Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4th Year Acute Care > Cardio Physiology > Flashcards

Cardio Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by autorhythmicity of the heart?

A

It is able to generate its own electrical impulses without external stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does excitation of the heart normally originate?

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the specialised cells within the SA node that initiate the heart beat called?

A

Pacemaker cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is meant by sinus rhythm?

A

Describes the heart’s pace being controlled by the SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SA node cells have a stable resting membrane potential. True/False?

A

False

They exhibit spontaneous pacemaker potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of the spontaneous pacemaker potential?

A

Takes the membrane potential to threshold (depolarisation) to generate an action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What gives rise to pacemaker potential?

A

Decrease in K+ efflux

Slow Na+ influx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes the rising phase of the action potential (depolarisation) in SA node cells?

A

Opening of Ca++ channels, resulting in Ca++ influx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes the falling phase of the action potential (repolarisation) in SA node cells?

A

Opening of K+ channels, resulting in K+ efflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Summarise the phases of the SA node action potential

A

Pacemaker potential: decreased K+ efflux, slow Na+ influx
Rising phase: Ca++ influx
Falling phase: K+ efflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which junctions allow cell-to-cell spread of excitation?

A

Gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The AV node is the only point of electrical contact between atria and ventricles. True/False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

AV node cells are large and slow to conduct. True/False?

A

False

They are small and slow to conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is AV nodal delay present?

A

To allow time for atrial systole to precede ventricular systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which fibres enable the excitation to spread to the ventricles?

A

Bundle of His and Purkinje fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What gives rise to the rising phase of the action potential in ventricular contractile cells?

A

Fast Na+ influx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe Phase 0 of the cardiac action potential

A

Fast Na+ influx causes reversal of the resting membrane potential from -90mV to +30mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe Phase 1 of the cardiac action potential

A

Closure of Na+ channels + transient K+ efflux causes some repolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What gives rise to the plateau phase (phase 2) of the cardiac action potential?

A

Ca++ influx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What gives rise to the falling phase (phase 3) of the cardiac action potential?

A

K+ efflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe Phase 3 of the cardiac action potential

A

Closure of Ca++ channels and opening of K+ channels allows K+ efflux which causes repolarisation of the membrane potential back to -90mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sympathetic stimulation causes increased heart rate. True/False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is meant by vagal tone?

A

Parasympathetic stimulation to the heart dominating in resting conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The vagus nerve supplies only the SA node. True/False?

A

False

Supplies both SA and AV nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does parasympathetic stimulation do to the AV node?

A

Increases AV nodal delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which neurotransmitter acts on which receptor in parasympathetic control of the heart?

A

ACh on M2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name a competitive inhibitor of ACh that is used in bradycardia

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Vagal stimulation causes the slope of the pacemaker potential to increase. True/False?

A 
False
Slope decreases (increased AV node delay)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is meant by negative chronotropic effect?

A

Decreased contraction of the heart due to less frequent action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which areas of the heart does the sympathetic system supply?

A

SA node
AV node
Myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which neurotransmitter acts on which receptor in sympathetic control of the heart?

A

Noradrenaline on B1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sympathetic stimulation does what to the slope of the action potential?

A

Increases it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is meant by positive chronotropic effect?

A

Increased contraction of the heart due to more frequent action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cardiac muscle is striated. True/False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What creates the striated appearance of cardiac muscle?

A

Contractile protein elements (actin and myosin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Give the name of protein channels that which form electrical communication between neighbouring myocytes

A

Gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do desmosomes do in the heart?

A

Provide mechanical adhesion between adjacent cardiac cells

Ensure tension is developed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is contained within muscle fibres?

A

Myofibrils (contractile protein elements of muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Actin filaments are thick and appear light. True/False?

A

False

They appear light but are thin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Myosin filaments are thick and appear dark. True/False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the arrangement of of actin and myosin within each myofibril called?

A

Sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Myosin filaments slide over actin filaments to produce muscle tension. True/False?

A

False

Actin slides over myosin!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is required to generate the force by which sliding of filaments can occur?

A

ATP

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the role of calcium in sliding of filaments?

A

Required to ‘switch on’ cross-bridge formation

  1. binds to troponin complex on myosin
  2. causes conform change which exposes actin binding site
  3. cross-bridge forms via site and myosin binding site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the role of ATP in sliding of filaments?

A

Binds to myosin head to either energise it or break down the cross-bridge between myofibrils (that is created by calcium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where does the calcium that activates contractile machinery come from (where is it stored)?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is meant by calcium-induced calcium release?

A

Ca++ influx during the plateau phase of the AP causes Ca++ to be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to cause contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is meant by the refractory period?

A

Period following action potential where it is not possible to generate another action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the two moments where a new action potential cannot be generated?

A 
Plateau phase (Na channels in closed state)
Falling phase (K channels open, thus membrane cannot depolarise)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the clinical benefit of the refractory period?

A

Prevents tetanic contractions of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Define stroke volume

A

Volume of blood ejected by each ventricle per heart beat

EDV - ESV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is meant by end diastolic volume (EDV)?

A

Volume of blood remaining in each ventricle following diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What determines EDV?

A

Venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe the Frank-Starling Law of the Heart

A

The greater the EDV (as a result of more venous return), the greater the stroke volume will be during systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Optimal skeletal muscle fibre length (for contraction) is achieved by stretching the muscle. True/False?

A

False

Optimal length is at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is meant by preload?

A

Volume of blood in each ventricle before contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is meant by afterload?

A

The resistance against which the heart has to pump after contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How does the Frank-Starling law compensate partially for decreased stroke volume?

A

EDV increases (due to failure to pump full SV) so force of contraction increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is meant by positive inotropic effect?

A

Force of contraction increases (due to sympathetic stimulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Parasympathetic system has a negative chronotropic and inotropic effect. True/False?

A

False

No inotropic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does sympathetic stimulation do to the Frank-Starling curve?

A

Shifts it to the left (increased SV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is meant by cardiac output?

A

Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute

SV x HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Cardiac valves produce a sound when they open and close. True/False?

A

False

Only produce a sound when they close (normally)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the cardiac cycle?

A

Encompasses all the events from one heartbeat to the next

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What happens in Passive Filling?

A

AV valves open and blood flows into ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

80% of ventricular filling is done by atrial contraction. True/False?

A

False

80% is contributed to by passive filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In Passive Filling, what are the pressures in the atria and ventricles?

A

Close to zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What happens in Atrial Contraction?

A

Remaining atrial volume fills ventricles by atrial systole, completing the EDV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which part of the ECG signals atrial depolarisation?

A

P wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

During which part of the ECG do the atria contract?

A

Between the P wave and QRS complex

71
Q

What happens in Isovolumetric Ventricular Contraction?

A

AV valves shut since Patria less than Pventricles (produces S1)
Ventricle is essentially a closed box of high pressure

72
Q

Which part of the ECG signals ventricular depolarisation?

A

QRS complex

73
Q

When does ventricular systole take place on the ECG?

A

Between end of QRS and beginning of T wave (ST segment)

74
Q

What happens in Ventricular Ejection?

A

Aortic/pulmonary valve opens since Pventricles is greater
Stroke volume is ejected; ESV remains
Ventricular pressure falls and aortic/pulmonary valve shuts since P here less than Pventricles (produces S2)

75
Q

What happens in Isovolumetric Ventricular Relaxation?

A

Ventricle is a closed box again (since aortic/pulmonary valves have closed)
Pressure falls until Pventricles less than Patria, where AV valves open and whole cycle restarts

76
Q

S1 heralds the end of systole. True/False?

A

False

Heralds the start of systole (AV valves shut)

77
Q

S2 heralds the start of diastole. True/False?

A

True

78
Q

Define ‘blood pressure’

A

Outward force exerted by blood on blood vessel walls

79
Q

Arterial laminar flow is audible. True/False?

A

False

80
Q

If external pressure exceeds systolic blood pressure, sound will be heard through a stethoscope. True/False?

A

False

81
Q

Which sort of blood flow can be heard through a stethoscope?

A

Turbulent

82
Q

What is the 1st Korotkoff sound?

A

Peak systolic pressure

83
Q

What are the 2nd-3rd Korotkoff sounds?

A

Intermittent sounds of turbulent flow

84
Q

What is the 4th Korotkoff sound?

A

Last muffled sound heard before sound stops

85
Q

What is the 5th Korotkoff sound?

A

No sound!

Represents diastolic pressure

86
Q

What are the formulae for calculating MAP?

A

[2 x diastolic + systolic]/3
diastolic + [systolic - diastolic]/3
CO x TPR
SV x HR x TPR

87
Q

What is the normal range for MAP?

A

70-105 mm Hg

88
Q

MAP of at least 50 mm Hg is needed to perfuse the vital organs. True/False?

A

False

At least 60 mm Hg is needed

89
Q

Arteries are the main resistance vessels. True/False?

A

False

90
Q

What are the main resistance vessels?

A

Arterioles

91
Q

Which receptors regulate blood pressure short-term?

A

Baroreceptors

92
Q

The higher the blood pressure, the greater the firing of baroreceptors. True/False?

A

True

93
Q

Which CN do the carotid baroreceptors fire through?

A

CN IX

94
Q

Which CN do the aortic baroreceptors fire through?

A

CN X

95
Q

When arterial blood pressure decreases, what happens with regards to baroreceptors?

A

Decreased firing, causing decreased vagal activity, causing increased sympathetic activity, causing increased vasoconstriction, leading to increase in blood pressure

96
Q

When you suddenly stand up, what happens to the venous return to the heart and thus MAP?

A

Decreases

97
Q

How much of total body fluid does extracellular fluid contribute to?

A

1/3

98
Q

What is the function of renin in the RAAS?

A

Released from kidneys to stimulate conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

99
Q

What is the function of ACE?

A

Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II

100
Q

What is the function of angiotensin II?

A

Stimulates release of aldosterone

Causes systemic vasoconstriction

101
Q

What is the function of aldosterone in the RAAS?

A

Acts on kidneys to increase Na+ and water retention

102
Q

Where is renin released from?

A

Juxtapulmonary apparatus in the kidney

103
Q

Renal artery hypertension causes renin to be released. True/False?

A

False

Hypotension would cause its release

104
Q

Where is ANP stored?

A

Atrial myocytes

105
Q

What does ANP do?

A

Causes excretion of Na+ and water in the kidneys
Vasodilates
Decreases renin release
[counteracts RAAS]

106
Q

When is ADH release stimulation?

A

Reduced extracellular fluid

Increased extracellular fluid osmolarity (solute)

107
Q

What does ADH do?

A

Causes reabsorption of water, i.e. concentrates urine, to increase plasma volume
Vasoconstriction (small degree)

108
Q

Which blood vessel holds the most blood volume at rest?

A

Veins

109
Q

Resistance to blood flow is directly proportional to what?

A

Thickness and length of blood vessel

110
Q

Resistance to blood flow is inversely proportional to what?

A

[Radius of blood vessel]^4

111
Q

How is resistance to blood flow mainly controlled?

A

Through changes in the radius of the vessel

112
Q

What is meant by vasomotor tone?

A

Vascular smooth muscle being partially constricted at rest due to tonic discharge of the sympathetic system (releases noradrenaline)

113
Q

There is no parasympathetic innervation of vascular smooth muscle. True/False?

A

False

There is in the penis and clitoris

114
Q

Adrenaline acting on alpha receptors causes what?

A

Vasoconstriction

115
Q

Adrenaline acting on beta receptors causes what?

A

Vasodilation

116
Q

Alpha receptors are predominant in skeletal and cardiac muscle arterioles. True/False?

A

False

Beta receptors are predominant here

117
Q

Where are alpha receptors predominately found?

A

Skin, gut and kidney arterioles

118
Q

What is the effect of angiotensin II on vascular smooth muscle?

A

Vasoconstriction

119
Q

Local metabolic conditions can override extrinsic control of vascular smooth muscle. Explain?

A

You can have local vasodilation at an organ, despite widespread vasoconstriction, and this will not influence overall blood pressure

120
Q

Decreased local PO2 causes vasoconstriction in systemic circulation. True/False?

A

False

Causes vasodilation

121
Q

What is the effect of decrease in local PO2 in pulmonary circulation arterial smooth muscle?

A

Vasoconstriction

122
Q

Increased local [H+] and [K+] in systemic circulation causes vasodilation. True/False?

A

True

123
Q

Describe myogenic response to stretch

A

If MAP falls, resistance vessels in brain and kidneys dilate to increase flow (i.e. not in line with normal baroreceptor reflex)

124
Q

Sympathetic stimulation increases during exercise. What does this do to the HR, SV and CO?

A

Increases all of them

125
Q

How does blood flow change to the kidney and gut during exercise?

A

Decreases - vasomotor tone causes vasoconstriction in these areas

126
Q

How does blood flow change to skeletal and cardiac muscle during exercise?

A

Increases due to vasodilation in these areas

127
Q

What causes vasodilation in skeletal and cardiac muscle during exercise? i.e. what overrides sympathetic effects?

A

Metabolic hyperraemia

128
Q

Systolic and diastolic murmurs coincide with the carotid pulse. True/False?

A

False

Only systolic murmurs coincide with carotid pulse

129
Q

Physiological splitting of the 2nd heart sound occurs on inspiration. True/False?

A

True

130
Q

What happens in physiological splitting of the 2nd heart sound?

A

Inspiration causes decrease in intrathoracic pressure, causing increase in venous return which prolongs RV ejection time (so pulmonary sound delayed fractionally behind aortic sound)

131
Q

A 4th heart sound is always pathological. True/False?

A

True

132
Q

Define ‘shock’

A

An abnormality in the circulatory system, resulting in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation

133
Q

Which 3 factors influence the stroke volume?

A

Preload (venous return)
Myocardial contractility
Afterload

134
Q

How does hypovolaemic shock arise?

A

Loss of blood volume leads to decreased venous return leads to decreased stroke volume leads to decreased CO + BP = low perfusion and oxygenation

135
Q

How does cardiogenic shock arise?

A

Decreased myocardial contractility leads to decreased stroke volume leads to decreased CO + BP = low perfusion and oxygenation

136
Q

How does tension pneumothorax lead to obstructive shock?

A

Increased intrathoracic pressure leads to decreased venous return leads to decreased stroke volume leads to decreased CO + BP = low perfusion and oxygenation

137
Q

How does neurogenic shock arise?

A

Loss of sympathetic (vasomotor) tone leads to increased vasodilation leads to decreased venous return leads to decreased stroke volume leads to decreased CO + BP = low perfusion and oxygenation

138
Q

How does vasoactive shock arise?

A

Release of vasoactive mediators leads to increased vasodilation leads to decreased venous return leads to decreased stroke volume leads to decreased CO + BP = low perfusion and oxygenation

139
Q

Compensatory mechanisms exist to deal with blood volume loss until greater than 40% is lost. True/False?

A

False

Mechanisms only compensate until greater than 30% volume is lost

140
Q

What are the first branches/arteries that come off the aorta?

A

Right + left coronary arteries

141
Q

What drains coronary venous blood into the right atrium?

A

Coronary sinus

142
Q

Which organ has the greatest oxygen demand?

A

The heart

143
Q

The heart can increase the amount of oxygen extracted in order to improve its oxygenation. True/False?

A

False

It already extracts 75% of total, could not extract more

144
Q

How is the oxygen supply to the heart increased, if not by increasing oxygen extraction?

A

Increase coronary blood flow

145
Q

Decreased PO2 causes coronary vasoconstriction. True/False?

A

False

Need to improve oxygenation, therefore vasodilation occurs to increase blood flow

146
Q

Decreased PO2 causes pulmonary vasoconstriction. True/False?

A

True

147
Q

Describe the mechanism by which sympathetic stimulation (indirectly) causes coronary vasodilation

A

Sympathetic tone causes increased HR + SV and hence CO (which itself dilates coronary arteries);
This increases cardiac work and metabolism, consuming O2 (leading to decreased PO2, increased ADP) and releasing metabolites, all of which cause vasodilation;
Adrenaline also acts on B2 to cause vasodilation

148
Q

What effect do K+, H+ and CO2 have on coronary arteries?

A

Vasodilation

149
Q

When does peak coronary flow occur?

A

Diastole

150
Q

Which arteries supply the brain?

A

Internal carotid arteries

Vertebral arteries

151
Q

Which brain matter - grey or white - is very sensitive to hypoxia?

A

Grey matter

152
Q

Which arteries make up the Circle of Willis?

A

Internal carotids + basilar artery (formed by both vertebral arteries joining)

153
Q

The baroreceptor reflex affects the brain. True/False?

A

False

154
Q

If MAP rises, cerebral vessels constrict. True/False?

A

True

155
Q

If MAP falls, cerebral vessels dilate. True/False?

A

True

156
Q

When does autoregulation of cerebral blood flow fail?

A

When MAP is less than 60 or greater than 160 mm Hg

157
Q

Decreased PCO2 results in cerebral vasodilation. True/False?

A

False

Results in vasoconstriction - this is why hyperventilation leads to fainting

158
Q

Head injury and tumours increase intracranial pressure. How does this affect cerebral blood flow?

A

Decreases it

159
Q

Decreased O2 does what to pulmonary arterioles? Why?

A

Vasoconstriction (opposite to systemic circulation)

Redirects blood to alveoli to get more oxygen

160
Q

2/3 of body water is extracellular. True/False?

A

False

2/3 is intracellular

161
Q

What is the function of capillaries?

A

Rapid exchange of gases, water and solutes with the interstitial fluid

162
Q

Describe net filtration pressure

A

Forces favouring filtration - forces favouring absorption

163
Q

Forces favouring filtration are stronger at the venule end. True/False?

A

False

Filtration is stronger at the arterial end

164
Q

Forces favouring absorption are stronger at the venule end. True/False?

A

True

165
Q

What are the forces favouring filtration?

A

Capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc)

Interstitial fluid osmotic pressure (πi)

166
Q

What are the forces favouring absorption?

A

Capillary osmotic pressure (πc)

Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (Pi)

167
Q

What is the main contributor to capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc)?

A

Blood flow

Tends to force blood out of capillary

168
Q

What is the main contibutor to capillary osmotic pressure (πc)?

A

Presence of plasma proteins

Tends to force blood into capillary

169
Q

How is net filtration pressure calculated using forces described previously?

A

(Pc + πi) - (πc - Pi)

170
Q

Pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure is high compared to systemic hydrostatic pressure. True/False?

A

False

171
Q

What is oedema? How does it affect diffusion?

A

Accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space

Increases distance over which diffusion must take place

172
Q

LV failure causes pulmonary oedema. True/False?

A

True

173
Q

How does reduced capillary osmotic pressure cause oedema?

A

Reduces force driving blood back into capillary (osmotic pressure, mainly due to plasma proteins), so fluid accumulates

4th Year Acute Care (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions