cardio treatment notecards pt 1 Flashcards

1
Q

rheumatic fever

• Strict _____ until the temperature returns to normal (without use of antipyretics), sedimentation rate, ECG and pulse also all return to normal
• _____:
o ­Reduce fever, relive joint pain and swelling
o ­Adults may require large dose
• _____
o ­Benzathine Penicillin 1.2 million units IM or procaine PCN 600,000 units IM daily for 10 days
o ­_____ may be substituted (40 mg/kg/day)
• Corticosteroids
o ­No proof that cardiac damage is prevented or minimized by steroids
o ­Short course (prednisone 40-60mg orally daily with tapering over 2 weeks) usually causes rapid improvement of the joint symptoms if salicylates are inadequate

A

bed rest
Salicylates
Penicillin
Emycin

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2
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy

• All patients regardless of etiology should be treated with _____ and _____
• Heart failure management
• Congestive symptoms: _____ and aldosterone antagonists
• Class II-IV HF: aldosterone receptor antagonist if LVEF is less than 35%
o Or in DM less than 40%
• CCB avoided unless afib or aflutter and need to control ventricular rate
• Control BP (systolic)
• _____ (angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor)
• Ivabradine if HR >70 and LVEF less than 35%. (do not replace other BBs)
• _____: second line med
• Blacks: hydralazine-nitrate combo and reduce salt intake
• CPAP in sleep apnea
• ICD (implantable cardioverter-defibrillator) is reasonable; LVAD (Left Ventricular Assist Devices)
• Anticoagulation for suitable candidates
• D/C ETOH if alcohol induced

A
ACEI
BB
diuretics
Sacubitril/valsartan
Digoxin
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3
Q

restrictive cardiomyopathy

  • Little therapy is available for either causative conditions or the restrictive cardiomyopathy
  • Severe cases: _____, _____, verapamil, _____
  • Chemotherapy or bone marrow transplant (amyloidosis)
  • Cardiac transplant
A

diuretics
beta blockers
ACEI

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4
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

• If hypertrophy is due to cardiac causes, treat the underlying cause
• _____ should be the initial medication in symptomatic individuals, especially when dynamic outflow obstruction is noted on the echocardiogram
o Slower heart rate assists with diastolic filling of the stiff LV
• _____ especially verapamil has also been effective in symptomatic patients
o Improved diastolic function but can increase outflow obstruction
• Disopyramide is also effective because of its negative inotropic (force/speed of contraction) effects as an addition
• _____ are frequently necessary due to the high LV diastolic pressure and elevated LA pressures
• Aggressively treat afib
• Nonsurgical septal ablation by injection of _____ into septal branches of the left coronary artery (controlled MI)
• _____ for patients with family history of unexplained syncope or sudden death
• Excision of part of the outflow myocardial septum or mitral valve replacement
• Cardiac transplant

A
Beta blockers
CCBs
Diuretics
alcohol
Implantable defibrillator
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5
Q

tako-tsubo cardiomyopathy

  • Similar to any acute MI
  • Long term therapy depends on whether LV dysfunction persists
  • Most patient receive _____, _____ and _____ until the LV fully recovers
  • Prognosis is good unless in-hospital complications such as mitral regurg, ventricular rupture or vtach
  • Recovery is expected after a period of weeks-months
A

ASA
BB
ACEI

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6
Q

thiazides

EXAMPLES: Chlorthalidone, Hydrochlorothiazide

  • Some experts recommend chlorthalidone over HCTZ because studies show that cardiovascular events less common than with HCTZ
  • Also, BP, LDL were lower than with HCTZ

Method of Action:
• Initially lower bp by decreasing _____ and _____
• Chronic use: major effect is reduction of peripheral vascular _____
• Most of effect achieved at lower doses: ex: 12.5 or 25 mg HCTZ (hydrochlorothiazide)
• Chronic therapy: HCTZ every other day: no drop in efficacy

Indications:
• More potent in _____, _____, obese, smokers
• Decreases bone loss in older women at risk for osteoporosis

CI:
Side Effects
• _____ (uncommon at recommended doses)
• _____
• _____
• rash
• erectile dysfunction
• Increase serum _____ and may precipitate gout!
• Small increases in blood glucose, _____, LDLs and plasma insulin
• Relatively minor during long-term, low dose use.
• Slightly higher incidence of new onset DM

Misc.
• Diuretics as a single-drug therapy: control bp in 50% of pts, and can be used in combination with all other classes of drugs.
• Also good for lowering isolated or predominately systolic HTN

A
plasma volume
cardiac output 
resistance. 
blacks
older patients 
Hypokalemia
hyponatremia
hypomagnesemia 
uric acid
triglycerides
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7
Q

ACE inhibitors

EXAMPLES: Benazepril (Lotensin), Captopril (Capoten), Enalapril (Vasotec, Epaned), Fosinopril (Monopril), Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), Moexipril (Univasc), Perinopril (Aceon), Quinapril (Accupril)

Method of Action
• A good drug used as initial medication in mild-moderate HTN
• They inhibit _____
• Inhibit _____ degradation
• Stimulate _____ prostaglandins
• Reduce sympathetic nervous system activity

Indications
• More effective in younger _____
• Less effective in blacks and elderly
• Less effective in predominantly _____ hypertension
• Agents of choice in _____: they delay progression to end-stage renal dz
o Used in type II DM as well
• DOC in patients with _____, especially in combo with a diuretic
• Good in asymptomatic patients with reduced ejection fractions

CI	
Side Effects	
•	Not many side effects
•	If your pt. has \_\_\_\_\_: severe hypotension & renal failure can occur
•	\_\_\_\_\_ in the elderly 
•	COMMON: chonic, dry \_\_\_\_\_
•	Dizziness 
•	Skin rashes 
•	Taste alterations (captopril)

Misc.
• As single therapy: control in only 40-50% of pts
• Use ACEIs in combo with diuretic & calcium channel blocker: POTENT!

A
RAAS system
bradykinin
vasodilating
whites
systolic
Type I DM
CHF
bilateral renal artery stenosis
Hyperkalemia
cough
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8
Q

ARBs

EXAMPLES: Eprosartan, Olmesartan, medoxomil, valsartan, telmisartan, losartan, candesartan, irbestartan

Method of Action
• New agents appear to be as effective as ACEIs in reducing bp

Indications
-Use for pts who develop _____ with ACEIs

CI
Side Effects
• Do not cause cough and only infrequently cause skin rashes
• There is a risk of hypotension and _____ failure in pts with bilateral renal stenosis and _____

A

cough
renal
hyperkalemia

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9
Q

Beta-blockers

-olol

MOA:
• decrease the _____ and cardiac output
• decrease _____ release
• Neutralize reflex tachycardia caused by vasodilators

Indications:
• work better in patients with high plasma renin activity: younger _____ patients
• Work well in patients with angina pectoris, chronic previous MI, stable congenital heart failure, pts with migraines and physical manifestations of anxiety
• Beta blockers (traditional) not ideal for _____

CI:
• Depress HDL cholesterol
• Traditionally CONTRAINDICATED in pts with _____
o Recent evidence makes this controversial
• Use CAUTIOUSLY with Type I DM since they can mask sxs of _____
• Careful with Peripheral Vascular Dz in pts with rest pain and nonhealing ulcers

side effects:
• Non-selective block B2 receptors in bronchi and vasculature (not good for _____)
• Some are lipid-soluble: they do cross blood-brain barrier and cause _____ changes
• All exacerbate bronchospasm
• All depress sinus node and A-V conduction
• All cause nasal congestion
• They may cause Raynaud’s phenomenon
• Also CNS symptoms with nightmares, excitement, depression & confusion
• Fatigue, lethargy & impotence MAY occur

A
heart rate
renin
white
monotherapy
unstable CHF
hypoglycemia
asthmatics
central nervous system
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10
Q

CCBs

EXAMPLES: Verapamil (Calan, Verelan) and diltiazem (Cardizem, Tiazac)
Dihydropyridine CA+ channel blockers: nifedipine, nicardipine, isradipine, felodipine, amlodipine, nisoldipine

Method of Action
• Cause peripheral _____
• Less reflex tachycardia and fluid retention than other vasodilators
• Effective as single drug therapy in 60% of patients

Indications
• Better than beta blockers or ACEIs in _____ and the _____

CI
• Verapamil (Calan, Verelan) and diltiazem (Cardizem, Tiazac) should be combined cautiously with Beta-Blockers because of their potential to depress _____ conduction and sinus node automaticity & contractility
• Higher rates of heart failure and myocardial infarction, especially in diabetics!!

Side Effects	
•	headache
•	peripheral edema
•	bradycardia
•	constipation

Misc.
CA+CBS
• Negative inotropic effects
• Might cause or exacerbate _____ in pts with cardiac dysfunction
• Only CCB safe in severe heart failure: amlodipine (Norvasc)

A
vasodilation
blacks
elderly
AV
heart failure
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11
Q

Alpha-Adrenoceptor Antagonist

EXAMPLES: Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin

Method of Action
• Block _____ alpha receptors
• Relax _____
• Reduce BP by lowering peripheral vascular resistance
• Effective as single drug tx in some patients
• Increase HDLs and REDUCE total cholesterol

Indications
• Don’t use as first agents to treat HTN: EXCEPT in men with symptomatic _____!

CI
Side Effects
• Marked _____ and syncope after the 1st dose (small, at bedtime)
• Postdosing palpitations, HA, nervousness
• No adverse effect on serum lipids
• Long term therapy: tachyphylaxis (marked DECREASE in effectiveness)

Misc.
• Higher degree of heart failure and stroke compared to diuretics

A

postsynaptic
smooth muscles
prostatism
hypotension

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12
Q

HTN summary

• Black All Ages:
o First Line: _____ or _____

• All Others <55 years
o First Line: _____ or _____; _____; _____

• All Others > 55 years
o First Line: _____ or _____

• Diabetics
o Treat to <130/80; _____ should be part of the treatment
• CKD
o Treat to <130/80; Thiazide to Loop _____; _____ Inhibitors

A

CCB
diuretics

ACE
ARB
CCB
diuretic

CCB
diuretic

ACE
diuretics
ACE

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13
Q

hypertensive emergency

• In most situations, appropriate control of BP is best achieved using combinations of _____ or _____ plus _____ or _____

A

nicardipine
clevidipine
labetalol
esmolol

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14
Q

secondary HTN

•	Lifestyle modifications
o	\_\_\_\_\_ diet (high fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy, low in saturated/total fats)
o	\_\_\_\_\_ reduction
o	Reduced ETOH consumption
o	Reduced \_\_\_\_\_ intake
o	Gradually increase activity
o	\_\_\_\_\_ cessation
•	For pharm drugs see drug charts

• Pheochromocytoma (PPP)
o Preoperative management: nonselective alpha blockage best initial therapy (PHEnoxybenzamine or PHEntolamine) 1-2 weeks followed by beta blockers or CCB to control pressure prior to surgery
o DO NOT initiate therapy with beta blockers
o Management: complete _____

• Renal vascular HTN (renal artery stenosis) (CURRENT)
o Options include medical management, angioplasty with or without _____, and surgical bypass.
o Antihypertensive meds

A
DASH
weight
salt
smoking
adrenalectomy
stenting
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15
Q

heart failure

o Optimal management
 _____
 _____ (ARBS if ACEI is not tolerated)
 _____ (started after patient is stable on ACEI)
 Remain symptomatic:
• Mineralcorticoid (_____) receptor antagonists
• _____
 If still symptomatic, add low dose _____

A
Diuretic
ACEI
BB
aldosterone
sacubitril/valsartan
digoxin
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16
Q

aortic stenosis

• Refer all patients to cardiology!!
• If heart failure, angina or syncope present: prognosis without surgery is poor (50% 3 year mortality)
• _____ for all symptomatic patients with significant aortic stenosis
• Asymptomatic: valve replacement usually not indicated
• Stress testing + BNP may ID patients who actually have ventricular compromise
• Valve replacement: surgical mortality 2-5%
• Dramatic hemodynamic improvement
• Any severe coronary lesions bypassed at same time
Interventions:
• Young/adolescent pts: percutaneous valvuloplasty still used occasionally
• In adult patients balloon valvuloplasty less effective and undergoes early restenosis early: rarely used
• Transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR) often preferred method to open valve replacement
• _____ used for any patient who cannot utilize anticoagulation with Warfarin, and is the preferred valve in patients >70
• _____ used in patients under the age of 50, and in patients 50-70 who are able to and who comply with _____ therapy
• INR for mechanical valves for aortic stenosis is 2-3

A

Surgery
Bioprosthetic valve
Mechanical valve
Warfarin

17
Q

aortic regurg

• Monitor serially with _____
• _____: with symptoms, or LV dysfunction
o •EF< 55%
o •LV end-systolic dimension > 5.0 cm
o •Operative mortality:3-5%
o •Valve replacement (_____ or _____)
o •Post surgery: LV size decreases, LV function increases

A

echo
surgery
mechanical
porcine/bovine

18
Q

mitral stenosis

  • Long asymptomatic phase
  • Subtle limitation of activity
  • Pregnancy can cause symptoms (correct before pregnancy if possible)
  • More severe symptoms: atrial fibrillation
  • Improve with control of ventricular rate or converting to normal sinus rhythm
  • Afib: anticoagulate with warfarin (even if converted to sinus rhythm)
  • Treatment of choice for symptomatic patients, patients with LV dysfunction, patients with pulmonary HTN/edema, persistent atrial fibrillation is generally a _____
  • Can repeat procedure if valve becomes re-stenosed

If balloon valvuloplasty not effective, or not able to be performed, can replace valve
• _____ valve
o ­Tend to degenerate after 10-15 years
o ­Anticoagulation (Warfarin) used for 6 months after valve implantation
o ­Do not need long-term anticoagulation (unless needed for atrial fibrillation or other indications)
o ­Poor outcomes with younger patients and those with renal disease

• _____ valve
o ­Last longer, can last indefinitely
o ­Higher risk of thrombosis, need long-term anticoagulation with INR 2.5-3.5

Follow up:
• Monitor with yearly exams and echos
• Send patient initially to cardiologist, who will set his own timetable for cardiology rechecks

A

balloon valvuloplasty
Bioprosthetic
Mechanical

19
Q

mitral regurg

  • Acute causes can require emergency _____
  • Stabilized: vasodilators (_____) or IABC: lowers systemic vascular resistance
  • Chronic: _____: lisinopril 20 mg qd: reduce LV volume and improve symptoms
  • ACC/AHA guidelines recommend valve replacement with decreased EF and dilated left ventricle (see guidelines)
A

surgery
nitroprusside
ACEI

20
Q

mitral valve prolapse

  • Hyperadrenergic state: use _____ (low doses)
  • _____ repair is surgery of choice
  • Endocarditis prophylaxis no longer recommended
A

B-blockers

Mitral valve

21
Q

pulmonary regurg

• Treat primary cause
• Surgical patch from a Tetralogy repair:
o _____ with RV enlargement
o QRS will widen as RV function declines
• Valve replacement with _____ valve

A

Pulmonary valve replacement

bioprosthetic

22
Q

pulmonary stenosis

_____

A

Balloon valvuloplasty

23
Q

tricuspid stenosis

  • May be progressive causing severe right heart failure
  • Initial treatment: _____
  • Liver engorgement or ascites: _____ inhibitors
  • _____: tricuspid valve replacement valve replacement almost always with _____ valves
A

diuretics
aldosterone
surgery
bioprosthetic

24
Q

tricuspid regurg

  • Most cases well tolerated
  • _____ (+/- thiazide diuretic)
  • Tmt of pulmonary HTN
  • If from IV drug abuse endocarditis: temporarily remove tricuspid valve so infection can resolve
  • Valve usually replaced in 3-6 months
  • Repair or bovine replacement
A

Loop diuretic