Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 2a Ru > CARDIO > Flashcards

CARDIO Flashcards

1
Q

What does QRISK score evaluate

A

Predicts risk of CVD in upcoming 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What % occlusion is required for angina symptoms

A

70-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1st and GS investigations for angina

A

ECG and CT angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1st line pharmacological treatment for Angina

A

Calcium Channel blocker or Beta Blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) vs Coronary Artery Bypass (CABG)

A

Balloon stent (PCI) is less invasive but risk of stenosis
Bypas graft better prognosis but more invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ECG changes after MI

A

Hyper Acute T wave
Pathologically deep Q waves
LBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 MI

A

T1:- IHD
T2:- Increase demand or spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

NSTEMI vs STEMI ecg changes

A

NSTEMI;- ST depression, T wave inversion, no Q waves
STEMI:- ST elevation, pathological Q waves after time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment for MI

A

M:- morphine
O:- oxygen (if sats<94%)
N:- nitrogen
A:- Asprin 300mg
C:- Clopidrogrel 75mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should you do thrombolysis before PCI with STEMI

A

If been more than 12hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Long term prevention of ACS

A

Beta-blocker, aspirin (initial loading dose of 300mg- 75mg), clopigdognel 75mg 12 months, atorvostatin, ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Acute complications of MI
(<2 weeks)

A

Mitral incompetence, LV free wall rupture, Cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Complication after 2 weeks for MI

A

Dressler syndrome (autoimmune pericarditis)
LV anyeurysm (heart becomes saggy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Male or Female higher risk for HF

A

Male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

NY Heart Association classes of Heart Failure

A

1:- No limit of physical activity
2:- Slight limit of phsical activity
3:- Marked limit on moderate/ gentle activity
4:- Symptoms at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do you expect to see on CXR on someone with heart failure

A

ABCDE:-
Alveolar Bat wing oedema
Kerley B lines
Cardiomegaly
Dilated upper lobe vessels
Pleural Efuusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pharmacological treatment for hf

A

ABAL:-
ACEi
Beta Blocker
Aldosterone antagonist (Spironolactone)
Loop Diuretic (Furosemide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Size requirement to be an abdominal aortic anyreusm

A

50% increase/ >3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Are AAA’s typically infrarenl or suprarenal

A

Infrarenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which layers affected in tru AAA

A

All 3 arterial layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At what size does rupture risk massivley increase

A

> 5.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where does pain radiate to in AAA

A

Epigastric to flank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common sites for aortic dissection

A

1:- Sinotublar junction
2:- Just distal to left subclavian artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the standard Classification of AD

A

A= Proximal to LSC artery 66%
B= Distal to LSC artery 33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does CXR show in AD

A

Widened mediastinum >8cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pharmacological treatment for AD

A

Special Beta Blocker, esmolol and labetolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Htn treatment 1st line

A

<55 or T2DM:- ACEi (if CI ARB)
>55 or black African (CCB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

2nd+ line treatment htn

A

ACEi + CCB
ACEi + CCB + Thiazide like diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Virchows trad component

A

Venous Stasis
Hypercoagulability
Endothelial Injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Wells DVT score

A

<1 on dimer not raised means no DVT
>1 Duplex ultrasound Diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is peripheral vascular disease

A

Essentially IHD of lower limb vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Six Ps of Acute limb ischemia

A

Pulslessness
Pallor
Pain
Perishingly cold
Paralysis
Parathesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is ABPI

A

Ankle-brachial pressure index, used in diagnossis of PVD <0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does a ABPI of <0.5 mean

A

Chronic limb ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Treatment for intermittent claudication PVD

A

Risk factor management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treatment for Chronic limb ischemia

A

PCI/ bypass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treatment for Acute limb-threatening ischemia

A

Revascularisation within 4-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Complications of PVD

A

Amputation, permanent limb weakness, Rhabdomydysis (CA2+ and K+ released into blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most common cause of pericarditis

A

1:- Viral
2:- Autoimmune (SLE, Sjordens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Symptoms/ signs of pericarditis

A

Sharp chest pain
Worse lying down or on inspiration
Pain radiates to left shoulder( trapiziues ridge) due to irritation of phrenic nerve
Pericardial friction rub on auscaliation
Raised ESR in autimmune
Raised WCC in infective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ECG showings of pericarditis

A

Saddle ST elevation
Pr depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Treatment for idiopathic or viral pericarditis

A

NSAIDS(2 weeks) + Colchicine (3 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Treatment for IE with Staph Aureas

A

Vancomycin + rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treatment for IE with Strep Viridans

A

Benzylpenicillin + Gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Best way to hear right-sided vs left-sided heart murmers

A

RILE
Right side on Inspiraton
Left on expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Causes of mitral stenosis

A

Rheumatic heart disease, valve calcification, IE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Symptoms of mitral stenosis, including murmur sound

A

Malar cheek flush, Low pitched mid-diastolic murmur (loudest at apex) loud s1 Snap due to thinkend valve cups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Causes of mitral regurgitation

A

Myxomatous mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Risk factor for mitral regurgitation

A

Female, old, low BMI, prior MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Symptoms of aortic stenosis include murmur sound

A

SAD:- Syncope, Angina, Dyspnoea
Ejection systolic crescendo decrescendo, radiating to carotids.
Prominent S4
Narrow pulse pressure + slow rising pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Symptoms of mitral regurgitation including murmur sound

A

Exertion dyspnoea
Pan systolic blowing murmer radiating to axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Causes of aortic stenosis

A

Ageing calcification, congenital bicuspid valve (normally tricuspid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Causes of aortic stenosis

A

Congenital bicuspid valve, RHD,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Symptoms of aortic regurgitation include murmur sound

A

Early diastolic blowing murmur @ right sternal border second intercostal space.
Austin flat murmur in severe
Collapsing orrigan pulse

55
Q

What makes atrial fibrillation unstable

A

Syncope, shock, chest pain, heart failure

56
Q

Treatment for unstable atrial fibrillation and AF

A

DC synchronised cardioversion

57
Q

Pharmacological Treatment for stable atrial fibrillation and AF

A

Beta blocker or CCB + oral anticoagulant

58
Q

Surgical treatment for stable atrial fibrillatio And AF

A

Radiofrequency ablation

59
Q

What does the CHA2D2-VASc score predict

A

Stroke risk IF 1< oral anticoagulant needed

60
Q

What does HASBLED score predict

A

Risk of major bleeds in patients with af on anticoagulant

61
Q

What electrolyte imbalances can cause long QT syndrome?

A

Hypocalcemia and hypokalemia

62
Q

What is Torsades De Pointes

A

A ventricular tachycardia in patients with long QT syndrome. QRS complex ‘twists’ around the baseline

63
Q

Main Cause of RBBB

A

Pulmonary embolism

64
Q

Main cause of LBBB

A

Ischemic heart diseases

65
Q

In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, what is the inheritance pattern and what does the mutation affect

A

Autosomal dominant mutation of sarcomere proteins

66
Q

Is diastolic or systolic function more affected in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Dyostolic filling, reduced cardiac output

67
Q

What is the most common cardiomyopathy

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

68
Q

Gold Standard investigation for caridomyopahty

A

Echocardiogram

69
Q

Treatment for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Beta-blocker, calcium channel blocker, amiodarone

70
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Autosomal Dominant. (Cytoskeleton gene mutation)

71
Q

Other than inheritance, what is another cause for dilated cardiomyopathy

A

IHD, Alcohol

72
Q

Treatment for dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Treat underlying causes

73
Q

List 3 causes for restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Granulomatous disease (sarcoidosis, amyloidosis) idiopathic, past MI (fibrotic)

74
Q

Is the pulse pressure in restrictive CO narrow or wide

A

Narrow, 105/95

75
Q

Treatment for RCO

A

Not really any other than possible transplant, typically die within 1 year

76
Q

What is cardiogenic shock

A

Heart pump failure leading to hypoperfusion of tissues and organs

77
Q

What is hypovolemic shock

A

Venous return failure reduces preload and thus hypoperfusion

78
Q

What is distributive shock

A

An issue with arterial supply to tissues leading to hypoperfusion

79
Q

Symptoms of hypovolemic shock

A

Headache
Chest pain
Dizzinies
Nausea
Shallow breathing
Blue lips/ fingernails
Abdominal swelling

80
Q

What is neurogenic shock

A

When blood is unevenly distributed throughout body due to CNS injury

81
Q

What is the treatment for neurogenic shock

A

Imobilse patient to prevent further injury, IV fluids and medications to increase blood pressure

82
Q

Symptoms of cardiogenic shock

A

Chest pain, Shoulder pain, SOB, Pain along jawline, Lightheadedness, Nausea

83
Q

Treatment for neurogenic shcok

A

ABCDE+ IV Atropine

84
Q

What are the key organs at risk from shock

A

Kidney, Lung, Heart, Brain

85
Q

What is rheumatic fever usually caused by

A

Post strep pyogenes infection (Group A B haemolytic strep) Pharyngitis. Almost exclusively developing countries

86
Q

What % of cases of Rheumatic Fever affect the heart

A

50%

87
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of rheumatic fever affecting the heart

A

M protein from s. pyogenes reacts with valve tissue of the heart, antibodies vs this crosslink results inauto antibody mediated destruction/ inflmation. Mainly affects mitral valve

88
Q

Clinical features of Rheumatic fever

A

New murmur (mitral stenosis), Sydenham’s chorea, arthritis, erythema nodosum, pyrexia

89
Q

GS investigation for RF

A

Echo

90
Q

What is the Jones criteria

A

For RF, Recent pyogenes infection + 2 major or 1 major 2 minor symptoms.

91
Q

What is the treatment for RF

A

ABx, IV Benzylpenicillin
Haloperidol for Syndenhams chorea

92
Q

What are the 4 defects in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Pulmonary stenosis. Ventricular septal defect, Overriding Aorta, Right Ventricular Hypertrophy

93
Q

How does the hear with tetralogy of fallot look like on CXR

A

Boot shaped

94
Q

Treatment for Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Full surgical repair within 2y of life

95
Q

What is Coarctation of Aorta

A

Aorta narrows just distal to ductus arteriosis

96
Q

Is upper or lower bodily more perfused in Coarction of Aorta

A

Upper body due to blood diverted through aortic arch branches

97
Q

What are the signs of coarctation of the aorta

A

Scapular bruits, upper body hypertension

98
Q

What is the treatment for coarctation of the aorta

A

Surgical repair or stenting

99
Q

What is another type of angina that’s not stable or unstable

A

Prinzmetals
Coronary vasospasm seen in cocaine users

100
Q

What ECG change is seen in Prinzmetals angina

A

ST elevation

101
Q

1st line investigation for stable angina

A

ECG

102
Q

GS investigation for stable angina

A

CT angiography

103
Q

What is the GRACE score

A

Predicts mortality from MI in next 6months-3 years in patients with ACS

104
Q

What chemokines are present in the formation of atherosclerotic plaque when endothelial injury

A

IL1, IL6, IFN-gama

105
Q

Why are diabetics major culprits of silent MIs

A

Cause diabetic neuropathy; don’t feel pain

106
Q

What organisms usually cause cellulitis

A

Staph aureus
Strep pyogenes

107
Q

What is becks traid

A

In cardiac tamponade; Hypotnesion, raised JVP, muffled s1+s2 heart

108
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus

A

Fall in systolic BP of more than 10mmg on inspiration. Good indicator of cardiac tamponade

109
Q

What does ECG show in pericardial effusion

A

Electrical alternans; varying QRS amplitudes due to the heart bouncing back + forth in pericardial fluid

110
Q

What is the treatment for cardiac tamponade

A

Urgent pericardiocentesis

111
Q

What are 3 types of atrial fibrillation

A

Paroxysmal (episodic)
Persistent (longer than 7 days)
Permanent

112
Q

ECG seen in atrial fibrillation

A

Iregullay irregular pulse with narrow QRS
No p waves

113
Q

What score on HASBLED requires regular reviews

A

3 or more`

114
Q

What score on CHA2DS2-VASc score requires oral anticoagulant

A

2 or more

115
Q

What ECG changes seen in wolf-parkinson white syndrome

A

Slurred delta waves
Short PR interval
Wide QRS

116
Q

1st line treatment for wolf parkinson white syndrome

A

Valsava manoeuvre

117
Q

2nd line treatment for Wolf Parkinson white syndrome

A

IV adenosine (6mg first then 12mg if unsuccessful)

118
Q

SE of adenosine

A

Sens of impending doom need to warn patient

119
Q

Last treatment for wolf parkinson white syndrome

A

Radiofrequency ablation

120
Q

What can cause long QT syndrome

A

Romano ward syndrome
Jerrell-large syndrome
Hypokalmeia+ hypocalcemia
Drugs

121
Q

What inheritance pattern is Romano Ward syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant

122
Q

What inheritance pattern is Jerrell-large syndrome

A

Autosomal recessive

123
Q

What is 1st line treatment for ventricular fibrillation

A

Electrical defibrillation (non synchronised)

124
Q

What drugs can lead to primary+ secondary heart block

A

Beta-blocker, CCB, digoxin

125
Q

In which location can an MI cause secondary heart block

A

Inferior MI

126
Q

What can cause Mobitz type 2 other than drugs and Inferior MI

A

Rheumatic fever

127
Q

What is treatment for 3rd-degree heart block

A

IV atropine + permanent pacemaker

128
Q

What happens to S2 heart sound in RBBB and LBBB

A

RBBB; wide physiological splitting
LBBB; Reversed s2 splitting

129
Q

What is Eisenmenger syndrome

A

In atrial or ventricular septal defect when Pul Hypertension causes blood to be shunted from Right to left instead of left to right so deoxygenated blood gets pumped around the body

130
Q

What murmur heard in the ventricular septal defect

A

Harsh pan systolic murmur

131
Q

What septal defect is associated with downs

A

Atrioventricular

132
Q

How would you describe murmur in patent ductus arteriosus

A

Machine like murmur

133
Q

What pharmacological treatment can help close a patent ductus arteriosus

A

Prostaglandin inhibitor

Phase 2a Ru (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions