Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWorld > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

Which two cardiac anomalies may occur in Turner Syndrome?

A

Bicuspid aorta

Coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Early diastolic murmur?

A

Aortic Regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Precursor amino acid for NO?

A

Arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Location of the AV node?

A

Interatrial septum near the opening of the coronary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What must be present if an infant has transposition of great vessels and also is alive?

A

PDA- to allow for mixing of the blood

Patients may present as normal but deteriorate within the first 3 days as the ductus arteriosus closes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which murmur is heard best in the left lateral decubitus position?

A

S3

Normal below 40, considered abnormal >40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the nerves that arise from pharyngeal arches 1-6

A

1- maxillary (5)
2- facial (7)
3- glossopharyngeal (9)
4- superior laryngeal branch of vagus (10)
5- nothing
6- recurrent laryngeal branch of vagus (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the arteries that arise from aortic arches 1-6

A 
1- maxillary
2- Stapedial (regresses)
3- Common carotid, proximal internal carotid
4- True aortic arch, subclavian
5- obliterated
6- Pulmonary arteries, ductus arteriosus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where do aortic dissections occur?

A

Aortic isthmus (just beyond the 3 branches), by the ligamentum arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Common drainage for the entire right side of the body?

A

Brachiocephalic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

4 abnormalities of tetrology of fallot?

A

VSD
Overriding aorta of the right and left ventricles
Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
Right ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Embryologic cause of tetrology of fallot?

A

Anterior and cephalad deviation of the infundibular septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes a AAA?

A

Chronic transmural inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What causes a thoracic aortic aneurysm?

A

Vaso vasorum enteritis from tertiary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Prominent findings in Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?

A

Congenital telangiectasias to the skin and mucus membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Other way to calculate cardiac output?

A

CO = Rate of O2 consumption/ arteriovenous O2 content difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Peripheral neuropathy and cardiac findings?

A

Wet beriberi –> thiamine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why does squatting help with tetrology of fallot?

A

INcreases peripheral vascular resistance and minimizes right to left shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Differentiate the role of Ca2+ in contractility in cardiac vs skeletal

A

Skeletal muscle: L-type calcium channels directly interact with Ryandine receptor

Cardica: Calcium-induced calcium- requires influx of calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mutation involved in hereditary pulmonary hypertension?

A

Inactivating mutation of BMPR2. Patients with this mutation have a predisposition for dysfunctional endothelial and smooth muscle cell proliferation. A second insult is then thought to activate the disease process, resulting in vascular remodeling, elevated pulmonary vascular resistance and progressive pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Top for arteries involved in atherosclerosis?

A

Abdominal aorta > coronary arteries > popliteal > internal carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a non-cardiac consequence of an enlarged left atrium?

A

Mass effect on esophagus causing dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name the two ways Ca2+ leaves the cardiac cell following contraction

A
  1. Na+/Ca2+ exchanger into the sarcolemma

2. SERCA (Ca2+ ATPase pump) into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Wide, fixed splitting indicates which cardiac defect?

A

ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which antiarrhythmic drug prolongs QT without causing torsades de pointes?

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Strep Viridin only binds to previously damaged valves. To what does it adhere?

A

Fibrin-platelet aggregates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What statistical test is used to compare the means of two different groups?

A

Student T-test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the brownish pigment seen in normal aging of the heart?

A

Lipofuscin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the association between smoking and Buerger’s disease?

A

Hypersensitivity to tobacco –> segmental thrombosing vasculitis that often extends into contiguous veins and nerves, encasing them in fibrous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe the murmur detected in atrial stenosis?

A

systolic crescendo-decrescendo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which two structures obstruct normal blood outflow in someone with HOCM?

A

Interventricular septum and the anterior mitral valve leaflet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the second messenger system when NE binds to alpha-1 receptors on smooth muscle endothelium?

A

IP3 and DAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MOA of fibrates?

A

The lower triglyceride levels by activating PPRalpha which leads to decreased hepatic VLDL production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Best way to determine mitral stenosis severity?

A

A2 to opening snap time interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where does the saphenous vein drain?

A

Drains into the femoral vein, within the region of the femoral triangle, a few centimeters inferolateral to the pubic triangle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What determines the ventricular rate in a fib?

A

AV node refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What lipid lowering agent cannot be combined with a statin as it significantly increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis

A

Gemfibrozil

38
Q

Where is the stenosis that leads retrograde flow of the vertebral artery?

A

Subclavian, just before the vertebral artery (creates low pressure)

39
Q

Exposure to carcinogens such as arsenic, thorotrast and polyvinyl chloride leads to which carcinoma?

A

Liver angiocarcinoma

40
Q

Angioedema with ACE inhibitors is caused by what?

A

Accumulation of bradykinin

41
Q

Clinical signs of cardiac tamponade?

A 
Becks triad: hypotension, JVD, diminished heart sounds
Pulsus paradoxus (loss of pulse on inspiration)
42
Q

Gram positive bacteria that synthesizes dextran from sucrose?

A

Strep viridans

43
Q

How does lupus affect the cardiovascular system?

A

Accelerated atherosclerosis and increased risk of MI
Pericarditis
Leiman-Sacks endocarditis- on BOTH surfaces of the valve

44
Q

How does lupus affect the kidneys?

A

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with “wire-loop” structures on exam

45
Q

Effects of milrinone?

A

PDE-3 inhibitor inhibits the breakdown of cAMP –>
Increased inotropy in cardiac muscle
Increased vasodilation in smooth muscle

46
Q

Main mediator for autoregulation of coronary blood flow?

A

NO

47
Q

How might coarctation of the aorta be linked to intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

Coarctation of the aorta is associated with other cardiac anomalies or with berry aneurysms in the circle of willis

48
Q

What cell type provides the major proliferative stimuli for the cellular components of an atherosclerotic plaque?

A

Platelets- they release PDGF promotes the migration of smooth muscle cells from the media to the intima and their subsequent proliferation

49
Q

Dihydroergotamine is most similar to what drug that I know?

A

Triptans

50
Q

Which anti-arrhythmic drugs block the potassium channels most substantially?

A

Class III- they prolong repolarization and total action potential duration

51
Q

LVED volume in diastolic heart failure: normal, increased or decreased?

A

Normal

52
Q

How does carotid massage affect the afferent firing rate?

A

Increases firing rate to increase vagal parasympathetic tone

53
Q

Loss of contractility in cardiac myocytes occurs within what time period of the onset of ischemia?

A

60 seconds

54
Q

What is transthyretin in relation to the heart?

A

TTR is a protein tetramer produced in the liver and acts as a carrier for thyroxine and retinol. Mutations cause it to misfold and deposit as an amyloid protein in the myocardium

55
Q

How is TPR affected by exercise?

A

Decreases- vasculature dilates to permit maximal blood flow to the muscles being used

56
Q

What type of drug is enoxaparin?

A

LMWH- use for acute DVTs

57
Q

What is plasma renin activity?

A

Amount of angiotensin I generated per unit time

58
Q

How are plasma renin levels affected by ARBs and ACE inhibitors?

A

Renin is increased

59
Q

How do beta blockers affected plasma renin levels?

A

They block sympathetic stimulation

60
Q

Kussmaul sign is indicative of what cardiac pathology?

A

Constrictive pericarditis

61
Q

Name the two prostaglandins that are in balance with one another to regulate platelet aggregation

A

Prostacyclin I2: inhibits platelet aggregation

Thromboxane A2: promotes platelet aggregation

62
Q

Where is prostacyclin I2 produced?

A

Vascular endothelial cells

Damage inhibits the ability to produce prostacyclin I2 and therefore leaves the area susceptible to platelet aggregation and thrombus formation

63
Q

First branch off of the external iliac?

A

Inferior epigastric

64
Q

Normal pressures in the right ventricle?

A

30/5

65
Q

Normal pressures in the pulmonary artery?

A

30/10

66
Q

Cardiac findings in cardiac carcinoid disease?

A

endocardial thickening and fibrosis of tricuspid and pulmonary valves

67
Q

What causes carcinoid heart disease?

A

Excessive secretion of serotonin from carcinoid tumors (rare neuroendocrine tumors of distal small intestine and proximal colon) stimulates fibroblast growth and fibrogenesis

Only the right side of the heart is usually involved as the MOAs in the lungs degrade excess serotonin

68
Q

What is the end product of serotonin metabolism?

A

5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5 HIAA)

69
Q

What is the main determinant of symptom severity of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction

The worse it is, the most deoxygenated blood is delivered to the systemic circulation

70
Q

Dystrophic calcification of aging aortic valves follow what prior damage?

A

Cell injury and death occurring in all types of necrosis at normal plasma calcium levels

71
Q

Blocking what part of the action potential prolongs the QRS duration?

A

fast Sodium channels

Class 1 anti-arrhythmic drugs do this

72
Q

What’s the connection between migratory thrombophlebitis and pancreatic cancer?

A

Hypercoagulability develops because adenocarcinomas produce a thromboplastin-like substance that causes chronic intravascular coagulations that tend to disseminate and migrate

73
Q

Which drug is used for chemical stress tests

A

Adenosine

74
Q

Most common adverse effect of fibrinolytic therapy?

A

Intracerebral hemorrhage

75
Q

Other than ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and ABEAM beta blockers, which other drug improves survival in people with heart failure?

A

Spironolactone

76
Q

What determines coronary dominance?

A

The coronary artery that supplies that posterior descending artery

77
Q

The AV nodal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

In right-dominant people: the RCA

In left-dominant people: the left circumflex artery

78
Q

List the order of receptors bound by dopamine as the dose increases

A

D1 –> B1 –> A1

79
Q

What causes pulsus parvus et tardus and which cardiac condition is traditionally associated with it?

A

Slow rising, low amplitude pulse due to diminished stroke volume and prolonged LV ejection time

80
Q

What is the protein mutated in congenital long QT syndrome?

A

Potassium channel proteins - leads to decreased outward rectifying K+ current

81
Q

Why do you avoid nitrites in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

left ventricular outflow tract obstruction is INCREASED as the preload decreases. It is therefore important to maintain a high preload in these patients.

82
Q

What predisposes someone to the development of lymphangiosarcoma?

A

Persistent lymphedema (with chronic dilation of lymphatic vessels)

83
Q

Which artery may crush the left renal vein?

A

The left renal vein can get crushed below the SMA and the abdominal aorta

84
Q

List the CYP 450 3A4 inducers

A

Carbamepazine, PHenobarbitol, Phenytoin, Rifampin, Griseofulvan

85
Q

Between phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine, which is reversible and which is irreversible?

A

Phentolamine is reversible

Phenoxybenzamine is irreversible

86
Q

Why is glucagon the drug of choice for beta blocker overdose?

A

Glucagon acts on G protein-coupled receptors, increasing intracellular cAMP and thus increasing the intracellular Ca2+ concentration

87
Q

Which two drugs act as selective vasodilators of coronary vessels that cause coronary steal.

A

Adenosine and dipyridamole

88
Q

What causes intracellular swelling following ischemic episodes?

A

Loss of ATP –> loss of ion concentration gradients and increased intracellular Na+ and Ca2+ concentrations

89
Q

The middle meningeal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

Maxillary-

Skull fractures –> hematomas

90
Q

Alternative medication to aspirin?

A

Clopidogrel

UWorld (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions