cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

when do you need to do urgent cath in unstable angina

A
hemodynamic instability
• HF
• recurrent rest angina despite therapy
• new or worsening MR murmur
• sustained VT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

initial tx of someone with unstable angina/nstemi and tini score of 0-2

A

Low risk. Begin aspirin, β-blocker, nitrates, heparin, statin, clopidogrel. Predischarge stress testing and angiography if testing reveals significant myocardial ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

initial tx of someone with unstable angina/nstemi and timi score of 3-7

A

Intermediate to high risk. Begin aspirin, β-blocker, nitrates, heparin, statin, clopidogrel, and early angiography followed by revascularization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

other causes of st elevation

A

Consider acute pericarditis, LV aneurysm, takotsubo (stress)

cardiomyopathy, coronary vasospasm (Prinzmetal angina), acute stroke, or normal variant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

door to balloon time

A

90 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

transfer to pci capable hospital within how many minutes

A

120min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when should you start spironolactone after stemi

A

3-14 days after if LVEF does not improve over 40% and clinical HF or DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when to give thrombolytics in stemi

A

Administer thrombolytic agents when PCI is not available and cannot be achieved within 120 minutes
with transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

contraindications to thrombolytic tx in stemi

A

The most commonly encountered contraindications include active bleeding or high risk for bleeding (recent
major surgery). BP >180/110 mm Hg on presentation is a relative contraindication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when do you do cabg in acute stemi setting

A

CABG is indicated acutely for STEMI in the presence of thrombolytic PCI failure or mechanical complications
(papillary muscle rupture, VSD, free wall rupture).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

indications for pacing in acute mi

A

asystole
• symptomatic bradycardia (including complete heart block)
• alternating LBBB and RBBB
• new or indeterminate-age bifascicular block with first-degree AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

criteria for icd post mi

A

> 40 days since MI
• LVEF ≤35% and NYHA functional class II or III or LVEF ≤30% and NYHA functional class I
• >3 months since PCI or CABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

signs of post mi VSD or papillary wall rupture

A

Patients with VSD or papillary muscle rupture develop abrupt pulmonary edema or hypotension and a loud holosystolic murmur and thrill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

signs of free wall rupture after mi

A

LV free wall rupture causes sudden hypotension or

cardiac death associated with pulseless electrical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when should you give pregnant pt with cardiomyopathy anticoagulation

A

Anticoagulation with warfarin is recommended for women with peripartum cardiomyopathy with LVEF <35%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

recommendation for future pregnancy once pt suffered peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

avoid future pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

giant cell myocarditis

A

form of dilated cardiomyopathy with biventricular enlargement, refractory ventricular arrhythmias, and rapid progression to cardiogenic shock in young to middle-aged adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

first line tx for hocm

A

beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how to tx afib and hocm

A

warfarin regardless of chadsvasc score. noacs 2nd line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

indication for hocm surgery/ablation

A

outflow tract gradient of >50 mm Hg and continuing symptoms despite maximal drug therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

indications for icd in hocm

A

Previous cardiac arrest
Spontaneous sustained VT
Family history of sudden death (first-degree relative)
Unexplained syncope
LV wall thickness ≥30 mm
Blunted increase or decrease in SBP with exercise
Nonsustained spontaneous VT ≥3 beats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

who should be screened for hocm

A

All first-degree relatives of patients with HCM should have genetic counseling and, in the absence of a documented genetic mutation in the proband, echocardiographic screening. Ongoing screening is recommended throughout adulthood starting at
age 12 years because of the possibility of disease expression at any age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

who should be screened for hocm

A

All first-degree relatives of patients with HCM should have genetic counseling and, in the absence of a documented genetic mutation in the proband, echocardiographic screening. Ongoing screening is recommended throughout adulthood starting at
age 12 years because of the possibility of disease expression at any age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

clues that patient may have amyloid cardiomyopathy

A

Neuropathy, proteinuria, hepatomegaly, periorbital ecchymosis, bruising, low-voltage ECG. Diagnosis can be confirmed with abdominal fat pad aspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

clues that patient may have sarcoid cardiomyopathy

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy; possible pulmonary reticular opacities; and skin, joint, or eye lesions.
Cardiac involvement is suggested by the presence of arrhythmias, conduction blocks, or HF. Diagnosis is
supported by CMR imaging with gadolinium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

clues that patient may have hemochromotosis

A

Abnormal aminotransferase levels, OA, diabetes, erectile dysfunction, and HF; elevated serum ferritin and transferrin saturation level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

utility of ambulatory ecg

A

Indicated for frequent (at least

daily) arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

exercise ecg indication in arrhythmias

A

Indicated for arrhythmias

provoked by exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

utility of event monitor

A

Indicated for infrequent
arrhythmias >1-2 min in
duration

small recorder held on chest when symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

loop recorder utility

A

Indicated for infrequent
symptomatic brief arrhythmias

Saves previous 30 s to 2 min
ECG signal when patient
activates the recorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

inplanted loop recorder utility

A

Indicated for very infrequent

arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

chads2vasc

A

1 point each is given for:
• HF
• hypertension
• diabetes
• vascular disease (previous MI, PAD, aortic plaque)
• female sex
• age 65 to 74 years
2 points each are given for:
• previous stroke, TIA, or thromboembolic disease
• age ≥75 years
Provide anticoagulation for a score ≥1 in men and ≥2 in women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what agent can you use for valvular afib meaning mechanical valve or mod to severe rheumatic mitral stenosis

A

only warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

likely cause of svt that is terminated with adenosine

A

AVNRT and AVRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

tx of MAT

A

address underlying dx
pulmonary and cardiac disease, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia.
Metoprolol is the drug of choice followed by verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

Mid-systolic;
crescendo decrescendo

severe as: high pitched, late-peaking murmur; diminished and delayed carotid upstroke

bicuspid valve without calcification will have systolic ejection click followed by murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Aortic regurgitation

A

Diastolic; decrescendo

murmur is heard over LLSB over the valve, but RLSB (dilated aorta) is heard best when leaning forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

mitral stenosis

A

Diastolic; low pitched,
decrescendo

best heard apex in left lateral decubitus

Loud S1; tapping apex beat;
opening snap after S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mitral

regurgitation

A

Systolic; holo-,
mid-, or late
systolic

apex; radiates to underarm or back

systolic click with prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

tricuspid regurgitation

A

Holosystolic

LLSB radiates to LUSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

tricuspid stenosis

A

Diastolic; low pitched, decrescendo;

increased intensity during inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

pulmonary regurgitation

A

Diastolic; decrescendo

LLSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

pulmonary stenosis

A
Systolic; crescendo-decrescendo
LUSB
 Pulmonic ejection click after
S1 (diminishes with
inspiration)

radiates to clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

HOCM murmur

A

Systolic;
crescendo decrescendo
LLSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ASD

A
Systolic;
crescendo decrescendo
RUSB
Fixed split S2; right
ventricular heave;
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

VSD

A
Holosystolic
LLSB
Palpable thrill; murmur
increases with hand-grip,
decreases with amyl nitrite
47
Q

Murmurs that increases with valsalva vs decrease

A

Increase: HOCM MVP
Decrease: AS MR

48
Q

Murmur that increases with laying down squatting, leg raise vs decrease

A

Increase: AS MR

Decrease HOCM MVP

49
Q

Murmur that increases with handgrip/phenylephrine vs decrease

A

Increase: MR

Decrease MVP HOCM AS

50
Q

Murmur that increases with amyl nitrate vs decrease

A

increase MVP HOCM AS

Decrease MR

51
Q

tx for pericarditis

A

colchicine and nsaid

52
Q

prevention for Rheumatic fever after GAS infection

A

GIven penicillin or eythromyocin

53
Q

prophylaxis in patient with rheumatic fever

A

Patients with a history of RF require long-term prophylactic penicillin, and patients with rheumatic valvular disease should continue
prophylaxis for at least 10 years after the last episode of RF or until at least 40 years of age

54
Q

serial follow up interval for asymptomatic severe as

A

6-12 months in asymptomatic patients with severe AS, every 1-2 years in patients with moderate AS, and every 3-5 years in those with mild AS.

55
Q

when do you do surgery for aortic root in bicuspid AS

A

aortic root diameter is >5 cm with additional risk factors for dissection (family history, rate of progression ≥0.5 cm/year) or >5.5 cm without risk factors.

56
Q

screening for bicuspid aortic valve and root

A

Asymptomatic patients with severe aortic valve stenosis or regurgitation require echocardiography every 6-12 months; those with mild stenosis or regurgitation require it every 3 to 5 years.

The ascending aortic diameter should be assessed annually by echocardiography if the aortic root or ascending aorta dimension
is >4.5 cm and every 2 years if the dimension is <4.0 cm.

57
Q

causes of acute AR

A

IE or aortic dissection

58
Q

tx for acute AR

A

Schedule immediate aortic valve replacement for patients with acute AR. Bridging medical therapy includes sodium nitroprusside and IV diuretics. Dobutamine or milrinone are also indicated if the BP is unacceptably low.

59
Q

tx for chronic AR

A

For chronic symptomatic AR, valve replacement is indicated regardless of LV systolic function.

Valve replacement also is indicated for asymptomatic patients with LVEF <50%.

Combined aortic root replacement with aortic valve replacement is used when
an associated aortic root aneurysm is present.

60
Q

when does mitral stenosis present after RF

A

20-40 years after

61
Q

how should you treat afib with Mitral stenosis

A

warfarin regardless of chads 2 vasc

62
Q

mitral stenosis tx

A

percutaneous balloon mitral commissurotomy is indicated for symptomatic patients (NYHA functional class II, III, or IV) and for asymptomatic patients when the valve area is <1.0 cm2.

63
Q

optimal settings for mitral percutaneous commissure

A

pliable leaflets, minimal commissural fusion, and minimal valvular or subvalvular calcification

64
Q

when do you do mitral surgery for stenosis

A

Mitral valve surgery (repair if possible) is indicated in patients with symptomatic (NYHA functional class III-IV) mitral stenosis when balloon valvotomy is unavailable or contraindicated or the valve morphology is unfavorable.

65
Q

causes of acute mitral regurg

A

patients with chordae tendineae rupture resulting from

myxomatous valve disease or endocarditis.

66
Q

causes of chronic mitral regurg

A
  • MVP
  • IE
  • HCM
  • ischemic heart disease
  • ventricular dilatation
  • Marfan syndrome
67
Q

indications for surgery in MR

A
  • acute MR
  • chronic symptomatic MR
  • asymptomatic MR with LVEF <60% or LV end-systolic diameter >40 mm
  • PH caused by MR
  • new-onset AF
  • chronic severe primary MR when another cardiac surgery is planned
68
Q

what is the preferred surgical goal for mitral regurg. replace or repair

A

repair is preferred over replace

69
Q

what should you do with patients with unexplained TIA with MVP and sinus rhythm and no atrial thrombi

A

aspirin then warfarin if recurrent neurological episodes

70
Q

Treat patients with MVP and having palpitations, chest pain, anxiety, or fatigue

A

beta blocker

71
Q

when do you do surgery for mvp

A

Surgery is required for significant MR, a flail leaflet caused by a ruptured chorda, or marked chordal
elongation.

72
Q

primary causes of tricuspid regurg

A

Marfan syndrome and congenital disorders such as Ebstein anomaly (abnormalities of the tricuspid valve and right ventricle) and AV canal malformations.

73
Q

secondary causes of tricuspid regurg

A

IE, carcinoid syndrome, PH, and

RF.

74
Q

tx for tricuspid regurg

A

Consider tricuspid valve surgery in patients undergoing left-sided valve surgery who have severe tricuspid regurgitation or in
patients with symptomatic tricuspid regurgitation unresponsive to medical management.

75
Q

target INR for aortic prosthetic valve without thromboembolism risk factors

A

2.5

76
Q

target INR for aortic prosthetic valve with thromboembolism risk factors

A

3.0

77
Q

All patients with mechanical prosthetic valves of any type should receive what with warfarin

A

aspirin

78
Q

when do you not need to interrupt anticoagulation in a patient with a prosthetic valve

A

cataract surgery

79
Q

how to approach stopping ac prior to surgery in an aortic prosthetic valve

A

stop 4-5 days before restart as soon as possible after

bridge when it pt is high risk for thromboembolism

80
Q

what are the findings of an asd

A

fixed splitting of the S2, a pulmonary midsystolic murmur, and tricuspid diastolic flow murmur

81
Q

whats the most common form of ASD and ecg

A

ostium secundum defect, which usually occurs as an isolated abnormality. The ECG shows right axis deviation and partial RBBB

82
Q

when is closure indicated for ASD

A

Closure is indicated for right atrial or right ventricular enlargement, large left to right shunt, or symptoms

83
Q

ASD surgery types

A

Select percutaneous device closure for ostium secundum ASD and surgical closure for ostium
primum ASD and associated mitral valve defects

84
Q

what should you do if patient had a reversal shunt R to L

A

do not pick closure !

85
Q

signs of coarctation of aorta

A

Characteristic findings include hypertension, diminished femoral pulses, radial-to-femoral pulse delay, and a continuous murmur audible over the
back. In patients with aortic coarctation and a bicuspid aortic valve, an ejection click or a systolic murmur may be heard.

86
Q

tx for coarctation

A

Schedule balloon dilation for patients with a discrete area of aortic narrowing, proximal hypertension, and a pressure gradient >20 mm Hg.

87
Q

pda murmur

A

A continuous “machinery” murmur is

heard beneath the left clavicle. Bounding pulses and a wide pulse pressure may also be noted.

88
Q

classic sign for eisenmenger PDA

A

clubbing and oxygen desaturation that affects the feet but not the hands

89
Q

tx for PDA

A

Closure of a PDA is indicated for left-sided cardiac chamber enlargement in the absence of severe PH. A tiny PDA without other
findings requires no intervention.

90
Q

patients who need prophylaxis for IE

A

prosthetic cardiac valve
• history of IE
• unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease
• repaired congenital heart defect with prosthesis or shunt (≤6 months post-procedure) or residual defect
• valvulopathy following cardiac transplantation
• prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair (annuloplasty rings and chords)

91
Q

surgeries that require prophylaxis

A

dental procedures that involve mucosal bleeding
• procedures that involve incision or biopsy of the respiratory mucosa
• procedures in patients with ongoing GI or GU tract infection
• procedures on infected skin, skin structures, or musculoskeletal tissue
• surgery to place prosthetic heart valves or prosthetic intravascular or intracardiac materials

92
Q

dosing for IE prophylaxis

A

Most patients requiring prophylaxis will be undergoing dental procedures, and the indicated antibiotic is oral amoxicillin 30 to
60 minutes before the procedure.

93
Q

testing for endocarditis

A

TTE is sufficient to rule out IE in low-probability patients, but a TEE is indicated to rule-in IE in patients with high probability
of disease. Obtain a TEE particularly in the setting of Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia. TEE is the test of choice to identify
a paravalvular abscess.

94
Q

Community-acquired native valve IE tx

A

Vancomycin or ampicillin-sulbactam plus gentamicin

95
Q

Nosocomial-associated IE tx

A

Vancomycin, gentamicin, rifampin, and an antipseudomonal β-lactam

96
Q

Prosthetic valve IE tx

A

Vancomycin, gentamicin, and rifampin

97
Q

duration of tx for IE

A

Continue treatment for 4 to 6 weeks except in uncomplicated rightsided native valve endocarditis caused by MSSA, which can be treated for 2 weeks

98
Q

surgery indications for thoracic aneurysm

A
  • aortic diameter >5.0 cm (>4.5-5.0 cm for Marfan syndrome)
  • aortic diameter >4.5 cm and undergoing other heart surgery
  • rapid growth >0.5 cm/yr
99
Q

medication response for acute dissection

A

IV BB add nitroprusside if BP not controlled

100
Q

when is emergent surgery indicated for dissection

A

Emergent surgery is required for type A dissection (involving the ascending aorta) or intramural hematoma

101
Q

screening for AAA

A

One-time ultrasonographic screening is indicated to detect an asymptomatic AAA in any man between the ages of 65 and
75 years who has ever smoked and in selected men ages 65 to 75 years who have never smoked

102
Q

surgery indication for AAA

A

Schedule surgical or endovascular repair of AAAs ≥5.5 cm in diameter, those growing ≥0.5 cm per year, or symptomatic AAAs.

Ruptured AAA requires emergent surgery

103
Q

monitoring guidelines for AAA

A

Patients with an unrepaired AAA require ultrasonographic monitoring at 6- to 12-month intervals if the AAA measures 4.0 to
5.4 cm and every 2 to 3 years for smaller AAAs.

104
Q

pathonomonic for arteroemboli in the eye

A

transient vision loss (a golden or brightly

refractile cholesterol body within a retinal artery [Hollenhorst plaque] is pathognomonic)

105
Q

what test should you perform if patient has normal or borderline abi resting score but suspicious symptoms

A

exercise abi

106
Q

what testing should be done prior to surgery for pad

A

Noninvasive angiography with duplex ultrasonography, CTA, or MRA is performed for anatomic delineation of
PAD in patients requiring surgical or endovascular intervention.

107
Q

how do you calculate abi

A

ratio of the highest systolic arm BP (regardless of side) compared with the highest systolic ankle BP
for that side

108
Q

normal ABI
ABI positive for pad
ABI level for resting ischemia

A

Normal ABI is >0.9 to ≤1.40.
• ABI ≤0.90 is compatible with PAD.
• ABI ≤0.40 is associated with ischemic rest pain.

109
Q

what if abi is >1.4 what should you do next

A

When the ABI is >1.40, select a toe-brachial index to provide a better assessment of lower extremity perfusion

110
Q

best tx for PAD

A

exercise therapy

111
Q

what is the best optimaztion for patients with PAD

A
  • BP goal <130/80 mm Hg
  • aspirin (preferred over clopidogrel)
  • high-intensity statin therapy
  • cilostazol for patients with intermittent claudication
112
Q

when do you do surgery for pad

A

Select angioplasty or surgery for patients who do not improve with medical therapy or have pain at rest or poorly healing ulcers.

113
Q

signs of patient with atrial myxoma

A

fever, anorexia, and weight loss

murmur that sounds like ms but with a tumor flop

114
Q

where do myxomas orignate vs angiosarcoma

A

Myxomas are commonly in left atria vs angioscarcomas are commonly in right atria