age < 18 years
- Lung/respiratory impairment* (anything which causes respiratory compromise or respiratory depression. A managed diagnosis is not a contra-indication)
- Liver impairment* (deranged LFTs or synthetic function) or CYP450 inducers (carbamazepine, isoniazid, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, rifampicin)
- Last administration of Penthrox (maximum dose 6 ml (2 bottles)/24 hrs or 15 ml/7 days). Should not receive doses on consecutive days.

46
Q

What endpoint can be used to determine suitable depth of anaesthesia for Thiopentone?

A

Loss of eyelash reflex

47
Q

What type of muscle relaxant is rocuronium?

A

Aminosteroid non-depolarising

48
Q

What are 2 issues with using atracurium pre-hospital?

A

3 mins onset of action
significant histamine release which can cause hypotension and bronchospasm

49
Q

How is rocuronium excreted?

A

Predominantly unchanged in bile, 10% renal

50
Q

What is the rate of anaphx with rocuronium?

A

6 per 100,000

51
Q

What is the half life of salbutamol and how is it excreted?

A

3-6 hours and hepatically

52
Q

What is the mechanism of action of salbutamol?

A

Beta-adrenoreceptor agonist with higher affinity for beta-2 than beta-1

  • activates adenyl cyclase, leading to a decrease in intracellular calcium and increase in cAMP activity
53
Q

What type of drug is suggamedex?

A

Modified gamma cyclodextrin

54
Q

How is suggamedex excreted?

55
Q

How does suggamedex work?

A

Encapsulates muscle relaxant molecule, forming strong water-soluble complexes.

56
Q

What is the dose of suggamadex:
1. Routine dose given
2. RSI dose given

A
  1. 2-4mg/kg
  2. 16mg/kg
57
Q

How long after suggamadex should aminosteroidal paralysing agents be avoided?

58
Q

What are the side effects of suggamadex? (3)

A
  1. Theoretical interaction with OCP (give missed pill advice)
  2. Bronchospams
  3. Bradycardia
59
Q

What are 2 specific contraindications to diamorphine?

A
  1. Delayed gastric emptying
  2. Pheochromocytoma - inhibits autonomic nervous system and coudl cause hypertensive crisis
60
Q

What are the weight restrictions for IN diamporphine?

61
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

A
  1. Non-competitive NMDA receptor antagonist
  2. Weak affects as an agonist of: MOP, KOP and DOP recepetors
  3. Weak affect as serotonin, dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
62
Q

What are the optical isomers of ketamine?

A

S-ketamine
R - ketamine

63
Q

What is the difference between the following preparations of ketamine
1. Racemic preparation (both)
2. S-ketamine
3. R-ketamine

A

S-ketamine twice as potent as the racemic preparation

S-ketamine inhibits dopamine x 8 and NMDA x 4 than R-ketamine

S-ketamine has less hallucinogenic and psychogenic affects

64
Q

What is the half life of ketamine?

65
Q

How is ketamine metabolised?

A

In liver by cytochrome P450 to norketamine (30% less potent) and then metablised into an inactive substance and excreted into urine

66
Q

What affect do benzos have on ketamine?

A

Help with emergence but increase half life ketamine (unless chronic benzo misuse and will decrease half-life)

67
Q

Re: flumezanil what is?
1. Mechanism of action
2. Dose (paeds and adults)
3. Onset of action
4. Duration of action
5. Main side effect

A
  1. Competitive antagonist of GABA
  2. 100mcg bolus to 1mg max adults/ 0.01mcg/kg paeds
  3. 1 min
  4. 15-60mins
69
Q

Aside from shifting fluid into intravascular space, what other systemic affect does the increased serum osmolality causes by hypertonic saline have?

A

Releases endogenous vasopressin, causing vasoconstriction and renal fluid retention

70
Q

What is the onset time and duration of action of hypertonic saline?

A

10 mins onset time and lasts approx 1 hour

71
Q

What are the advatanges of hypertonic over mannitol?1

A

Mannitol crysalises at temps <25 degrees and doesn’t cause osmotic diuresis

72
Q

What are the side effects of hypertonic saline? (4)

A
  1. Hypernatreamia (should not be given to someone with Na+ > 155
  2. Hypokalaemia
  3. Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
  4. Rebound IC hypertension
73
Q

How does suxamethonium increase K+?

A

Triggers release from extajunctional acetylcholine receptors

74
Q

In severe burns, when can suxamethonium be used and when should it be avoided?

A

Can be used in first 24 hours but then should be avoided for up to a year

75
Q

How does etomidate act?

A

GABA receport agonist

76
Q

Which are the advatages (1)
and disadvantages of using etomidate? (2)

A
  1. CV very stable
  2. Causes epileptiform activity on EEG/triggers seizures
  3. Inhibits steroid production
77
Q

Explain the reasons fentanyl has a quicker onset time but shorter duration of action compared to morphine

A

Higher lipid solubility so quicker onset of action but is rapidly redistributed resulting in a shorter duration of action.

78
Q

How are morphine and fentanyl metabolised?

79
Q

What is the difference in haemodynamics between morphine and fentanyl?

A

Morphine leads to a histamine release and vasodilation, whereas fentanyl does not

Fentanyl can inhibit sympathetic nervous system and lead to bradycardia, morphine does not.

80
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzos?

A

GABA agonists

81
Q

How is midazolam metabolised?

A

Metabolised in liver to active metabolites and excreted renally

82
Q

What affect does midazolam have on CV system?

A

Increases HR but reduces SVR - overall maintains CO

83
Q

What are the affects of midazolam on the respiratory system, when combined with opiates?

A

Repression and blunts the response to C02

84
Q

What is the mechanism of action of propofol?

A

GABA agonist and cannabinoid action +/- antidopaminergic action

85
Q

Why does propofol have anti-emetic properties?

A

Thought to be due to antidopaminergic properties

86
Q

How is propofol metablised

A

Hepatically to inactive metabolites and excreted renally

87
Q

Which RSI drugs are c/i (3) in acute intermittent porphyria and which can be used (2)?

A
  1. Etomidate
  2. Ketamine
  3. Thiopentone
  4. Midazolam
  5. Propofol
88
Q

How does TXA act?

A

Reversibly binds to lysine binding site on plasminogen and competitively inhibits plasminogen activation.

This prevents conversion of plasminogen to plasmin which is responsible for fibrin clot breakdown

89
Q

How is TXA metablised/excreted?

A

Excreted renally largely unchanged with minimum metabolism

90
Q

What are the contraindications (1) and relative c/i (2) of TXA?

A
  1. Fibrinolytic conditions following DIC

Relative:
1. Current VTE
2. Seizures (increased seizure activity at higher doses so c/i for elective operations but not haemorrhage)

92
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin? (3)

A
  1. Irreversible COX-1 and COX-2 inhibitor - more potent against COX-1.
  2. Reduces prostaglandin production, reducing pain and inflammation and 3. reducing conversion arachidonic acid to thomboxane A2 reducing platelet aggregation
93
Q

What type of LA is:
1. Lidocaine/bupivicaine
2. Cocaine

A
  1. Amides
  2. Ester
94
Q

What is the mechanism of action of GTN?

A

Converted to nitric oxide in vascular smooth muscle.

This increases cyclic guanosine-3,5-monophosphate and smooth muscle relaxation by potassium channel activation and hyperpolarisation of the muscle cell membrane

95
Q

What is the affect of GTN on the CV system?

A

Produces both venous and arterial dilatation reducing both preload and afterload and therefore myocardial work.

Improves coronary artery blood flow dilating the coronary arteries.

96
Q

What are the side effects of GTN? (3)

A
  1. Increase IC pressure due to vasodilation
  2. Tachyphylaxis in prolonged use
  3. Hypotension
97
Q

What is the half life of GTN?
1. IV
2. SL

A
  1. 3 mins
  2. 6 mins
98
Q

What is the half life of amioderone?

99
Q

How is amioderone eliminated?

A

Primarily hepatically and via bile, 10% renal

100
Q

How does adrenaline extrt its affect?

A

Alpha and beta via G-protein coupled receptors

101
Q

What is the precursor of adrenaline?

A

Noradrenaline

102
Q

What affect do non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs have on infants + children compared to adults?

A

Higher CO leads to faster circulation times and quicker onset

103
Q

What affects does rocuronium have given at high doses or infusion on CV system?

A

Vagolytic (mild) - leads to modest increase in HR

104
Q

If using suxemathonium in paeds, what must be considered?

A

Need higher intubating doses

105
Q

What products are the MHRA responsible for?

A

Statutory responsibility for safety of:
1. Medicines (inc. herbal)
2. Medical devices (inc second hand)
3. Blood and blood products

106
Q

What does the MHRA do? (4)

A

Regulation: The MHRA regulates medicines, medical devices, and blood products to ensure they meet required standards of safety, quality, and efficacy before they can be marketed.

Licensing: Reviews and grants licenses for new medicines and medical devices

Surveillance: The MHRA monitors the safety of medicines and medical devices on the market, collecting data on adverse effects and taking action when necessary (can force withdrawal of products)

Research and Development: Gives permission for clinical trials relating to safety of new meds

107
Q

How is a drug/device shown to be new by the MHRA?

A

Black triangle symbol

108
Q

What information is required to report a medication/device using the yellow card scheme? (4)

A
  1. Side effects
  2. Age/sex/initials of patient
  3. Name of meds/device
  4. Reports full name and address
109
Q

What are SABRE and SHOT and what is the difference between them?

A

Serious Adverse Blood Reactions Events:
MHRA system for mandatory reporting of adverse blood events

Serious Hazards of Transfusion:
Not mandatory and run by NHS Blood and Transplant Service

110
Q

What is the Defective Medicine Report Centre?

A

Part of MHRA - minimises harm to patient once defective medicine has been distributed

111
Q

What are the 4 class of recalls and timeframes used by the Defective Medicine Report Centre?

A
  1. Immediate Action required - included OOH, National Patient Safety Alert issued
  2. Action required within 48 hours - pharmacy and wholesale level recall
  3. Action required within 5 days - pharmacy and wholesale level recall
  4. Information only - caution in use, defect information distributed to wholesalers and pharmacies.H