Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

What is haematocrit

A

the percentage of blood volume occupied by red blood cells

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2
Q

what causes a high haematocrit - i.e. Polycythaemia?

A

Excessive production of RBCs and dehydration (which reduces plasma volume)

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3
Q

what causes low haematocrit?

A

anaemeia

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4
Q

sites of haemolysis

A

spleen, bone marrow, lymphnodes

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5
Q

which leukocytes are the most abundant

A

neutrophils

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6
Q

neutrophils - function and appearance

A

phagocytosis - they are the first line of defence during acute inflammationthey have multi lobed nuclei with relatively translucent cytoplasm

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7
Q

function of basophils + appearance

A

responsible for anaphylaxis - produces histamine| multi lobed and has so many purple/bluey granules you can barely see the nucleus

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8
Q

eosinophils - function and appearance

A

Combats parasitic infection and neutralises histamine.| Double lobed nucleus with bright pink eosinophilic granules.

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9
Q

what do monocytes differentiate into? and where? give some specific exampleswhat is their function? what do they look like?

A

they are monocytes in blood and differentiate into macrophages in tissue.Examples: microglial cells (CNS), Kupffer cells (Liver), tissue macrophages, alveolar macrophagesFunction is phagocytosis of foreign materialLarge, fine white granule-looking-things, kidney shaped nucleus, kinda wobbly round the edges

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10
Q

Name the 3 types of lymphocytes and give some extra info e.g site of production and function.

A

T cells: progenitors originate in bone marrow but they migrate to and mature in thymus - have many functions but naive t cells identify specific antigens; helper t cells help activate other immune cells, produce cytokines and help B cells with antibody production; cytotoxic cells kill cells by releasing cytotoxic granules; there are also memory t cellsB cells: originate and mature in bone marrow - plasma cells produce antibodies and memory cells remain in case of reinfectionBoth have large round nucleus and are agranularNatural killer cells - kill virus infected cellsHas large round nucleus but is granulated

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11
Q

platelets: structure, function, production

A

structure: anucleate and discoid - becomes spiculated (spikey) with pseudopodia (temporary protrusions) when activatedfunction: produce platelet plug along with clotting factors for haemostasisproduced as fragments of cytoplasmic material derived from megakaryocytes and modulated by thrombopoeitin

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12
Q

haemostasis? primary? secondary?

A

Haemostasis is the process to prevent and stop bleeding.Primary involves platelet plugs and the 3 As after vessel injury: Adhesion, Activation, AggregationSecondary: coagulation cascade and fibrin clot formation

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13
Q

What happens when vessel injury occurs?

A

Endothelial wall becomes exposedSmooth muscle contracts to limit blood lossMechanisms of contraction:- Endothelin release- Nervous stimulation

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14
Q

what happens in the adhesion phase of primary haemostasis?

A

Subendothelial collagen becomes exposed| Platelets bind to collagen via vWF (von Willebrand’s factor) using their receptor GP1B

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15
Q

what happens in the activation phase of primary haemostasis?

A

Once bound to the subendothelium, platelets change shapePlatelets release alpha and electron dense granules, to escalate haemostasis processAlpha:vWF, Thromboxane A2, fibrinogen and fibrin-stabilizing factorElectron-dense:ADP, Ca2+, Serotonin

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16
Q

Aggregation

A

Lots of platelets binding to each other using GP2b/3a receptors and fibrinogen - forms platelet plug

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17
Q

The important parts of the coagulation cascade

A

Prothrombin (II) -> Thrombin (IIa) (catalysed by Xa and/or Va)Thrombin converts Fibrinogen (I) -> Fibrin (Ia)Fibrin is stablised by Fibrin-stabilising factor (XIIIa)this causes a cross-linked fibrin clot to be formedfactor IV (Ca2+) is also important

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18
Q

Which factors in the coagulation cascade are Vitamin-K dependant?

A

X (precursor to what activates thrombin), IX, VII, II (Prothrombin)Remember 1972

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19
Q

fibrinolytic pathway

A

plasminogen -> plasmin which then mediates fibrin -> fibrin degradation products (important in PE and DVT - D-Dimer??)can be inhibited by thrombin activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor

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20
Q

types of blood transfusion.

A

homologous (emergency transfusion from other person - have to test safety, recipient serum mixed with donor blood to check for reaction)autologous (self-transfusion)

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21
Q

blood types? how are they classified? presence of antigens and antibodies?

A

classified by presence of specific antigens and antibodiesA - A antigens and Anti-B antibodiesB - B antigens and Anti-A antibodiesAB - A and B antigens but NO antibodies (universal recipient)O - NO antigens but has anti-A and anti-B antibodies (universal donor)focus on antibodies for recipients, and antigens for donor suitability

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22
Q

Rhesus factor (D protein presence)

A

Rh+: - contains D-antigen (most immunogenic), no antibodies- can receive from both Rh+ and Rh– only donates to Rh+Rh-:- contains no antigens, and anti-D antibodies- can donate to both Rh- and Rh+- only receives from Rh-the antibodies are not naturally occuring unlike anti-a and -b. anti-d will only be made if RH- blood comes into contact with Rh+ blood

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23
Q

formation of primitive heart tube

A

during week 3/4 the visceral mesoderm forms 2 heart tubes which then fuse. There is some craniocaudal folding which makes it look kinda like a funky shrimp. It has 5 divisions.

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24
Q

divisions of heart tube

A

truncus arteriosus: ascending aorta and pulmonary trunkbulbus cordis: smooth outflow portion of ventriclesprimitive ventricle: majority of the ventriclesprimitive atrium: both auricular appendages, all of left atrium, anterior portion of right atriumsinus venosus: smooth part of right atria where VC connects, the Vena Cava, coronory sinus

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25
Q

septation

A

(formation of atrial septum - occurs after looping of heart tube to make something kinda c shaped and more like a heart)1. septum primum starts developing from top - the open part is foramen primum2. septum primum has a bit at top and a bit in middle - top hole is foramen secundum, below is foramen primum3. septum primum is only at top and bottom with septum secundum forming at the top on right side of primitive heart - foramen primum completely closed4. septum secundem is at top and bottom now but the top part is partially going over the foramen secundum (in between the two bits of septum primum) - the part between the 2 parts of septum secundum that blood can actually flow through is the foramen ovale5. foramen ovale closes

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26
Q

aortic arches - time period, names , what they form

A

weeks 4-6symmetrical, sprouts from aortic sac - 6 of them (but 6th one is actually pulmonary arteries from the pulmonary trunk)I - maxillaryII - stapedialIII - common carotids and proximal part of internal carotids (distal part made from extensions of dorsal aortae)IV - aortic arch and right subclavian (both sides join with 7th intersegmental)V - regresses completelyVI - pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus on left 7th segmental arteries (not an aortic arch) form the left subclavian and part of right subclavian

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27
Q

extra embryology facts

A

Heart appears in 3rd week (starts beating ~day 23)Constriction of ductus arteriosus > ligamentum arteriosum 10-15 hours after birthObstetrical climbing = constriction of umbilical vein > ligamentum teresIncrease L atrial pressure & decreased R atrial pressure due to first breath causes foramen ovale to close > fossa ovalisDuctus venosus constricts > ligamentum venosum shortly after birth

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28
Q

membrane potential definition

A

the difference in electrical potential between the interior and exterior of a celle.g. if inside is +1 and outside is 0 the membrane potential is +1if inside is 0 and outside is +1 the membrane potential is -1

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29
Q

membrane potential of cardiac myocyte at rest

A

-90mV| more positive outside cells

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30
Q

is a cardiac action potential longer or shorter than in skeletal muscle

A

cardiac action potential is around x100 linger than in skeletal muscles. Voltage gated Ca2+ channels open more slowly and stay open longer than Na+ channels (sometimes called L-type Ca2+ channels i.e. long lasting or dihydropyridine - target of amlodipine treatment - antihypertensive)skeletal muscle action potential is a spike, cardiac myocyte action potential is more like a wiggly water slide that peaks lower and slightly after the skeletal action potential

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31
Q

action potential/cardiac cycle phases

A

phase 4: resting phase - -90mV. SAN generates an action potential which causes depolarisation. If it reaches the threshold, phase 0 starts.phase 0: depolarisation - threshold (-60mV) reached and Na+ channels open.phase 1: partial repolarisation - at +30mV Na+ channels close and there is transient K+ channels open allowing K+ out of the cellsphase 2: plateau - L-type Ca2+ channels open to allow an influx of Ca2+ into the cell to balance the efflux of K+phase 3: repolarisation - Ca2+ channels close allowing repolarisationthere is a bit of overshoot and over polarisation which is when the refractory periods happenphase 4: resting

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32
Q

In what phase of the cardiac cycle does contraction occur?

A

phase 2 - contraction occurs when there is a calcium influx

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33
Q

refractory periods

A

absolute refractory period - when the cell is completely unexcitable (longer for myocytes than skeletal muscle)relative refractory period - when the cell can be depolarised by a greater than usual stimulus

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34
Q

where is the sinoatrial node located? what does it do? what is it modulated by?

A

in the right atrium - it is the primary pacemaker (rate of discharge: 60-100/min) - vagus stimulation decreases rate, noradrenaline from sympathetic nerves increases rate

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35
Q

pacemaker potential

A

There is no resting baseline line in normal depol/repol. No plateauing. Phase 4 equivalent - prepotential: slow influx of Na+ through HCN channels (hyperpolarisation activated cyclic nuclotide gated channels - permeable to K+) - slow depol from -60mV to -40mVPhase 0 equivalent - depolarisation: influx of Ca2+ through voltage-gated t type channels (specifically found in heart condutive cells) - -40mV -> +10mVPhase 3 equivalent - repolarisation: Ca2+ channels close and voltage-gated K+ channels open - +10mV -> -60mV (at which point f type Na+ channels open again - they open at most negative membrane potential)

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36
Q

which cells act as pacemakers in heart - what do they do

A

pacemakers are responsible for automacity of heart. Nodal cells generate the pacemaking potential (1%?)

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37
Q

sympathetic stimulation of pacemaker potential

A
  • noradrenaline binds to beta-1 receptors - increases Ca2+ channels opening - faster depol- steeper phase 0 - increased heart rate and force of contraction
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38
Q

parasympathetic (vagal) simulation of pacemaker potential

A
  • Ach activates K+ channels - hyperpolarises membrane - takes longer to reach treshold potential- reduces influx of clacium so slower depolarisation (shallower slope of phase 0)- decreases heart rate
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39
Q

excitation-contraction coupling

A

Wave of depolarization (AP) spreads into myocytes via T tubules.L-type Ca2+ channels open πŸ‘ͺ Ca2+ enters the muscle cellCa2+ binds to Ryanodine Receptor πŸ‘ͺ release of more Ca2+ from Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (Ca2+ induced Ca2+ release.)Ca2+ binds with Troponin which uncovers active site on tropomyosinCross-bridge cycling = Muscle contraction

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40
Q

What causes contraction in excitation-contraction coupling?

A

The presence of Ca2+ in the cytosol. Force of contraction is directly proportional to cytosolic Ca2+ levels.drugs and chemicals that increase cardiac contractility (like adrenaline, Digoxine, cardiac glycosides) are increasing the levels of cytosolic Ca2+

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41
Q

Electrode and lead (for ECG) definitions

A

Electrode is the object placed on the body to pick up electrical signalsA lead is a specific plane in which you are observing the heart

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42
Q

shapes of ECG graphs

A

+ve going to a positive electrode = curve goes up+ve to -ve electrode = curve goes down (as in it is inverted/peaking underneath the baseline instead of above it)-ve to +ve electrode = curve goes downif the charge is going at an angle and so only part of the vectored charge is picked up (e.g. like how a thrown ball has a horizontal and vertical part that combines to form the final vectored trajectory) - then the curve will just be shorter but the same width and shape

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43
Q

list all the ECG leads

A

6 limb leads:I - goes from right arm (-ve) to left arm (+ve) - bipolar - (the leaving part is always negative and receiving part is positive) II - from right arm (-ve) to left leg (+ve) - bipolarIII - left arm (-ve) to leg (+ve) - bipolaraVR - right shoulder - unipolaraVL - left shoulder - unipolaravF - left ankle - unipolar6 chest leads:Lead V1 – 4th IC space to right of sternal borderLead V2 – 4th IC space to the left of sternal borderLead V3 – midway between V2 and V4Lead V4 – 5th IC space, mid-clavicular lineLead V5 – anterior axillary line at same level as V4Lead V6 – midaxillary line at same level as V4 and V5

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44
Q

Key parts of ECG:

A

P wave - atrial repolarization. QRS - ventricular depolarisation. T wave - ventricular repolarization. PR segment - delay in AVN ST segment - plateau phase of ventricular repolarization.PR interval - atrioventricular conduction time - this is when atrial systole happensQT interval - Total ventricular contraction during systole.

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45
Q

What is a segment in ECG

A

A period of isoelectric neutrality

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46
Q

What is an interval in ECG

A

A region including magnitude

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47
Q

what is the ejection fraction

A

the proportion of the EDV that is pumped out the LV per beat, SV/EDV, provides an indication of the contractility of the heart

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48
Q

what percentage of blood passively fills the lungs?

A

70-80% - during diastole - helps equalise pressure

49
Q

what is the atrial booster?

A

atrial systole - it pushes the remaining blood into the ventricle - PR interval don’t forget that this is an important part of ventricular diastole

50
Q

what percentage of blood ejected during maximal ejection?

A

65-75% of blood in the ventricles (then reduced ejection happens)

51
Q

What can passive ventricular filling be split into

A

rapid inflow - to equalise pressure - most of the blood entres herediastasis - the slow ventricular filling that occurs afterwrds when pressure is nearly equalised

52
Q

what factors affect stroke volume?

A

preload, afterload, contractility, (heart rate?)

53
Q

what occurs during the Frank-Starling curve (in the heart)?

A
  1. Increased stretch opens stretch-sensitive calcium channels= increased cytosolic calcium 👺 increased force of contraction2. Stretch enhances affinity of troponin C for calcium 👺 increased force of contractionAfter maximum stretch reached:Little overlap between actin and myosin 👺 lots of unbound myosin heads 👺 decreased force of contraction 👺 decreased stroke volue (curve starts going down)
54
Q

factors that affect preload?

A

venous return, heart rate, ventricular compliance, atrial contractility, valvular resistance

55
Q

inotropy meaning

A

relates to force of contraction

56
Q

chronotropy meaning

A

relates to heart rate

57
Q

what happens in increased contractility?

A

+ve inotropy -> Increases Force of Contraction πŸ‘ͺ increases SV

58
Q

what are some positive inotropic agents?

A

Sympathethic nervous systemHormones: adrenaline, thyroxineDrugs: e.g. Digoxin

59
Q

decreased contractility

A

-ve inotropy -> decreased force of contraction -> decreased SV

60
Q

negative inotropic agents?

A

Parasympathetic nervous system, Drugs: e.g. Ξ²-blockers

61
Q

factors affecting afterload

A

valvular diseases, TPR, Aortic pressureSVR/TPR: mainly determined by radius of vesselsVasodilation πŸ‘ͺ Decreased resistance πŸ‘ͺ decreased afterloadVasoconstriction πŸ‘ͺ Increased resistance πŸ‘ͺ increased afterloadAortic pressure:Increased aortic pressure = increased LV pressure (hypertension) πŸ‘ͺ increased afterloadDecreased aortic pressure = decreased LV pressure (hypotension) πŸ‘ͺ decreased afterloadValvular diseases:Mitral valve regurgitation πŸ‘ͺ decreased LV wall stress πŸ‘ͺ decreased afterloadAortic stenosis πŸ‘ͺ Increased LV pressure πŸ‘ͺ Increased afterload

62
Q

afterload definition

A

ventricular wall stress during sytole

63
Q

blood pressure definition

A

the pressure exerted by blood on a given vessel surface area

64
Q

pressure equation

A

Ξ”P = Pi – Pf Pi = MAP (mean arterial pressure)Pf = CVP (venous pressure)or Ξ”P = Q x TPR

65
Q

systolic pressure definition

A

point when LV pressure during ejection = aortic pressure during ejection

66
Q

diastolic pressure

A

Pressure caused by recoiling of arteries during diastole

67
Q

pulse pressure equation

A

PP = SP - DP

68
Q

Mean arterial pressure equation

A

MAP = 1/3(PP) + DP or MAP = DP + 1/3(SP - DP)MAP = CO x TPR

69
Q

blood flow definition

A

The volume of blood that flows through the systemic circulation per unit of time(it is equal to cardiac output)

70
Q

velocity of blood flow equation

A

V = Q/A

71
Q

Types of blood flow

A

Laminar:Smooth, streamlined flowTurbulent:Disruption to laminar flow (e.g. decrease in vessel diameter)Produces Korotkoff sounds

72
Q

what affects viscosity of blood

A

haematocrit:anaemia = decreased viscositypolycythaemia = increased viscosity

73
Q

resistance equation

A

8nl/pi r^4

74
Q

Poisueille’s equation (this thing seems to change depending on what source I look at so just use whatever’s in the question)

A

change in pressure combined with resistanceQ = (Pi - Pf)pi r^4 / 8nl

75
Q

what mainly determines resistance in a healthy individual

A

vessel radius

76
Q

what is blood volume controlled by

A

RAAS - renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

77
Q

Intrinsic control of BP

A

Myogenic autoregulationSelf regulation of arterioles based on stretch experienced - if pressure increased in an arteriole, it would constrict to decrease flow and so pressure Local mediatorsHormones, nerves, local autocrine and paracrine agents.

78
Q

local vasoconstrictors of arterioles

A

Endothelin-1, internal pressure

79
Q

local vasodilators of arterioles

A

ProstacyclinHypoxia (only in systemic circulation)Tissue factor NO/EDRF (endothelium derived relaxing factors - one of which is nitrc oxide)H+/K+/Ca2+AdenosineBradykinin

80
Q

Extrinsic control of BP

A

Humoral factorsBaroreceptors Neural control

81
Q

Circulating hormonal factors - vasoconstriction and vasodilation

A

Vasoconstrictors - adrenaline (ALPHA adrenergic receptors), angiotensin II, ADHVasodilators - Atrial Natriuretic Peptide, adrenaline (BETA 2 adrenergic receptors)

82
Q

Baroreceptors - function, location, nerves involved

A

Pressure receptors that control short term change in BP.Found in carotid sinus and aortic arch

afferent neurons from CN IX and CN X (glossopharyngeal and vagus) travel to medulla oblongata.efferent neurons (SNS/PSNS) travel to heart and vessels
83
Q

How do baroreceptors work? give an example

A

They are constantly firing and if BP drops then they decrease their discharge rate.e.g. in a haemorrhage - BP dropssends signals to medulla which acts through nts and vmc (vasomotor centre) to:

Increase sympathetic activity Raise HR (and CO) Increase contractility (and CO)Cause arteriolar vasoconstriction due to innervation and raised angiotensin II (increased TPR)
Decrease parasympathetic activity Raise HR (and CO)
84
Q

which nerves involved with baroreceptor reflex

A

vagus (recieves input from aortic arch) and glossopharyngeal

85
Q

What is a universal plasma donor?2-What ion is responsible for the major depolarization in nodal cells?3- What is serum?4-What enzyme is responsible for clot breakdown?5-Which of the following clotting factors are not vitamin K dependent? a) X b) II c) IV d) VII6-Which protein can be measure in the blood as a sign for myocardial infarctions?7-Which type of vessel is responsible for the total peripheral resistance for the systemic circulation?8-Which cranial nerve receives input from aortic arch baroreceptors?9-Which of these is not a factor of cardiac preload? a) Venous return b) Atrial contractility c) TPR d) Heart Rate10-Which ECG event corresponds to atrial systole?

A

1-Type AB+2-Calcium3-Blood plasma without clotting factors4-Plasmin5-C6-Trop T7-Arterioles8-CN X9-C10-PR interval

86
Q

Where do the SA and AV nodes lie

A

SA node - upper wall of right atrium| AV - bottom of right atrium on the septum

87
Q

What does right coronary artery supply

A

Right atrium and part of ventricle| SA node in 60% of people and AV node in 90% of people

88
Q

what does right marginal artery supply

A

right ventricle| apex

89
Q

What does posterior intraventricular artery supply

A

part of right and left ventriclesposterior 1/3 of IVSAV node (PIV always supplys AV node so AV node proportions mirror PIV proportions in the population)

90
Q

What does left coronory artery supply

A

left atrium and ventricleIVS and part of right ventricle (from LAD)at least some part of the AV bundlesSA node in 40% of people, AV node in 30% of people

91
Q

what does left anterior descending supply

A

left and right venricles (anterior aspect)| anterior 2/3 of IVS

92
Q

what does left marginal supply

A

left ventricle

93
Q

what does circumflex artery supply

A

left atrium and ventricle

94
Q

percentages of population that has right-, left- and co-dominent coronary circulation

A

70%, 10%, 20% respectivelyso 90% of population have PIV coming from RCA and 30% has PIV from LCA

95
Q

where is the apex of the heart/mitral valve sound found?

A

left midclavicular line - 5th intercostal space

96
Q

where do you hear aortic valve sound, pulmonary valve sound and tricuspid valve sound

A

aortic - 2nd intercostal space - right sternal borderpulmonary - 2nd intercostal space - left sternal bordertricuspid - 5th intercostal space - right sternal border

97
Q

Phrenic nerve: roots, modality of innervation, what it innervates, path through thorax

A

C3, 4, 5Motor and sensorydiaphragmRight Phrenic nerve;Descends ANTERIORLY (phrenic, front) along R lung rootTravels along pericardium of R atriumPasses through diaphragm at IVC opening (T8)

Left Phrenic nerveDescends ANTERIOR to L lung rootCrosses aortic arch, bypasses vagus nerveTravels along pericardium of L ventriclePasses through diaphragm separately
98
Q

Vagus nerve: roots, modality of innervation, what it innervates, path through thorax

A

CN10motor and sensory; parasympathetic and sympatheticParasympathetic to ALL orgens of thorax and abdomen - gives of superior laryngeal branch to supply thyroid, and recurrent laryngeal loops around aorta or subclavian to supply larynxPasses behind nerve roots, passes through diaphragm at T10

99
Q

what type of artery is the aorta?

A

elastic artery

100
Q

why are arterioles the main source of TPR? (aka why don’t other vessels contribute as much to TPR?)

A

The media of large arteries are more elastic than the smaller arteries, which have more muscleCapillaries are fenestrated (have holes) so things can easily flow in/out Capillaries also have pericytes which are involved in the regulation of blood flow

101
Q

Layers of artery wall (and arterioles), from lumen out

A

Endothelium, basement membrane, intima, internal elastic lamina, media, external elastic lamina, adventitiaarterioles are the same but without the external elastic lamina

102
Q

Layers of vein wall and venule, lumen out

A

Endothelium, basement membrane, intima, media, adventitiasame for venule

103
Q

why are veins capacitence vessels?

A

they hold up to 70% of blood volume - normally

104
Q

pulmonary circulation pressure

A

20/8

105
Q

systemic circulation pressure

A

120/80

106
Q

average cardiac output

A

~5-6L

107
Q

average stroke volume

A

~70mL

108
Q

average heart rate

A

60-100 beats per minute

109
Q

average end diastolic volume

A

~130ml

110
Q

average ejection fraction

A

65%

111
Q

average end systolic volume

A

~50ml

112
Q

Factors affecting cardiac output

A

Anything that affects stroke volume or heart rateAge, Gender, Pregnancy, Exercise, Emotions, Posture, Sweating(AG PEEPS)

113
Q

What does the Frank Starling law dictate about force of contraction

A

Within PHYSIOLOGICAL LIMITS, the force of contraction is directly proportional to initial length of muscle fiber.

114
Q

tamponade meaning

A

when pericardium fills with blood or fluid - increased pressure on heart can contract as easily

115
Q

What does venous return depend on?

A

skeletal pump activity, ECF volume, sympathetic activity-venoconstriction

116
Q

what does atrial pump activity depend on

A

Atrial contraction increases due to sympathetic activity

117
Q

What factors affect myocardial contractility?

A

More ventricular muscle mass increases contractilitySympathetic stimulation increases ventricular contractility, Parasympathetic decreasesHormones- thyroxine increases left ventricle contractilityDrugs and chemicals- caffeine, digoxin (both increase)

118
Q

Factors affecting heart rate

A

Influence mainly by autonomic activityVagal stimulation decreases HR, Sympathetic stimulation increases HR.Tachycardia does not necessarily mean a proportionate increase in CO as duration of diastole SHORTENS, meaning ventricles have less time to be filled= EDV decreases/does not increases as much AS EXPECTED. vice versa in bradycardia.

119
Q

what is the reason for SA node automacity/pacemaker potentials?

A

spontaneos diastolic depolarisations (Phase 4) - caused by HCN Na+ channels which open when hyperpolarised