Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

ECG signs/causes

A

Pulmonary embolism displays classical ECG changes S1Q3T3, however the commonest finding on ECGs in PE is tachycardia.

  • Signs of Pericarditis
    • Widespread ST Elevation
    • Pericarditis is commonly caused by myocardial infarction and viruses such as Coxsackie B, which means there is frequently a history of flu-like illness.
  • Causes of AF

There are numerous causes of atrial fibrillation but the most common is usually ischaemic heart disease/MI.

Other causes include:

* Mitral stenosis (not aortic until much later in the disease process)
* Thyrotoxicosis
* Pneumonia
* Pulmonary embolism, and
* Sepsis.

COPD is a risk factor for atrial fibrillation and they are often associated.

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2
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot features

A

Pulmonary stenosis

Right ventricular hypertrophy

Overriding aorta

Ventricular septal defect

E

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3
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot commonly appears in which genetic condition?

A

Down’s Syndrome

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4
Q

Which anatomical abnormality in Tetralogy of Fallot determines the level of cyanosis?

A

Pulmonary stenosis

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5
Q

Most common infant cardiac abnormality?

A

Ventricular septal defects are the most common congenital cardiac lesions

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6
Q

Heart failure, syncope + angina are signs of what valvular disorder?

A

Aortic stenosis

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7
Q

Biggest cause of heart disease?

A

Rheumatic Heart Disease

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8
Q

Which valve is most commonly affected in valvular heart disease and is it stenosis or regurg?

A

Mitral Regurgitation (mild)

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9
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of aortic stenosis?

A

Trans-thoracic echocardiogram

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10
Q

Most common causes of aortic stenosis

A

Aortic stenosis is a consequence of narrowing of the aortic valve causing outflow obstruction of the left ventricle. It may be caused by rheumatic fever but this is less common now with most cases due to degenerative changes and calcification.

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11
Q

Cardiogenic shock, tachycardia, cyanosis, pulmonary edema are all signs of what type of valvular disorder?

A

Aortic Regurgitations

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12
Q

What’s the name given to the short, loud, snapping noise associated with the pulse in someone with chronic aortic regurgitation?

A

Pistol shot pulse

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13
Q

What’s the informal name for Corrigan pulse and what valvular disorder does it indicate?

A

Water Hammer Pulse - Aortic Regurgitation

It will feel like a tapping impulse through the patient’s forearm due to the rapid emptying of blood from the arm during diastole.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6mqJUU12POY

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14
Q

‘a low pitched rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the apex.’ indicates which valvular disorder?

A

Austin-Flint murmur: Acute Aortic Regurgitation

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15
Q

BP of 125/50 indicates what?

A

WIDE PULSE PRESSURE - Aortic Regurgitation

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16
Q

Acute AR treatment?

A

Ionotropes + SAVR/TAVI

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17
Q

Chronic AR asymptomatic treatment?

A

Reassurange + Medications

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18
Q

Chronic AR symptomatic treatment?

A

Vasodilator + SAVR/TAVI

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19
Q

Chronic MR asymptomatic treatment?

A

ACE inhibitor

if LVEF < 60%, β-blockers

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20
Q

Most common valvular disorders?

A

MR AS - systolic

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21
Q

In acute AR, what’s the cause of death?

A

A back up of lung blood

  1. Starts off with aortic valve weakening
  2. Blood regurges into the left ventricle from aorta during diastole
  3. Increased end-diastolic pressure
  4. Pushes back on pulmonary circulation
  5. Pulmonary oedema, dyspnoea, congestive heart failure, cardiogenic shock
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22
Q

In chronic AR, what’s the cause of death?

A

A problem with heart’s muscles

  1. Initially, a compensatory increase in stroke volume can maintain adequate cardiac output despite regurgitation (compensated heart failure)
  2. Over time, increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume
  3. LV enlargement and eccentric hypertrophy of myocardium
  4. left ventricular systolic dysfunction
  5. Lower coronary perfusion causing ischaemia, necrosis + apoptosis
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23
Q

Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Idiopathic, Alcoholism, After pregnancy, Autoimmune, Thyroid disease

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24
Q

In familial DCM, if at least 2 family members have the condition what’s the chance of a 1st degree relative getting it?

A

50%

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25
Q

What are 2 things that should be covered in counselling a patient with DCM?

A

Diet (fluid/sodium restriction)

Treating underlying conditions

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26
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy produces systolic/diastolic impairment?

A

Diastolic

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27
Q

Which electrodes make up…

A
  • Lead 1

RA → LA

  • Lead 2

RA → LL

  • Lead 3

LA → LL

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28
Q

Placement of V1 - V6 on ECG

A

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29
Q

Formula for MAP + Ejection Fraction?

A

MAP: DBP + 1/3 (SBP - DBP)

EF: SV/EDV times 100

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30
Q

Signs of decompensation from infective endo?

A

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31
Q

Some non-medical details that should be checked on an ECG?

A
  1. Correct recording?
  2. Signal quality and leads?
  3. Voltage and Paper speed?
  4. Patient background
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32
Q

Glanzmann’s Thrombasthenia

A

Deficiency in GPIIb/IIIa - platelet aggregation issues

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33
Q

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

A

Deficiency in GPIb

34
Q

Storage Pool Disease

A

Dense Granules deficiency - platelet activation issue

35
Q

Which drug commonly causes impaired platelet function?

A

Clopidogrel

36
Q

Dense vs Alpha granules?

A

Dense: CASH - Calcium 2+, ADP, Serotonin + Histamine

Alpha: Alfffa - ADP, Fibrinogen

37
Q

Clopidogrel function

A

Blocks ADP receptor - P2Y12

38
Q

3 types of VWF disease?

A

Type 1: Mild - Moderate deficiency

Type 2: Impaired function

Type 3: Complete deficiency

39
Q

Common abnormalities of vessel wall?

A

Senile purpura, Scurvy, Steroid Therapy + Vasculitis (VeSSSel 🐍)

40
Q

Functions of ADP/Thromboxane A2

A
41
Q

What’s petechiae

A

Thrombocytopenia

42
Q

What’s purpura

A

Bleeding under the skin

43
Q

Distinguish between purpura and petechiae

A

Purpura doesn’t blanch when pressure applied

44
Q

Ranges for severe spontaneous bleeding, spontaneous bleeding, bleeding with trauma and normal bleeding?

A

10/40/100/400

45
Q

Purpose of coagulation?

A

Generate Thrombin (IIa)

46
Q

What term is used for the hallmark of haemophilia?

A

Haemoarthrosis

47
Q

Type of injection in haemophiliacs that is contraindicated?

A

DO NOT GIVE intramuscular injections X

48
Q

Which haemophilias present with spontaneous bleeding?

A

VIII/IX (8 and 9)

49
Q

Acquired haemophilias are more common in ….. ?

A

Clinical Practice - Liver disease, DOACs

50
Q

Features of secondary haemostasis cogaulation disorders?

A

Essentially deeper bleeding (not mucosal/spontaneous)

51
Q

Elongated PT & APTT time indicates what…

A
  1. Liver disease
  2. Anticoagulant drugs e.g. warfarin
  3. DIC (platelets and D dimer)
  4. Dilution following red cell transfusion
52
Q

The only factor for which an isolated concentrate doesn’t exist?

A

Factor 5 (have to get from FFP or platelets)

53
Q

When do we use Prothrombin complexes?

A

Reversal of Warfarin

54
Q

Prothrombin concentrate factors

A

2 + 7 = 9, not 10

55
Q

When do we use FFP?

A

Liver injury, DIC, vitamin K deficiencies

56
Q

Emicizumab function?

A

Binds to 9a and 10 which stops procoagulant function of 8

57
Q

RNA silencing knockouts which gene?

A

Antithrombin

58
Q

Which VWF is desmopressin useful in?

A

Type 1 and maybe type 2 if moderate since it releases endogenous stores

59
Q

Presents with Sudden-onset shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and haemoptysis

A

Pulmonary Embolism

60
Q

Virchow’s Triad

A

Hypercoagulability (venous impact)

Endothelial stress (arterial impact)

Venous Stasis (arterial + venous impact)

61
Q

Factor 5 leiden

A

Resistant to protein C

Time to Play Counter Strike at Five to Eight

62
Q

Which deficiency has to most profound impact on inherited thrombophilic survival?

A

Antithrombin deficiencies

63
Q

Patient’s who have had an embolism in hospital have prophylactic treatment for how long?

A

3 months

64
Q

Two components of reducing risk of reoccurence?

A

Decreasing procoagulant factors

Increasing anticoagulant factors

65
Q

Which factors are required for the maintenance of tissue homeostasis and organ regeneration?

A

Angiocrine factors

66
Q

What process causes the cessation of endothelial cell growth in vessels?

A

Contact Inhibition

67
Q

Most common arteries affected by atherosclerosis?

A

AA → Coronary → Popliteal → Carotid

ACPC 🎶

68
Q

What happens to leukocytes in atherosclerosis?

A

Migrate to sub-endothelial space of major arteries.

69
Q

Four main components of atherosclerosis mechanism?

A
  1. Leukocyte recruitment
  2. Permeabiblity
  3. Sheer stress
  4. Angiogenesis
70
Q

Name of the paradox that argues whether angiogenesis is good or not?

A

Janus Paradox

71
Q

What term describes ‘loss of the normal antithrombotic and anti-inflammatory functions of endothelial cells causes thrombosis with associated inflammation’

A

Thromboinflammation

72
Q

Which are the only vessels to not have a tunica intima, media + adventitia?

A

Capillaries + Post capillary venules

73
Q

Increase in risk of atherosclerosis w/ smoking, hypertension + high cholesterol?

A

16 x

74
Q

2 types of macrophages

A

Inflammatory + Resident

75
Q

What’s the name for nodular lipid deposits in the skin and tendons in familial hyperlipidaemia?

A

Xanthoma

76
Q

2 types of macrophage scavenger receptors?

A

A: also binds Staph + Strep

B: also binds malaria

77
Q

Name an oxidative pathway that macrophages activate in plaques?

A

NADPH oxidase / myleoperoxidase

78
Q

Name a cytokine that macrophages can activate and a chemokine that attract monocytes?

A

Interleukin 1 (upregulates VCAM)

Monocyte Chemotactic Protein 1

79
Q

Main inflammatory cytokines in atherosclerosis that attract smooth muscle cells?

A

PDGF + TBF β - turns then from contractile SMCs to synthetic SMCs (less contractile elements)

80
Q

Main transcription factor that mediates regulation (activators send signals to […], which turns on certain genes)

A

Nuclear Factor kappa b

81
Q

What determines the phenotype of a blood vessel?

A

The location.

82
Q

Examples of Resident Macrophages

A
  • Alveolar resident
  • Osteoclasts
  • Spleen