Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

In the context of CAD, MI

Metoprolol is contraidicated in

A

Cardiogenic shock

May reduce BP and HR

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2
Q

In the context of CAD

Nitro glycerin is contraindicated when

A
  • Rright ventricular MI
  • hypotension
  • bradycardia
  • Recent use of phosphodiesterase inhibitors.
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3
Q

CAD, MI

How do nitrates work

A

Venous dilation (venous pooling) –> decreased end-diastolic pressure (i.e., decreased preload), reduced myocardial wall tension, and improved myocardial perfusion.

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4
Q

Substernal chest pain + ST-segment elevations that spontaneously resolves is consistent with

A

Prinzmetal angina.

Coronary artery vasospasm

1st line Tx are CCBs (diltiazem)

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5
Q

STEMI

Door to ballon time

Angioplasty

A

< 90 mins

PCI, Angioplasty

If PCI fails or > 120 mins–> fibrinolysis

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6
Q

What to discontinue before stress test

A

BBs
CCBs
Caffeine
Theophyline

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7
Q

Renal compensatory mechanism on context of CHF

A

Reduced renal blood flow leads to compensatory activation of the RAAS system.

Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction of the afferent and efferent arterioles within the kidney, decreasing the net renal blood flow. Vasoconstriction is, however, more pronounced in the efferent arteriole, which results in an increase in intraglomerular pressure to maintain the glomerular filtration rate

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8
Q

Hepatojugular reflux indicates…

JVP increases on applying pressure over the liver

A

Right heart failure, an increase in JVP that is > 3 cm H₂O occurs and it persists for > 15 seconds.

Can help distinguish cardiac disease from hepatic disease in a patient presenting with bilateral lower extremity edema and ascites.

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9
Q

CHF

Hyponatremia due to fluid dilution in the extracellular fluid compartmen is associated with

A

Poor prognosis

A decrease in Na is associated with a decrease in CO in CHF

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10
Q

cardiac biomarker that is useful for detecting reinfarction following acute MI

A

CK-MB

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11
Q

Atypical symptoms associated with MI are more common in

A

women, the elderly, and people with diabetes

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12
Q

Dressler syndrome is a(n)

A

autoimmune phenomenon that results in fibrinous pericarditis following a myocardial infarction (MI) (2-10 weeks)

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13
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a post-MI patient that presents a few weeks later with chest pain that improves while leaning forward and diffuse ST elevation on ECG?

A

Dressler syndrome

a type of pericarditis

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14
Q

Papillary muscle rupture will present with findings of […] heart failure

Interventricular septum rupture will present with findings of […] heart failure

A

Papillary muscle rupture will present with findings of left heart failure

Interventricular septum rupture will present with findings of left and right heart failure

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15
Q

In acute mitral regurgitation, how do the following left ventricular hemodynamics change?
- Preload
- Afterload
- Ejection fraction
- Forward stroke volume

A

In acute mitral regurgitation, how do the following left ventricular hemodynamics change?
- Preload = significantly increase
- Afterload = decrease
- Ejection fraction = significantly increase
- Forward stroke volume = decrease

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16
Q

One complication that may occur 2 - 7 days post-MI, which often causes mitral regurgitation

A

Papillary muscle rupture

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17
Q

CHF, HTN

Meds which are good for both hypertension and heart failure as they help prevent cardiac remodeling

A

ACE inhibitors
β-blockers (compensated HF)
aldosterone antagonists

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18
Q

What class of drugs should be administered within 24 hours of an MI to limit ventricular remodeling?

A

ACE inhibitors

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19
Q

What effect do ACE inhibitors have on levels of
renin
angiotensin I
angiotensin II

A

renin: Increased
angiotensin I: Increase
angiotensin II: Decreased

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20
Q

JVD, crackles, and SOB post-arteriovenous (AV) conduit formation is suggestive of

A

high output heart failure

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21
Q

What type of heart failure does severe anemia cause?

A

High-output heart failure

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22
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient on dialysis via AV fistula that develops progressive weakness and exertional dyspnea with widened pulse pressure, tachycardia, and brisk carotid upstroke?

A

High-output heart failure (secondary to AV fistula formation)

Preload: Increased
Afterload: Decreased
CO: Increased

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23
Q

Why are NSAIDs contraindicated in heart failure?

A

↓ Renal perfusion → ↑ RAAS → Na+/H2O retention

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24
Q

Left heart failure causes decreased forward perfusion to the kidneys, resulting in

A

activation of the renin-angiotensin system
preferential vasoconstriction of efferent renal arterioles

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25
Q

How do the following parameters change in LV systolic dysfunction (CHF)?
* Cardiac output:
* Systemic vascular resistance:
* Left ventricular EDV:

A
  • Cardiac output: Decreased
  • Systemic vascular resistance: Increased
  • Left ventricular EDV: Increased
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26
Q

How are the following diagnostic parameters affected in congestive heart failure?
* Cardiac index:
* Left ventricular end-diastolic volume:
* Systemic vascular resistance:

A
  • Cardiac index: elevated
  • Left ventricular end-diastolic volume: elevated
  • Systemic vascular resistance: elevated
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27
Q

Meds that improve prognosis in patients with CHF

A
  • BBs
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (MRAs): Eplerenone
  • Angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitors (ARNIs)
  • hydralazine with isosorbide nitrate: BiDil
  • SGLT2 inhibitors.
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28
Q

low frequency, late diastolic sound

A

S4

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29
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a hypertensive patient with symptoms of CHF with LV hypertrophy and an ejection fraction of 55% on echocardiography?

A

Diastolic heart failure with preserved %EF (HFpEF)

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30
Q

What is the most common cause of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)?

A

Chronic uncontrolled hypertension

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31
Q

Heart sound on cardiac auscultation that occurs during early diastole

A

S3

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32
Q

symmetric arthropathy of the 2nd and 3rd metacarpophalangeal joints, a feature suggestive of

A

hemochromatosis.

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33
Q

Complications of MI

A
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34
Q

Patients with Marfan syndrome often have XXXXXXX as a consequence of cystic medial degeneration.

A

Patients with Marfan syndrome often have aortic disease (e.g., aortic regurgitation) as a consequence of cystic medial degeneration.

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35
Q

Bicuspid valve predisposes to what valvular disease?

A

aortic stenosis (older patients) and aortic regurgitation (young adults)

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36
Q

What is the likely underlying cause of an early decrescendo diastolic murmur in a young patient in the U.S. with a family history of heart disease?

A

Congenital bicuspid aortic valve

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37
Q

Opening snap, diastolic murmur 5th intercostal space midclavicular line

A

Mitral stenosis

most commonly due to chronic rheumatic heart disease

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38
Q

Decrescendo early diastolic murmur, left sternal border

A

Aortic insuficiency

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39
Q

What is the most common heart valve affected by rheumatic heart disease?

A

Mitral valve

But also could affect aortic valve

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40
Q

What pathology is associated with scoliosis, long tapering fingers and toes (arachnodactyly), and upward subluxation of lenses?

A

Marfan syndrome

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41
Q

Four associated cardiac problems with Marfan syndrome:

A
  • MVP
  • Thoracic aortic aneurysm
  • Aortic dissection
  • Aortic regurgitation
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42
Q

Holosystolic murmur, left lower sternal border, that increases with inspiration

A

Tricuspid valve regurgitation

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43
Q

Acquired tricuspid valve regurgitation and signs of right-sided heart failure in a previously healthy patient suggest a diagnosis of

A

Tricuspid valve endocarditis.

intravenous drug use (IVDU) is the strongest predisposing factor

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44
Q

What demographic is most commonly affected by aortic stenosis?

A

Older adults (> 60)

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45
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an elderly patient with syncope, dyspnea, and a slow-rising/delayed pulse?

A

Aortic stenosis

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46
Q

Which heart valve is most frequently involved in infective endocarditis in IV drug users?

A

Tricuspid valve

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47
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a young adult with a month-long history of fever and malaise that develops symptoms of CHF with cardiomegaly on imaging?

A

Viral myocarditis

48
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a child that presents with fever and signs of heart failure after several days of a URI (runny nose and nasal congestion)?

A

Viral myocarditis

49
Q

What is the treatment for HOCM? -

A

Avoiding dehydration (preserving preload) - Beta blockers (increased diastolic time to maximize preload)

50
Q

What effect does the hand grip maneuver have on the intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurs?

A

Decreased intensity

51
Q

Diuretics, nitrates, ACE inhibitors, and dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers are contraindicated in

A

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

Meds contraindicated

52
Q

strongest predictor of a poor prognosis in Aortic Stenosis

A

Dyspnea is the strongest predictor of a poor prognosis in Aortic Stenosis

53
Q

What can alcohol cause on the heart?

A

Dilated cariomyopathy

Tx: Alcohol abstinence

54
Q

Complications of mitral stenosis?

A

One possible complication of mitral stenosis is dysphagia and hoarseness due to left atrial dilatation and compression of surrounding structures and esophagus

55
Q

a brief, high frequency, precordial sound heard in early diastole in patients with

A

pericardial knock

constrictive pericarditis

56
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with peripheral edema, ascites, JVD without inspiratory decline, and pericardial calcifications on CXR?

A

Constrictive pericarditis

57
Q

Kussmaul sign (increased JVP on inspiration) may be seen with

A

constrictive pericarditis and restrictive cardiomyopathies

58
Q

Constrictive pericarditis is treated first with

A

diuretics, then pericardiectomy

59
Q

What is the treatment for acute pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs and colchicine

60
Q

Acute pericarditis commonly presents with sharp chest pain that is aggravated by XXXXX and relieved by XXXXX

A

Acute pericarditis commonly presents with sharp chest pain that is aggravated by inspiration and relieved by sitting up and leaning forward

61
Q

In cardiac tamponade, cardiac output decreases due to

A

In cardiac tamponade, cardiac output decreases due to decreased left ventricular preload

62
Q
  • Hypotension
  • Distended neck veins
  • Distant heart sounds
A

Cardiac tamponade

Beck triad

63
Q

One ECG change associated with cardiac tamponade

A

electrical alternans

“swinging” movement of the heart in a large effusion

ECG pattern characterized by alternations in the appearance of the QRS complex between beats

64
Q

Cardiac tamponade may be associated with pulsus paradoxus, which is

A

a decrease in amplitude of systolic BP > 10 mmHg during inspiration

65
Q

Chest X-ray of a patient with aortic dissection shows

A

a widened mediastinum

66
Q

markedly unequal blood pressure in the arms
a widened mediastinum

A

Aortic dissection

67
Q

What imaging study is used for the definitive diagnosis of pericardial effusion / cardiac tamponade?

A

Echocardiography

68
Q

Late systolic murmur (with midsystolic click) at the apex

A

Mitral valve prolapse

69
Q

Mitral valve prolapse is caused by

A

myxomatous degeneration of the valve, making it floppy

70
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with dilated cardiomyopathy, supraventricular tachyarrhythmia, and no murmur?

A

Tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy

Dilated cardiomyopathy and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias often occur concomitantly

71
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias often occur concomitantly

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias often occur concomitantly

72
Q

Late (chronic) VS early (acute) lesions of rheumatic heart disease

A

Late (chronic) lesions of rheumatic heart disease cause mitral stenosis

Early (acute) lesions of rheumatic heart disease cause mitral regurgitation

73
Q

Patients with HCM may also have an accompanying murmur of

A

Mitral regurgitation (i.e., a holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex)

Caused by systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve (SAM) leaflets into the left ventricular outflow tract

74
Q

A sustained decrease in systolic BP by ≥ 20 mm Hg and/or diastolic BP by ≥ 10 mm Hg from the supine to standing position is consistent with

A

orthostatic hypotension.

1st line Tx: fluid and sodium intake; 2nd line: alpha-1 adrenergic agonist (e.g., midodrine)

75
Q

Patient with orthostatic hypotension.
Fluid and sodium intake fails to resolve symptoms.
Next step?

A

alpha-1 adrenergic agonist (e.g., midodrine)

76
Q

Multiple system atrophy (MSA) involves 2/3 of:

A
  • Motor abnormalities (Parkinsonian)
  • “S”erebellar (cerebellar) ataxia
  • Autonomic insufficiency (orthostatic hypotension, incontinence)
77
Q

Aortic regurgitation murmurs due to valvular disease are best heard at

A

the left sternal border (Erb’s point / left 3rd ICS)

78
Q

Most likely echo finding in patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Besides septal wall thickness of >15 mm

A

Abnormal movement of mitral valve

echocardiography which typically shows systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet

79
Q

Medication that can cause hypertensive crisis after recent ingestion of foods rich in tyramine (e.g., cured meats, dried fruits, red wine).

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), e.g., phenelzine

As MAOIs inhibit monoamine oxidase, the consumption of tyramine-rich foods (e.g., red wine, certain nuts, aged cheeses, cured meats, dried fruits) can lead to an accumulation of tyramine. This, in turn, results in a release of norepinephrine, which can induce a hypertensive crisis.

Tx of major depression

80
Q

Jugular venous distention on inspiration

A

Kussmaul sign

Seen in patients with constrictive pericarditis, restrictive cardiomyopathy and right atrial or ventricular tumors

81
Q

Cause of wide pulse pressure with elevated systolic blood pressure and normal diastolic pressure.

A

Decrease in arterial compliance

82
Q

Syncope within 2–5 minutes of rising from a seated or supine position

A

Orthostatic syncope

Caused by Autonomic dysfunction

83
Q

The first-line agents for management of essential hypertension during pregnancy are

A

labetalol and methyldopa

84
Q

A sustained decrease in systolic BP by ≥ 20 mm Hg and/or diastolic BP by ≥ 10 mm Hg from the supine to standing position is consistent with

A

orthostatic hypotension.

85
Q

Situational vs vasovagal syncope

A
  • Situational: Syncope after coughing, straining while defecating, or even after a meal.
  • Vasovagal syncope: triggered by seeing blood, pain, emotional stress, or prolonged standing
86
Q

Routine test in HTN

A

HELP CUT blood pressure:
* HbA1c/Fasting glucose
* ECG (baseline)
* Lipid Profile
* Chemistry panel
* Urinalysis
* TSH

87
Q

Dx in a young patient with:
- hypertensive emergency
- papilledema
- severe headache
- confusion
- abdominal bruit on examination that is best heard at the right costovertebral angle

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD)

Stenoses of the renal arteries

A disease characterized by stenosis of the small and medium-sized arteries as a result of proliferation of connective tissue and muscle fibers within the arterial vessel walls.

88
Q
  • Confusion
  • headache
  • flushed skin
  • bright red retinal veins
  • high anion gap (AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3) (Normal value 4-12)
  • elevated lactate levels
A

Cyanide poisoning

89
Q

Nitroprusside is associated with

Tx of HTN crisis

A

Cyanide poisoning

90
Q

Renal changes in HTN

A

nephrosclerosis/glomerulosclerosis leading to chronic kidney disease

91
Q

Tx of HTN in african american patients

A

THZ (e.g., Chlorthalidone)

92
Q
A

xanthelasma

Increased risk of CAD

93
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

94
Q

How to calculate LDL

A

LDL (mg/dL) = total cholesterol - HDL - (triglycerides/5)

95
Q

Cholestatic jaundice + sicca syndrome (e.g., dry eyes, dry mouth) are highly suggestive of .

A

Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

Associated to dramatic hypercholesterolemia, autoimmune thyroiditis, CREST syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis.

96
Q

Dyslipidemia
Niacine
Flushing

A

Tx et PPx with ASA

caused by prostaglandin-induced peripheral vasodilation

97
Q

Which three statins have the lowest risk of statin-associated myopathy?

A
  • Pravastatin
  • Pitavastatin
  • Fluvastatin
98
Q

Indications of statins

A
  • Vascular disease (MI, carotid stenosis, peripheral vascular disease, cerebrovascular disease)
  • LDL > 190 mg/dL (10 mmol/L)
  • LDL 70 mg/dL (4 mmol/L)-190 mg/dL (10 mmol/L) + age 40-75 + Diabetes
  • LDL 70 mg/dL (4 mmol/L)-190 mg/dL (10 mmol/L) + age 40-75 + cardiovascular risk factors (Hypertension, smoking, obesity, family Hx, XY > 45 y-o/XX > 55 y-o
99
Q

Hemodynamically stable patients with sustained monomorphic VT.

Next step?

A

Prompt pharmacologic cardioversion with intravenous antiarrhythmics such as procainamide, sotalol, or amiodarone

100
Q

**Hemodynamically unstable patients with sustained monomorphic VT.
WITH pulse

Next step

A

Cardioversion

101
Q

**Hemodynamically unstable patients with sustained monomorphic VT.
WITHOUT pulse

Next step

A

Defibrilation

Then CPR for 2 mins

102
Q

Stable + narrow QRS tachycardia > 150 bpm =

Stable + wide QRS tachycardia > 150 bpm =

Tx?

A

Stable + narrow QRS tachycardia > 150 bpm = Adenosine

Stable + wide QRS tachycardia > 150 bpm = Amiodarone

103
Q

Underlying cause of splenic infarction

In patients < 40 years of age:

In patients > 40 years of age:

A

Underlying cause of splenic infarction

In patients < 40 years of age: hypercoagulable state

In patients > 40 years of age: thromboembolic

104
Q

What is the most common location of ectopic foci that cause atrial fibrillation?

A

Pulmonary veins

Tx with ablation: Pulmonary vein isolation

105
Q

A conduction abnormality (e.g. AV block) in the setting of infective endocarditis suggests what?

A

Perivalvular abscess

106
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an IV drug abuser with fever, an early diastolic murmur (left sternal border), and 2nd-degree AV block?

A

Perivalvular abscess

107
Q

What is the recommended management for a patient with first-degree AV block and a normal QRS duration (< 120 msec)?

A

Observation

108
Q

What is the recommended treatment for neurologic or cardiac manifestations of Lyme disease?

A

IV ceftriaxone

109
Q

long-term adverse effect of amiodarone

A

Chronic interstitial pneumonitis

110
Q

patients with tertiary syphilis are at risk of developing

A
  • thoracic aortic aneurysm (TAA) from aortitis
  • Tabes dorsalis: ataxia, lower extremity pain, impaired sensation in the lower extremities
  • Argyll Robertson pupil: pupils that react to accomodation but do nit react to light
111
Q

Patients with recurrent DVTs may be treated with a(n) ????? if they have contraindications to anticoagulation

A

Patients with recurrent DVTs may be treated with a(n) IVC filter if they have contraindications to anticoagulation

absolute contraindications to anticoagulation (e.g., recent surgery, intracranial hemorrhage, active bleeding),

112
Q

Restritive cardiomyopathy + macroglosia

A

Multiple myeloma (MM)
AL amyloidosis

113
Q

most common cause of viral myocarditis in children and adolescents.

A

Coxsackie B virus is the most common cause of viral myocarditis in children and adolescents.

114
Q

Absent jugular venous pulse y descent indicates…

A

Pericardial tamponade

115
Q

High pitched grating sound between S1 and S2

A

Pericarditis

ST elevations in all leads

116
Q

Always suspect a XXXXXX in patients with Infective endocarditis who develop a new conduction abnormality

A

Always suspect a perivalvular abscess in patients with infective endocarditis who develop a new conduction abnormality