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Oishi's Final year flashcards > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

ECG findings anteroseptal MI? Which vessel supplies it?

A

ST elevation in the anterolateral leads V1-V4
Reciprocal changes (T wave inversion) in lead III and AVF
LAD

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2
Q

How does a post MI VSD present?

A

Shock

New pan-systolic murmur

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3
Q

How does papillary rupture post MI present?

A

Mitral regurgitation - early-to-mid systolic murmur

Cardiac failure

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4
Q

How do left ventricular aneurysms present?

A

persisting ST elevation on ECG
pain
arrhythmias
stroke

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5
Q

Mx of post MI VSD?

A

Inotropes
Balloon pump (counterpulsation inside aorta to augment blood pressure during diastole)
Percutaneous closure of defect
Consider PPV
Consider Swann Ganz pulmonary artery catheter

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6
Q

ECG findings anterolateral MI?

A

ST segment elevation leads V2, V3 and leads I and aVL

reciprocal ST segment depression in leads, II, III and aVF

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7
Q

What is the blood supply to the anterior/lateral wall?

A

LAD

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8
Q

What is the blood supply to the inferior wall? Where would you see ecg changes?

A

RCA

II, III, AVF

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9
Q

What is the blood supply to the posterior/lateral wall? Where would you see ecg changes?

A

LCA, also some RCA

V1-3

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10
Q

There is an increased risk of developing hyperkalaemia when ramipril is used with which drugs?

A

potassium-sparing diuretics
aldosterone antagonists
ciclosporin
heparins

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11
Q

Which drugs are likely to increase the risk of myopathy when given with simvastatin?

A 
CYP450 inhibitors e.g.:
amiodarone
ciclosporin
erythromycin
fibrates
ketoconazole
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12
Q

Contraindications to treatment with β-blockers?

A 
Bronchospasm
Sick sinus syndrome
Peripheral arterial disease
Prinzmetal angina
Heart block
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13
Q

Define Isolated systolic hypertension

A

systolic pressure ≥160 mmHg with a diastolic pressure <90 mmHg

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14
Q

MoA of thiazide diuretics?

A

Inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the early distal tubule via the Na-Cl co-transporter

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15
Q

MoA of loop diuretics?

A

Inhibits the luminal Na-K-Cl co-transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

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16
Q

MoA of Amiloride?

A

inhibits ENaC (epilthelial sodium channels)

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17
Q

There is a doubling of risk of stroke for every how many mmHg in mean systolic blood pressure?

A

15mmHg

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18
Q

CIs of statins?

A

Active liver disease
Pregnancy
Breast feeding

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19
Q

Infectious causes of sinus bradycardia?

A

Legionnaire’s disease
Typhoid fever
Lyme disease

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20
Q

What medications can cause digoxin toxicity?

A 
Macrolides
Thiazide diuretics
Loop diuretics
CCBs
Amiodarone
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21
Q

CIs to digoxin tx?

A

WPW
Heart block
HOCM

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22
Q

SEs of verapamil?

A

Flushing

Headache

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23
Q

CIs to verapamil tx?

A

Chronic HF

Beta blocker use

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24
Q

The New York Heart Association (NYHA) 4 classes of HF?

A

Class 1: No limitation of physical activities
Class 2: Slight limitation of physical activity in which ordinary physical activity leads to fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or anginal pain; the person is comfortable at rest
Class 3: Marked limitation of physical activity in which less-than-ordinary activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or anginal pain; the person is comfortable at rest
Class 4: Inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort but also symptoms of heart failure or the anginal syndrome even at rest, with increased discomfort if any physical activity is undertaken

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25
Q

INR target in AF?

A

2-3

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26
Q

INR target in DVT/PE?

A

2-3

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27
Q

INR target in recurrent DVT/PE?

A

3-4

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28
Q

INR target mechanical heart valve?

A

2.5-3.5

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29
Q

Example of class I anti-arrhythmic and MOA?

A

Lidocaine

Membrane stabilising

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30
Q

Example of class II anti-arrhythmic and MOA?

A

Beta blockers

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31
Q

Example of class III anti-arrhythmic and MOA?

A

Amiodarone
Sotalol
act on both supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias

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32
Q

Example of class IV anti-arrhythmic and MOA?

A

CCBs

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33
Q

CIs to amiodarone tx?

A

Sinus bradycardia

Sino-atrial heart block

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34
Q

What should you do if INR >8 and not bleeding?

A

Give Vit K (IV orally)

Stop warfarin until INR <5

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35
Q

ECG findings WPW? What is the accessory pathway called and what type of arrhythmia is it?

A

Short PR
Slurred upstroke (delta wave)
Broad QRS

Bundle of Kent - AVRT

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36
Q

Medical tx for WPW?

A

Sotalol
Flecainide/Procainamide
Amiodarone

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37
Q

Major Modified Jones Criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

carditis, cardiac murmur, subcutaneous nodule, arthritis (migratory large joints), erythema marginatum (red geographical rash), chorea (Sydenham’s, St Vitus dance)

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38
Q

Minor Modified Jones Criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

fever, raised ESR/CRP, long PR interval, arthralgia

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39
Q

Tx of acute rheumatic fever?

A

Benzylpenicillin 1.2mg IM stat
10 day course po penicillin V
NSAIDs
Long term secondary abx prevention can be needed for up to 10 years if mild murmur of lifelong if loud murmur

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40
Q

Mitral stenosis on auscultation?

A 
Tapping apex (palpable and loud first HS)
Low rumbling mid-diastolic murmur
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41
Q

What are two signs of mitral stenosis on ECG?

A

Bifid p waves (P mitrale)

No p waves

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42
Q

Major diagnostic criteria for infective endocarditis?

A

1+ positive blood culture (typical organism in 2 separate cultures or presistently positive blood cultures)
Positive echocardiogram findings of vegetation, abscess or abscess prosthetic valve

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43
Q

Minor diagnostic criteria for infective endocarditis?

A

predisposition (cardiac lesion, IV drug abuse);
fever over 38 °C;
vascular signs, e.g. mycotic emboli, Janeway lesions (painless palmar/plantar macules);
immunological signs e.g. Oslers nodes (painful swelling fingers/toes), positive RhF, glomerulonephritis
microbiological evidence not fitting major criteria

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44
Q

How is diagnosis made of infective endocarditis?

A

2 major, 1 major/3minor or >5 minor criteria

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45
Q

Why should NSAIDs not be prescribed with digoxin?

A

Digoxin is renally cleared so can become toxic if NSAIDs are prescribed and decrease renal clearance

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46
Q

ECG changes in digoxin toxicity?

A

Flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves
Shortened QT interval (scooped)
Downsloping ST depression

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47
Q

Symptoms of digoxin toxicity?

A

nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, headache, dizziness, confusion, delirium and vision disturbance (blurred or yellow vision)

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48
Q

Main ecg finding in hypercalcaemia?

A

Shortening of QT interval

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49
Q

What is coarctation of the aorta associated with?

A

Turner’s syndrome
bicuspid aortic valve
berry aneurysms
neurofibromatosis

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50
Q

Auscultation of coarctation of aorta?

A

mid systolic murmur, maximal over back

apical click from the aortic valve

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51
Q

Mx of AF if obvious reversible cause?

A

Rhythm control

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52
Q

What is the most appropriate first-line anti-anginal for stable angina in a patient with known heart failure, if there are no contraindications?

A

Bisoprolol

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53
Q

When to give 3 (stacked) shocks in cardiac arrest?

A

If a patient has a monitored and witnessed cardiac arrest in the catheter laboratory, coronary care unit, a critical care area or whilst monitored after cardiac surgery, and a manual defibrillator is rapidly available and shows VF/pVT

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54
Q

What to do regarding anti diabetic meds in ACS?

A

Stop oral agents and switch to sliding scale insulin

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55
Q

first line investigation for stable chest pain of suspected coronary artery disease aetiology?

A

Contrast-enhanced CT coronary angiogram

56
Q

Whatis Killip class used for and what are the 4 classes?

A 
system used to stratify risk post myocardial infarction
I: No clinical signs heart failure
II: Lung crackles, S3
III: Frank pulmonary oedema
IV: Cardiogenic shock
57
Q

What to do if major bleeding in someone on warfarin?

A

Stop warfarin
Give intravenous vitamin K 5mg
Prothrombin complex concentrate - if not available then FFP*

58
Q

What to do if INR >8 and minor bleeding on warfarin?

A

Stop warfarin
Give intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg
Repeat dose of vitamin K if INR still too high after 24 hours
Restart warfarin when INR < 5.0

59
Q

What to do if INR 5.0-8.0 and minor bleeding on warfarin?

A

Stop warfarin
Give intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg
Restart when INR < 5.0

60
Q

What to do if INR 5.0-8.0 and no bleeding on warfarin?

A

Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin

Reduce subsequent maintenance dose

61
Q

Gradient cut off for valve replacement in AS?

SA cut off?

A

> 40 mmHg (unless symptomatic)

<1cm squared

62
Q

2nd line antihypertensive in black patients after CCB?

A

ARB in preference to an ACE inhibitor

63
Q

1st line tx in angina?

A

Beta blocker or CCB
if CCB monotherapy give diltiazem/verapamil
if CCB given with BB give nifedipine (long acting)
3rd line = long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil or ranolazine

64
Q

What is Wellen’s syndrome? What do you see on ecg?

A

specific ecg abnormalities in the precordial T-wave segment, which are associated with critical stenosis of the proximal left anterior descending
ECG: deeply inverted or biphasic waves in V2-3 in a person with the previous history of angina

65
Q

NSTEMI (managed conservatively) antiplatelet choice?

A

aspirin, plus either:
ticagrelor, if not high bleeding risk
clopidogrel, if high bleeding risk

66
Q

STEMI antiplatelet prior to PCI?

A

aspirin, plus either:
if the patient is not taking an oral anticoagulant: prasugrel
if taking an oral anticoagulant: clopidogrel

67
Q

Drug therapy during PCI in STEMI?

A

Radial access: unfractionated heparin with bailout glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor (GPI)
Femoral access: bivalirudin with bailout GPI

68
Q

NSTEMI drugs if PCI tx not immediate?

A

aspirin + fondaparinux (if not high risk of bleeding)

69
Q

NSTEMI drugs if PCI tx immediate? What is the other indication for this tx?

A

aspirin + unfractionated heparin

creatinine is > 265 µmol/L

70
Q

Drug therapy during PCI in NSTEMI?

A 
unfractionated heparin (regardless of whether pt had fondaparinux or not)
further antiplatelet ('dual antiplatelet therapy', i.e. aspirin + another drug) prior to PCI:
 - if not on oral anticoagulant: prasugrel or ticagrelor
 - if on oral anticoagulant: clopidogrel
71
Q

Chronic HF with preserved ejection fraction tx? BASHD

A

Beta-blocker + ACEi
Spironolactone/eplerenone (reduces LV fibrosis)
Ivabradine/sacubitril-valsartan/Hydralazine in combination with nitrate/Digoxin (symptomatic relief only)/cardiac resynchronisation therapy

72
Q

What valve abnormality is associated with polycystic kidney disease?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

73
Q

Clinical features of mitral valve prolapse?

A

patients may complain of atypical chest pain or palpitations
mid-systolic click (occurs later if patient squatting)
late systolic murmur (longer if patient standing)

74
Q

ECG changes in pericarditis?

A

widespread ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation

PR depression: most specific ECG marker for pericarditis

75
Q

Which territory MI is most likely to cause AV block?

A

Inferior MI

76
Q

Which territory MI is most likely to cause pericarditis within 24 hours?

A

Transmural MI

77
Q

Which territory MI is most likely to cause acute mitral regurge?

A

infero-posterior MI

78
Q

Causes of Dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

alcohol
Coxsackie B virus
wet beri beri
doxorubicin

79
Q

Causes of Restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

amyloidosis
post-radiotherapy
Loeffler’s endocarditis (eosinophilic infiltration)

80
Q

How does mitral stenosis cause haemoptysis? How else would it present?

A

secondary to rupture of the bronchial veins caused by raised left atrial pressure
Loud 1st HS
Diastolic murmur
New onset AF

81
Q

Posterior MI ecg changes?

A 
Leads V1-V3 - reciprocal STEMI changes
horizontal ST depression
tall, broad R waves
upright T waves
dominant R wave in V2
82
Q

Complete heart block following a MI?

A

right coronary artery lesion

83
Q

Causes of a prolonged QT interval?

A

Congenital: Romano Ward, Jervell-Lange-Nielsen
Drugs: Amiodarone, sotalol, TCAs, SSRIs, methadone, chloroquine, erythryomycin, haloperidol, ondansetron
Electrolytes: Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypocalcaemia
Acute MI
Hypothermia
SAH

84
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker and a thiazide diuretic. K+ < 4.5mmol/l?

A

Add spironolactone

85
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker and a thiazide diuretic. K+ > 4.5mmol/l

A

Add alpha or beta blocker

86
Q

What drug should not be used in VT?

A

Verapamil

87
Q

Which artery supplies the posterior intraventricular septum usually?

A

posterior descending artery (80% of the time a branch of the RCA)

88
Q

ECG changes for thrombolysis or percutaneous intervention?

A

ST elevation of > 2mm (2 small squares) in 2 or more consecutive anterior leads (V1-V6) OR

ST elevation of greater than 1mm (1 small square) in greater than 2 consecutive inferior leads (II, III, avF, avL) OR

New Left bundle branch block

89
Q

Which antihypertensive is most likely to cause a reduction in bone mineral density?

A

Loop diuretics (hypocalcaemia)

90
Q

Most common causative organism of bacterial endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis if < 2 months post valve surgery
Strep viridans if subacute

91
Q

Endocarditis empirical tx?

A

Native valve endocarditis (NVE): amoxicillin + gentamicin
NVE with severe sepsis, penicillin allergy or suspected MRSA: vancomycin + gentamicin
NVE with severe sepsis and RFs for gram -ve infection: vancomycin + meropenem
Prosthetic valve endocarditis: vancomycin, gentamicin + rifampicin

92
Q

What to do regarding shocks if a patient is in cardiac arrest due to hypothermia?

A

defibrillation is less effective and only 3 shocks should be administered before the patient is rewarmed to 30 degrees centigrade

93
Q

Bifascicular block ecg findings?

A

RBBB + Left axis deviation (secondary to LAFB)

94
Q

Trifascicular block ecg findings?

A 
Trifascicular block (Complete) = Bifascicular + 3rd degree Heart block
Trifascicular block (incomplete) = Bifascicular + 1st/2nd degree heart block
95
Q

HOCM A to E mx?

A 
Amiodarone
Beta-blockers or verapamil for symptoms
Cardioverter defibrillator
Dual chamber pacemaker
Endocarditis prophylaxis*
96
Q

Drugs to avoid in HOCM?

A

nitrates
ACE-inhibitors
inotropes
Digoxin

97
Q

VT Mx?

A

If HISS - synchronised DC cardioversion

amiodarone: ideally administered through a central line
lidocaine: use with caution in severe left ventricular impairment
procainamide

If drugs fail: electrophysiological study, implant ICD (esp if LV function poor)

98
Q

What is WPW associated with?

A
  • Congenital cardiac defects
  • Ebstein’s anomaly
  • Mitral valve prolapse
  • Cardiomyopathies e.g. HOCM
99
Q

What drugs are CI in WPW and why?

What can you give instead?

A

Any AVN-modulating agents such as adenosine, verapamil, diltiazem, beta-blockers, digoxin
Can lead to VF (transmission down accessory path)

Can give amiodarone, flecainide or sotalol

100
Q

GRACE score components?

A 
age
heart rate
blood pressure
cardiac (Killip class) 
renal function (serum creatinine)
cardiac arrest on presentation
ECG findings
troponin levels
101
Q

HOCM ecg changes?

A

Left Ventricular hypertrophy
Non-specific T wave inversions/ST abnormalities
Deep Q waves
Sometimes AF

102
Q

Echo findings in hocm? MR SAM ASH

A 
mitral regurgitation (MR)
systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the anterior mitral valve leaflet
asymmetric hypertrophy (ASH)
103
Q

In patients with gout on an ACEi for HTN, what is the next best additional tx?

A

CCB

104
Q

SE of nicorandil and who is at increased risk?

A

GI ulcers

Patients with diverticular disease

105
Q

Which anti-anginal drugs can result in tolerance and how can this be mitigated?

A

Nitrates
A nitrate-free interval each day (lasting at least 4 hours) should be ensured to maintain sensitivity - this involves either taking the second dose at an earlier time (e.g. 8 am and 3 pm) or switching to a once-daily modified-release preparation

106
Q

Which anti-anginal med can cause reduced libido and erectile dysfunction?

A

Beta blockers

107
Q

Clinical features of Takayasu’s arteritis?

A

Intermittent limb claudication
Absent or weak peripheral pulses
Young woman

108
Q

What is useful for measuring re-infarction 4-10 days after initial MI?

A

CK-MB

109
Q

What can cause a falsely low BNP?

A

Aldosterone antagonists
Beta blockers
ACEi/ARBs
Diuretics

110
Q

Tx for a stroke with concurrent AF?

A

Aspirin 300mg (2 week) + warfarin/DOAC life long for post stroke

111
Q

Causes of LBBB?

A 
MI
Aortic stenosis
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Chronic HTN
Extensive coronary artery disease
112
Q

Which drugs increase and decrease INR on warfarin?

A 
Inducers: cause decrease in INR
“SCARS”
• S → Smoking
• C → Chronic alcohol intake
• A → Antiepileptics: Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Phenobarbitone (all barbiturates)
• R → Rifampicin
• S → St John's Wort

Inhibitors: cause increase in INR
“ASS-ZOLES”
• A → Antibiotics: Ciprofloxacin, Erythromycin, Isoniazid, Clarithromycin
• S → SSRIs: Fluoxetine, Sertraline
• S → Sodium Valproate
• - Zoles → Omeprazole, Ketoconazole, Fluconazole

113
Q

Causes of S3?

A

Normal if <30y/o
LVF (dilated cardiomyopathy)
Constrictive pericarditis
Mitral regurgitation

114
Q

Causes of S4?

A

Aortic stenosis
HOCM (may also feel double pulsation at apex)
HTN

115
Q

How does a left ventricular aneurysm cause a stroke?

A

Thrombus can form within the aneurysm

116
Q

How does left ventricular free wall rupture present?

A

Recent MI
Sudden HF
Raised JVP
Pulsus paradoxus

117
Q

When to start treating HTN in patients >80y/o?

A

Do not treat stage 1: 135/85

Treat stage 2: 150/95

118
Q

What is electrical alternans a pathognomic sign of?

A

Cardiac tamponade

119
Q

Rate control in AF if asthmatic?

A

Diltiazem

120
Q

The criteria for urgent valvular replacement in infective endocarditis?

A

Severe congestive cardiac failure
Overwhelming sepsis despite antibiotic therapy (+/- perivalvular abscess, fistulae, perforation)
Recurrent embolic episodes despite antibiotic therapy
Pregnancy

121
Q

ASD murmur?

A

ejection systolic murmur louder on inspiration

122
Q

ix for suspected aortic dissection?

A

Stable: CTA chest abdo pelvis
Unstable: TOE

123
Q

DVLA advice for heart issues?

A 
CABG: 4 weeks
ACS: 4 weeks
PCI: 1 week
Pacemaker: 1 week
Angina: stop if symptoms at wheel
Transplant: 6 weeks
Group 2 ICD: permanent ban
124
Q

ECG findings in hypothermia?

A 
bradycardia
'J' wave - small hump at the end of the QRS complex
first degree heart block
long QT interval
atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
125
Q

Causes of orthostatic hypotension?

A

primary autonomic failure: Parkinson’s disease, Lewy body dementia
secondary autonomic failure: e.g. Diabetic neuropathy, amyloidosis, uraemia
drug-induced: diuretics, alcohol, vasodilators
volume depletion: haemorrhage, diarrhoea
physiological: pregnancy, post-prandial

126
Q

ECG findings in dextrocardia?

A

inverted P wave in lead I
right axis deviation
loss of R wave progression

127
Q

Features of Buerger’s disease?

A 
extremity ischaemia
 - intermittent claudication
 - ischaemic ulcers
superficial thrombophlebitis
Raynaud's phenomenon
128
Q

Progression of an ecg in an STEMI?

A
  1. Hyperacute T waves
  2. ST elevation
  3. T wave inversion (within first 24 hours)
  4. Pathological Q waves (hours to days)
129
Q

Infective endocarditis caused by fully-sensitive streptococci (e.g. viridans) tx?

A

Benzylpenicillin

If penicillin allergic: vancomycin + low-dose gentamicin

130
Q

Infective Endocarditis caused by less sensitive streptococci tx?

A

Benzylpenicillin + low-dose gentamicin

If penicillin allergic
vancomycin + low-dose gentamicin

131
Q

Most common cause of drug-induced angioedema?

A

ACEi

132
Q

Drugs contra-indicated in AS?

A

CCBs
GTN and nitrites
ACEi (moderate to severe AS)

133
Q

Indications for permanent pacemaker?

A

mobitz II
complete heart block
HFrEF with EF <35%
some HOCM

134
Q

How do you manage patients with stable CVD who have AF?

A

Anticoagulate only

135
Q

Indications for temporary pacemaker?

A

symptomatic/haemodynamically unstable bradycardia, not responding to atropine
post-ANTERIOR MI: type 2 or complete heart block*
trifascicular block prior to surgery

136
Q

How to differentiate between Type A and B WPW?

A 
type A (left-sided pathway): dominant R wave in V1
type B (right-sided pathway): no dominant R wave in V1

Oishi's Final year flashcards (9 decks)

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