Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

Why do you give AV node blockers with flecanide when cardioverting AF?

A

Flecanide organises AF into macro circulations and often leads to flutter. It also increases the capacity of the AV node to conduct so can lead to 1:1 conduction of flutter i.e HR 300bpm–> VF. B-blocker prevents this.

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2
Q

What is target HR in majority of patients wqith AF?

A

<110bpm - the fewer agents necessary the better. Inc risk of complete HB + PPM requirement with increased number of agents

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3
Q

When is AF ablation indicated?

A

For symptomatic AF refractory to medications, and AF with heart failure, doesn’t improve outcomes or need for anticoag

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4
Q

What effect does pulmonary vein isolation have on AF patients with heart failuer?

A

Marked reduction in CHF hospitalisation and all cause mortality.
No benefit shown in people without CHF in ablation vs drug therapy however

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5
Q

What associations should you make if young patient wiyth AF? (19-30y/o)

A

Structural heart disease ( HOCM) and chanellopathies (e.g brugada)

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6
Q

Where does the electrical circuit run in A flutter?

A

in the RA, around the tricuspid ishthmus

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7
Q

What is the treatment for flutter?

A

Ablation - at the tricuspid isthmus
Anticoag same as for AF
Beware of 1:1 conduction with flecanide

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8
Q

In what situations is warfarin used over NOAC for AF anticoagulation?

A

Mechanical heart valves, and rheumatic valvular heart disease. - excess of thrombotic AND bleeding events seen.

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9
Q

If there are retrograde P waves after QRS whatdoes this indicate?

A

AV node re-entrant tachycardia - normal beat down fast pathway, ectopic beat conducted down slow (but short refractory time) pathway and back up fast pathway.

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10
Q

If there is broad complex tachycardia with irregular R-R intervals what is the underlying rhythm ( looks like VT)

A

Need to think about AF with conduction down an accessory pathway . VT is regular!

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11
Q

What features mean a broad complex tachy is definitely VT?

A

AV dissociation, fusion and capure beats

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12
Q

Is patients with non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy, which benefit from CRT device?

A

Broad complex QRS - >120ms ~ 10% risk reduction.
No role for antiarthmis other than b-clockers. No evidence for narrow QRS

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13
Q

What patients with ischaemic heart disease benefit from ICD?

A

Post MI B-blockers reduce VT and sudden cardiac death by 30%
Patients with LVEF <35% more than 40 days post acute MI

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14
Q

what are the common HOCM ECG findings?

A

infrolateral TWI +/- Q waves (in 90%)

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15
Q

What factors are taken in HCM risk of SCD stratification?

A

Age, max LV wall thickness, Left atrial size, max LVOT gradient, fam hx SCD, non-sustained VT, unexplained syncope.
If risk <3-4 % not recommend defib > than than - ICD

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16
Q

What is the screening for someone who has a 1st degree relative with HOCM?

A

if can identify gene then genetic screening ( 50-60% have identifieable gene).
Otherwise annual ECG + ECHO age 11-20, 2-3 yearly age 21-30, and 3-5 yearly >31.

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17
Q

What genes commonly cause Long QT? (AD inheritance)

A

KCNQ1, KCH2, SCN5A ( LQT1-3)

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of the 3 LQT syndromes

A

LQT1 - normal but long - tri by exercise/emotional stress
LQT2 - biphasic T wave -trig by emotion/ loud noises
LQT3 - late peaking T wave - trig in sleep/loud noises

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19
Q

What is the greatest risk of developing arrythmia in LQT?

A

QTc >500

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20
Q

What is treatment for long QT?

A

B-blockers, ICD for high risk

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21
Q

What are the ECG changes for brugada syndrome?

A

Septal downslping ST elevation - may be elicited with flecanide challence. (v1-V3)

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22
Q

What is the inheritence of brugada?

A

AD

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23
Q

“Imapaired longitudinal strain with apical sparing” on myocardial strain indicates what? ( bullseye pattern)

A

Cardiac amyloid

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24
Q

What are indications for cardiac MRI?

A

Assessment of suspected infiltrative disease - Fabry disease, myocarditis, amyloid, sarcoidosis, haemochromatosis. Should be considetred in dilated cardiomyopathy to determine if ischanemic or non-ischaemic

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25
Q

What is fabry disease?

A

It is glycosphingolipid metabolic pathway that results in lysosomal accumulation of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3).
Cardiac manifestations: left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH), aortic and mitral regurgitation, conduction defects, coronary artery disease, hypertension, and aortic root dilation

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26
Q

What are :
- Increased extracellular volume
- Abnormal gadolinum kinetics
- Late gadolinium enhancement
typical features of?

A

Cardiac Amyloid

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27
Q

What amyloid affects the heart more?

A

TTR (transtheyretin) amyloid.
Protein misfolding leading to dissociated monomores which aggregate and form amyloid fibrils. Fibrils deposit in the myocardium

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28
Q

What happens in the L) heart during diastole?

A

Mitral valve open, passive filling, then atrial contraction for active filling.
Passive filling on dopler represented by E wave and active/atrial contraction filling represented by A wave

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29
Q

What is the echo doppler findings with normal diastolic function?

A

Dominant E wave. - passive filling

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30
Q

What is the echo doppler findings with mild diastolic function?

A

E/A wave reversal; - most filling by active atrial contraction.
Pseudonormal in Moderate and restrictive pattern in severe

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31
Q

What do you use a bone scintigraphy for in cardiology?

A

Will have cardiac uptake in cardiac amyloid

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32
Q

What are indications to investiate for cardiac amyloid?

A

Heart failure with wall thickness >12mm AND age >65 or a red flag symptom (polyneuropathy, dysautonomia, skin bruisin macroglosia, renal failure, family history ect)

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33
Q

What is tafamidis?

A

Used to treat TTR cardiac amyloidosis - stabilises TTR monomers.

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34
Q

in What patients is a TOE contraindicated?

A

Eosophageal abnormalities - tumour, stricture, fistula, perforation, active UGIB, perforated bowel, unstable C-spine, uncooperative pt.
relative contraindication: Barrets, active oesophagitis, neck immobility, coagulopathy, high grade oesophageal varices or active peptic ulcer disease

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35
Q

Why is TOE better than TTE in infective endocarditis?

A

higher SPECIFICITY ( tests that are negative are truely negative)

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36
Q

What is Libman-sacks endocarditis?

A

Non-infective mitral vegetations, seen in Lupus and APS, myeloproliferative disorders

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37
Q

How long after cardioversion do patients need to have anticoagulation?

A

Min 4 weeks to prevent thrombus formation in the cardiac stunning phase post DCCV

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38
Q

What are indicaytions for intervention in severe AS?

A

Asymptomatic patients with EF <50%, asymptomatic patients with symptoms on exercising, Sustained fall in BP >20mmHg during exercise, LVEF <55% without other cause

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39
Q

Which patients with severe AS should have intervention?

A

Symptomatic patient, asymp with EF <55%, asymptomatic but symptoms with exercise.

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40
Q

Which patients should have valver replace vs TAVI

A

TAVI - >75y/o, high risk (Euro score II >8%) or unsuitable for surgery
SAVR: <75y/o, low risk, or can’t do AVI

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41
Q

When do you use Baloon aortic valvotomy?

A

In patients with severe AS requiring intervention as a bridge to SAVR or TAVI in haemodynamically unstable patients

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42
Q

Which valve disease should have intervention even only at moderate impairment?

A

Mitral stenosis ( Valve area 1-1.5cm)

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43
Q

What are the cut offs for mitral valve stenosis?

A

MILD: Valv area: >1.5cm^2, mean gradient <5, PASP <30
MOD: Area: 1-1.5, Gradient 5-10, PASP 30-50
SEV: Area <1, Mean grad > 10, PASP >50

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44
Q

What patients with asymptomatic MR should have surgery?

A

Severe primary MR with EF <60, >40

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45
Q

What is primary vs secondary MR?

A

Primary - valve problem
Secondary - something else pulling valve apparet ( e.g scarred chordae, dilated LV, dilated atrium)

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46
Q

What interventions are helpful for secondary MR?

A

Maximise medical therapy then mitra clip - transcatheter edge to edge repair - reduces grade of MR and shown to have improved outcomes in severe MR

47
Q

What ECHO findins are unusual in MR?

A

Would expect EF to be higher than usualy BECAUSe blood is ejected out both valves

48
Q

What gene leads to bicuspid aortic valve and what is the inheritance?

A

AD with variable penetrance, NOTCH1 gene mutation

49
Q

What are cut offs for AS?

A

Mild = 1.5-2
Mod = Valve area 1 -1.5cm2
Mean Gradient 20-40mmHg
Severe = Valve area <1cm2
Mean gradient >40mmHg
Jet velocity >4m/sec

50
Q

What is the most common valvular disease?

A

AS - degenerative calciofic in most, bicuspid aortic valve, Rheumatic HD and radiation other causes

51
Q

What is low flow low gradient severe AS?

A

Low flow - from LV dysfunction or altered haemodynamics ( e.g UGIB) will have lower gradients, but aortic avlve area can still be <1cm2

52
Q

How is valve area calculated?

A

Using LVOT and velocity - error in tese will alter AVA

53
Q

What are causes of acute severe AR?

A

Aortic dissection, endocarditis, trauma

54
Q

What does the ductus arteriosis connect?

A

Connects the pulmonary artery ( deoxygenated blood going to lungs) to the aorta

55
Q

What type of defect is a PFO?

A

ASD

56
Q

What shunt is created with a parent ductus arteriosus?

A

L-> R shunt, blood moves from aorta to pulmonary artery

57
Q

What is a congenital bicuspid valve associated with?

A

Aortic coarctation

58
Q

What is ebsteins anomaly?

A

ABN tricuspid valve that sits deeper into the ventricle, abn RV. Ass with WPW,

59
Q

What is truncus arteriosus?

A

When the aorta and the pulmonary artery don’t seperate properly so you have a dilated aortic root that leads to one large vessel draining th heart

60
Q

When do you do CRT device?

A

Biventricular pacing with cardiac resynchronisation therapy is considered a class I indication in patients with an ejection fraction of less than 35%, left bundle branch block with a QRS greater than 150 ms and sinus rhythm, NYHA class 2-4 on maximum medical therapy.

61
Q

What is PCKS9?

A

When expressed it causes removal of LDL-receptor on hepatocytes. LDL-receptor removes LDL from the blood normally, so removal of this from the hepatocyte surface leads to increased LDL in the blood.

62
Q

What meds are PCKS9 inhibitors ?

A

Alirocumab, evolocumab - reduce lipids by 60%, reduce MACE by 15%

63
Q

What is the target of statins?

A

Inhibition of HMG-CoA (hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme A) reductase

64
Q

What does HMG CoA reductase do?

A

Converts -3-hydroxy-3- methylglutaryl coenzyme A to mevalonate, a precursor of cholesterol.

65
Q

What is the MoA of Aspirin?

A

COX 1 (and 2) inhibitor

66
Q

What is the MoA of clopidogrel?

A

Its is metabolised by CYP2C19 into its active form that irreversibly binds to P2Y12 ADP receptors on platelets.

67
Q

What is the MoA of ticagrelor?

A

binds reversibly and non-competitively to the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets

68
Q

What is the FFR? What is a significant FFR value?

A

Fractional flow reserve - determines if a coonary lesions is functionally significant. Ischaemia = FFR <0.8

69
Q

What is prasgrel, when cant it be used?

A

Antiplatelet med - irreversible antagonist of the ADP P2Y12 receptor.
Increased bleeding in people wt <60kg, previous stroke and age >75 so don’t use in that group.

70
Q

Where do loop diuretics act?

A

Thick ascending loop of henle - reduce reabsorption by inhibition of NA-K-Cl cotransporter

71
Q

Where does acetazolamide work?

A

Proximal tubuut - added to loop in acute CHF for faster diuresis

72
Q

Where do thiazides act?

A

Inhibit Na-Cl transporter in the distal tubule

73
Q

What do ARNIs do?

A

Degrades vasoactive peptices, including natriuretic peptide, bradykinin, adrenomedullin.
LCZ696 neprilysin inhibitor

74
Q

Where to SGLT2 inhibitors work?

A

Proximal tubule

75
Q

What is the MoA of digoxin?

A

N-K-ATPase inhibitor - increases contractility

76
Q

What are features of digoxin toxicity?

A

Hypokalaemia, hypomagnasaemia, hypothyroidism.
Levels increased by CPY3A4 inhibitors (Macrolides, itraconazole

77
Q

What is the MoA and function of ivasbridine?

A

a selective inhibitor of the sinus node cardiac pacemaker If, lowers heart rate so reducing cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen demand.

78
Q

What cardiac devices do you use in CHF after medical optimisation and when?

A

LVEF <35% and QRS <130ms - ICD implantation
LVEF <35, SR and QRS >130 - CRT-D implantation

79
Q

What is inclisiran?

A

silences RNA Downregulates PCSK9 expression so LDL-R last longer
No clinical events outcome data yet

80
Q

What is Bempedoic acid?

A

Blocks ATP citrate lyase (enzyme in cholesterol production upstream from HMGCoA)
No expressed in muslces so may reduce myalgia.
Increased Gout and uric acid with this drug

81
Q

What is ANGPLT3 ?

A

Anti-cholesterol
in development

82
Q

Do PCSK9 inhibitors decude risk of death?

A

Reduction in MI, Odyssey showed reduction in mortality also

83
Q

What are the key proteins that are inhibited to lower cholesterol?

A

ATP citrate lyase
ANGPLT3
HMGCoA reductase
PCSK9

84
Q

What is APOC3?

A

PArt of triclyceride - trials underway to block this to reduce Triglycerides

85
Q

What are the characteristics of coronary lesions that correlate with MACE?

A

Plaque burden >70%
Thin Cap fibroatheroma
Minimum lumen area <4mm2

86
Q

In stable coronary aretery disease should you stent coronary lesions? Stable angina

A

No, increased events and no change in outcomes.

87
Q

What is the benefit of CTCA?

A

Associated with a lower rate of invasive catheterisation without obstructive CAD.
Higher absolute rate of invasive catheterisation but in those patients who actually NEED stents.
CCA viable alternative to stress testing

88
Q

What is the coronary calcium score used for?

A

Can identify individuals at risk that would not be detected by traditional risk factors.
Recommended for those at intermediate risk - bc if already high risk - treat as high risk, if already low risk - treat as low risk

89
Q

What is agatston score?

A

The score that comes out after low dose CT to count the conorary calcium score

90
Q

How do you calculate FFR?

A

FFR= Distal coronary pressure / Aortic pressure

91
Q

which is better stenting based on angiogram or FFR?

A

FFR - reduced MR and death at 1 year by 35%

92
Q

What is the commonest drug used to induce hyperaemia for FFR?

A

Adenosine

93
Q

What is the difference between prasugrel and ticagrelor if they both bind to P2Y12 ADP receptor?

A

Presugrel - irreversibkly binds, ticagrelor, reversibly binds

94
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ticagrelor mediated dyspnoea and ventricular pauses?

A

Increased endogenous adenosine

95
Q

Why is radial access better than femoral in cath lab?

A

Associated with decreased death and easier to control bleeding complications

96
Q

Should patients with out of hospital cardiac arrest have immediate angiography or delayed angiography?

A

No advantage to immediate catheterisation vs stabilisation and doing it a few days later

97
Q

Should baloon pumps be inserted for cardiogenic shock post MI?

A

No - no evidence for improved outcomes with this .

98
Q

Should you treat bystander lesions at PCI as well as the culprit lesions in acute MI?

A

Yes, preventative PCI reduced death from cardiac causes, non-fatal MI, refractory angina in setting of ACS

99
Q

When should you NOT treat non-culprit lesions with PCI?

A

Stable coronary disease AND
STEMI with multivessel disease and cardiogenic shock

100
Q

Which patients with multivessel disease would PCI be acceptable in place of CABG?

A

Patient with low SYNTAX score without diabetes

101
Q

What intervention for revascularisation is better for left main stenosis?

A

CABG better than PCI for death, MI, stroke

102
Q

Is there a benefit to CABG in patients with CAD and heart failure with LVEF <35%?

A

10 year survival benefit for patients with CABG + Optimal medical therapy

103
Q

How do you test for low flow low gradient severe as?

A

Low dose dobutamine stress echo - if the mean gradient doesnt change with this then not low flow low gradietn severe AS

104
Q

What medical management should be given to patients who have Marfans syndrome and AR?

A

B-blockers have a role in reducing the shear sress and aortic growth rate and should be considered before and after surgery

105
Q

What is the medical therapy for AR?

A

None if no HTN
If HTN - aim BP <140mmHg

106
Q

What is the cause and timing of acute mitral regurgitation?

A

Classically spontaneous chrotae tendinae or papillary muscle ruptue secondary to MI. Occurs 2-7 days post infarct ( commonly after inferior infarct)

107
Q

Why is acute MR important?

A

HD changes are more severe than chronic MR because the heart doesn’t have time to adapt to changes leading to cardiogenic shock + APO

108
Q

What intervention is used as a bridge to surgery in acute MR?

A

Intraaortic balloon counterpulsation or ECMO

109
Q

What population of patients requiring anticoagulation (for AF, thrombus, embolic event ect) are NOACs contraindicated?

A

Rheumatic heart disease! (and mechanical valve replacements)

110
Q

What valvular disease leads to AF?

A

Mitral stenosis

111
Q

What malignancy is associated with tricuspid valve disease?

A

Carcinoid ( usually only ones that invade the liver) release vasoactive substances that have paraneoplastic effects on cardiac tissue.

112
Q

What are the findings of carcinoid heart disease?

A

Endocardial plaques of fibrous tissue. This results in distortion of the valves leading to stenosis or regurg or both. R > L

113
Q

What inv is used to diagnose carcinoid heart disease?

A

24 hour urine 5HIAA - elevated in cardiac disease