Cardiac Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Parasympathetic fibers to the heart arise from the… and … and are carried by …

A

Parasympathetic fibers to the heart arise from the dorsal vagal nucleus and nucleus ambiguous and are carried by the vagus nerve.

This gives rise to two plexuses: dorsal and ventral cardiopulmonary plexuses, which are located between the aortic arch and tracheal bifurcation. From there the cardiac nerves carry the signal to the heart itself.

Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors are found in the greatest concentration at the SA node, followed by the AV node, followed by the various heart chambers.

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2
Q

Parasympathetic stimulations result in … chronotropy (heart rate) and dromotropy (conduction speed).

A

Decreases both.

Its effects on decreasing inotropy are relatively small and it can mildly decrease lusitropy as well (relaxation).

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3
Q

Sympathetic stimulation to heart arises from … and is carried to …

A

T2, 3, & 4,

the stellate ganglion first and then down to the heart as the cardiac nerves which often join together and course with the left main coronary artery.

Sympathetic stimulation increases chronotropy, dromotropy, inotropy, and lusitropy.

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4
Q

S3 heart sounds indicates ?

A

Has a strong association with Major Adverse Cardiac Event (MACE)

S3 is an abnormal heart sound occurring in early diastole and often explained as the atrial blood reverberating against poorly functioning ventricular walls that relax slowly, leading to a knocking sound just after S2. Another way to think of S3 is diastolic flow that is poorly compensated for (noncompliant ventricle or increased atrial blood with MR). Both of these are gross oversimplifications, but you don’t need to develop a complete differential diagnosis for abnormal heart sounds for the boards, what you need is realize what it means. When the stem mentions an S3, think heart failure (in most cases) and realize that it occurs during diastole. Preoperative evaluation will likely be a big subject on the basic exam, and heart sounds and murmurs have always been fair game.

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5
Q

Would you offer perioperative echo if you hear S3 heart sound?

A

According to guidelines, a patient with heart failure would qualify for a preop echo if they have worsening clinical status or other signs (such as NEW onset S3, etc).

A lower degree of recommendation is made for patients with stable heart failure that have not had an LV evaluation of some sort over the last year (basically if you want to get one its ok, but you do not have to get one routinely).

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6
Q

What effect on below with spontaneous inspiration:

Preload
Afterload
Blood pressure 
S2 heart sound
HR
A

During (spontaneous) inspiration, intrathoracic and plueral pressures are negative leading to increased venous return and therefore more blood volume to right ventricle, hence increasing RV preload.

At the same time pulmonary venous capacitance increases with spontaneous inspiration, and LV preload is decreased. Furthermore, since the LV has to overcome negative intrathoracic pressures to contract, afterload is actually increased (very slightly in normal cases).

The result of the decrease in LV preload and increase in LV afterload is a slight decrease in BP (about 6 mm Hg).

As discussed below, with increased RV volumes, the pulmonic valve closes later than the aortic valve, causing a split S2 (physiologically split).

The slight increase in heart rate seen with inspiration is due to inhibition of vagal tone (respiratory sinus arrhythmia).

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7
Q

When is non-invasive stress test indicated perioperative

A

1) the patient will be having an intermediate or high risk elective surgery.
2) they have a functional status that is poor (<4 METS) or is unknown,
3) the patient would agree to angiography and possibly even revascularization if the stress test were positive,
4) and finally if the patient and members of the perioperative care team agreed that it would change the patient’s overall care and outcome.

A lot of loosey-goosey rubbish, really, but those are the guidelines, which become increasingly more amorphous each year. At the same time the guidelines state that even if you have CAD, routine coronary revascularization for the sole purpose of reducing perioperative cardiac events is NOT recommended. So why get the bloody stress test in the first place! Basically, the primary indications for revascularization (either by angioplasty, stents, or CABG) are medical (“that bothersome, annoying chest pain that just seems to come every time I walk”). The European Guidelines are a little more clear and concise, but are essentially identical.

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8
Q

ST depressions are seen in ECG leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 at very high heart rates. Which of the following coronary arteries would most likely be affected by stenosis

A

LCx will affect the lateral left ventricle and ischaemia will be seen in the V5 and V6 leads because they are the most lateral.

Look at Einthoven’s triangle and note that aVL would be perpendicular to the left lateral wall and therefore also be a sensitive lead to pick up ischaemia.

Lead I can classically help identify lateral LV ischaemia as well

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9
Q

ST depressions are seen in ECG leads V1-6.Which of the following coronary arteries would most likely be affected by stenosis

A

LAD disease can manifest with septal and or anterior LV ischaemia. Therefore leads V1-4 are classically always involved and V5-6 often as well.

Left main disease would involve the territory of the LAD and LCx.

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10
Q

ST depressions are seen in ECG leas II, III, aVF, Which of the following coronary arteries would most likely be affected by stenosis

A

Right coronary disease classically presents as inferior MI involving II, III, aVF.

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11
Q

S1 heart sounds occur … p wave and … c wave

A

After p wave
Before c wave

The S1 heart sound occurs at the beginning of systole when ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure and the mitral and tricuspid valves close.

This occurs just before the c wave on the cvp waveform and just after the QRS complex on ECG.

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12
Q

S2 heart sound occur … T wave and …. v wave on CVP.

A

After T wave
Before v wave

Normally S2 will be heard just after the T wave, and during or just before the ‘v’ wave on cvp.

The S2 heart sound occurs at the end of systole when the ventricles have begun isovolumetric relaxation and aortic pressure is greater than ventricular pressure thus snapping the aortic valve closed (or when pulmonary artery pressure is greater than RV pressure for the pulmonic valve).

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13
Q

S2 splitting caused commonly by …

A

S2 is broke into two components: A2 and P2 for the aortic and pulmonic valve, respectively. A2 normally closes before P2, and this splitting is greater with inspiration (due to increased preload in the RV and decreased preload in the LV).

Pathological splitting has many causes, but on the boards this will most likely be due to increased RV volume such as a left to right ASD or pulmonary stenosis. I can’t imagine they would expect you to know about less classic etiologies such as bundle branch bocks and widened S2’s, much less the rare etiologies.

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14
Q

S3 commonly caused by

A

The S3 heart sound is classically indicative of heart failure with a noncompliant heart that cannot relax quick enough for the degree of filling and in some cases a distinct heart sound can be heard. This will also occur with some valvular diseases

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15
Q

S4 commonly caused by

A

The S4 heart sound is due to atrial contraction ejecting blood into a noncompliant ventricle and is also called a gallop. It is associated with LV concentric hypertrophy such as seen in chronic hypertension and aortic stenosis. Since it is due to atrial contraction it has to occur just after the p wave and obviously during the ‘a’ wave on cvp.

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16
Q

Why does mixed venous oxygen saturation of haemoglobin (MVsat) tend to be lower than superior vena cava Hb saturation (ScvO2):

A

Right atrial mixing with blood from the coronary sinus

Unlike other tissues, the heart is always living on the edge of disaster because it nearly maximally extracts as much oxygen from Hb as possible. Under most circumstances the coronary sinus Hb sat is about 30-40%. Therefore the blood from the superior vena cava with HB sats around, lets say 75% mix with inferior vena cava HB sats which are usually not much different than the superior vena cava (typically a bit higher actually) and mix with blood from the coronary sinus. This means that when you sample blood from the SVC it will be higher than the downstream blood in the pulmonary artery that has mixed with the coronary sinus. Normally MVsat is about 2-5 points lower than ScvO2 on exams.

As an aside, the terminology can be confusing, the MVsat is more often referred to as an SvO2, which is confusing when your trying to learn because ScvO2 is replacing this measurement in clinical practice as the use of PA catheters have declined. With rare exception, the ScvO2 and MVsat will correlate with each other nicely. As a second aside, you will come across sources that seem to say that MVsat is higher than ScvO2, and while this can be true in some cases, I think the safest bet is to assume that MVsat will be lower than ScvO2. In periods of extreme myocardial stress coronary sinus saturation can fall to 10%, which increases the difference between ScvO2 and MVsat.

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17
Q

Coronary blood flow best described by which physics law?

A

Ohm’s law where flow is dependent on the ratio of perfusion pressure to resistance

Perfusion pressure for the left ventricle (LV) is defined as aortic diastolic pressure minus LV end diastolic pressure (LVEDP) and only occurs during diastole. Resistance can be manipulated by coronary dilation. Coronary dilation occurs when the myocardium is not receiving enough oxygen, often from inadequate flow.

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18
Q

What’s the potential downside from increasing aortic diastolic pressure to increase coronary blood flow?

A

Increase aortic diastolic pressure that will increase coronary perfusion pressure.

Potential downside:
1) it will increase LV afterload and (depending on degree of increase in BP and the patient’s LV function) can decrease cardiac output and therefore coronary flow.

2) Also increased afterload means increased LV wall tension, which means more O2 consumption.

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19
Q

4 way to increase coronary blood flow by …

A

When myocardial oxygen consumption outpaces delivery one can either:

1) Increase aortic diastolic pressure that will increase coronary perfusion pressure.
2) Decrease LVEDP, which will result in a greater proportion of time that aortic diastolic blood pressure is greater than LVEDP and therefore have perfusion (depending on coronary resistance).
3) Slowing heart rate, which will increase the time in diastole and lead to more time for perfusion. Also myocardial oxygen consumption will decrease (O2 consumption will fall greater by decreasing HR than decreasing afterload or contractility).
3) Decreasing contractility, which will decrease LV wall tension and therefore myocardial oxygen consumption.
4) Dilating coronary arteries can shift blood away from stenotic coronary distributions (LCx in this case) that are absolutely dependent on high perfusion pressures to overcome the resistance to normal areas. This is called coronary steal.

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20
Q

What’s the downside of decreasing LVEDP to improve coronary perfusion?

A

Decreasing LVEDV which will result in a greater proportion of time that aortic diastolic blood pressure is greater than LVEDP and therefore have perfusion (depending on coronary resistance)

Downside: if associated with too great a reduction of LVED blood volume (and therefore pressure) it can also decrease cardiac output (by decreasing preload).

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21
Q

What’s the downside of decreasing HR to improve coronary perfusion?

A

Slowing heart rate, which will increase the time in diastole and lead to more time for perfusion. Also myocardial oxygen consumption will decrease (O2 consumption will fall greater by decreasing HR than decreasing afterload or contractility).

Downside: hardly any assuming the HR is not so low cardiac output falls too far.

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22
Q

What’s the downside decreasing Contractility to improve coronary perfusion?

A

Decreasing contractility, which will decrease LV wall tension and therefore myocardial oxygen consumption.

Downside: can decrease cardiac output especially at its extremes. (Notice that beta blockers do a nice job of decreasing heart rate and LV wall tension!)

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23
Q

What’s the downside of dilatation of coronaries to improve coronary flow?

A

Dilating coronary arteries can shift blood away from stenotic coronary distributions (LCx in this case) that are absolutely dependent on high perfusion pressures to overcome the resistance to normal areas.

Downside is described above what is called coronary steal

24
Q

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) binding to myosin results in:

A

Release of myosin from actin

AP -> influx’s Ca from extracellular -> binds to Ryanodine receptors-> release Ca from SR-> Ca binds to troponin -> displaces actin-myosin binding site -> ready for myosin to bind to actin.

Myosin

1) Myosin that was bound to actin was released by binding to ATP. The myosin-ATP complex is reenergized and ready to couple and contract again, but first it has to hydrolyse ATP into ADP and a lone P. To bind to actin, it has to let the lonely single phosphorous go on its way.
2) Once the myosin is bound to actin, the myosin then lets ADP go free and produces a “power stroke” (no I did not make that term up). After the power stroke and subsequent contraction of myocardium, its stuck to actin until another ATP comes by and allows it to let go of actin and again reenergize.

If the troponin is still off lollygagging with calcium, the process can repeat itself again. Once the calcium levels decrease and the troponin returns to block the actin-myosin binding site, the party is over.

25
Q

Amiodarone is class … anti arrhythmias

A

1) It is a class III antiarrhythmic agent which means it is classified as a potassium-blocking agent which therefore would delay phase 3 repolarization of the cardiac action potential. That being said its mechanisms of actions are complex and also has class Ia, II, and IV effects as well.

Altogether, it slows conduction, acts as an AV nodal blocker (like a beta-blocker), and is generally effective for both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias.

For atrial fibrillation is it is often used for “chemical” cardioversion and should be used with caution if you think your patient with a-fib might have an atrial clot. In general, bolusing amiodarone has less depressant effects on blood pressure than beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers.

Amiodarone has a long half-life and is very fat soluble, giving it a high volume of distribution. Loading doses require up to 10 g over the course of days, especially when given oral. You’ll be using it IV, and realize that a single bolus of amiodarone will redistribute and be ineffective after a couple hours, and a drip needs to be started afterwards in most cases.

26
Q

Amidor was SEs are

A

Amiodarone is most known for its side effects.

1) pulmonary fibrosis, leading to significant restrictive lung disease and decreased gas exchange (decreased DLCO on PFTs).
2) Amiodarone also can lead to hypothyroidism as well as (less often) hyperthyroidism.
3) It can lead to a transaminitis and jaundice, and if not discontinued can lead to cirrhosis.
4) Also chronic use can lead to peripheral neuropathies.
5) There are many other side effects and drug interactions with amiodarone.

27
Q

Myocardial wall tension can be calculated by

A

LaPlace’s Law

It is used to describe wall tension of ventricles as well as alveoli, although is not actually truly accurate for either, but that’s beside the point.

LaPlace’s Law is essentially T = Pr/2h, where T is wall tension, P is ventricular pressure, r is radius, and h is wall thickness. Wall tension is the largest component of myocardial oxygen demand and reducing it is important. As discussed elsewhere, by increasing wall thickness (myocardial muscle mass) the tension developed at a given pressure and radius is decreased, and is the explanation of why one will see concentric hypertrophy in the setting of chronic hypertension, for example.

28
Q

What law describes laminar fluid through a tube?

A

Poiseuille’s law describes laminar fluid through a tube.

The equation to remember is Q = (πPr^4)/(8nl), where Q is flow rate, P is pressure, r is radius, n is viscosity, and l is length of tubing. The longer the tubing or higher the viscosity, the slower the flow. Similarly, the higher the pressure or greater the radius the faster the flow.

29
Q

What law describes inverse relationship between pressure and volume

A

Boyle’s Law: P1V1 = P2V2. This describes the inverse relationship between pressure and volume, in that if you reduce the volume of a gas (such as compressing it), its pressure will increase. This is because in both states (compressed and noncompressed) it has the same number of molecules. It really has nothing to do with cardiac physiology, but it’s an important and highly tested principle. Less often tested is Charles’s Law, which is (V1/T1) = (V2/T2), meaning that at a constant pressure the volume of gas will vary with temperature.

30
Q

The primary contributor to systemic vascular resistance is:

A

Arterioles

SVR is, in most cases, the primary source of resistance to left ventricular ejection. Other causes of resistance to ejection include aortic impedance (think of the geometry and geography of the aortic tree not the vascular tone, per say), arterial pressure wave reflection (which is part of aortic impedance, I suppose), viscosity, and negative intrathoracic (pleural) pressure. Assuming the patient is otherwise normal, SVR remains a good way to estimate resistance to LV ejection. Do you remember the equation to SVR….because you need to know it: SVR = [(MAP-CVP)/CO] X 80.

The arterioles, AKA precapillary resistance vessels, contribute about 60% of SVR and have distal sphincters that can regulate blood flow into the capillaries. The Windkessel vessels are the aorta and other large arteries.

31
Q

BB effect on heart?

A

BBs are antiarrhythmic agents, primarily by decreasing sympathetic input into the conducting system including the SA and AV node as well as increasing the refractory period in non-conducting myocardial cells, and are standard treatment for most atrial and ventricular arrhythmic conditions. BBs decrease inotropy, chronotropy, decrease dromotropy, and can decrease lusitropy.

32
Q

Bb effect on RS?

A

In the respiratory system, blockade of beta-2 agonism can lead to bronchospasm, but is far less common in beat-1 specific BBs (remember at a certain dose you’ll start to see some B2 activity in B1 specific BBs).

33
Q

BB effects Opioids and Endcroine system?

A

BBs have antinociceptive properties and can be used to reduce opioid doses, especially for outpatient surgery (typically high dose esmolol gtts). It is questionable whether BBs have anxiolytic properties, but they do effectively treat many of the manifestations of anxiety (shaking, sweating, etc).

BBs can decrease glycogenolysis and glucagon secretion and can lower glucose levels (although the greater risk of BBs are masking the symptoms of hypoglycaemia, not directly affecting the glucose levels). BBs can be used to treat glaucoma because they decrease aqueous humor secretion from the ciliary epithelium (beta 2 agonism increases production of aqueous humor). Beta 1 agonism within the macula densa leads to renin production, which leads to angiotensin, then angiotensin II formation, and finally aldosterone release. BBs decrease the production of renin and therefore aldosterone release.

Other board-worthy properties of BBs are decreasing peripheral conversion on T4 to T3 as well as blunt the physiological effects of hyperthyroidism. BB overdose with resultant bradycardia can be treated with glucagon by increasing cAMP and therefore protein kinase A. Beta blockade with release of catecholamines, such as seen with pheochromocytoma or cocaine intoxication, can lead to unopposed alpha vascular constriction (beta 2 vasodilates) and can lead to extremes of hypertension and precipitate LV strain and even myocardial ischaemia.

34
Q

What effect of AS or phenylephrine, NGT, digoxin on preload

A

With decreasing heart rate, there is more diastolic time and ventricular filling, and therefore an increased stroke volume (if all other variables are held constant). By increasing stroke volume (SV), cardiac output can be somewhat maintained over a wide variety of heart rates (cardiac output = HR X SV). As heart rate increases, diastolic time decreases, which decreases LVEDV (preload), and therefore stroke volume.

Phenylephrine and aortic stenosis represent states of increased afterload. With increased afterload there is typically a compensatory increase in preload in normal individuals as measured in both volume and pressure. In the case of aortic stenosis compensatory left ventricular hypertrophy leads to decreased ventricular compliance and LVEDP increases out of proportion to the increases in LVEDV. With phenylephrine, not only will there be a compensatory increase in preload in normal individuals, but decreased HR will also facilitate this process (of increasing stroke volume).

Nitroglycerin will increase venous capacitance and decrease preload. Nitroprusside, in addition to its effects on venodilation, will also decrease afterload, leading to reductions in LVEDV.

Digoxin will not have significant effects on preload as it will mildly increase contractility. Depending on dose, digoxin can lead to decreased heart rate that can potentially increase, not decrease, preload.

35
Q

At what heart rate the Cardiac index would be maximized?

A

In otherwise healthy adults, cardiac index (CI) increases up to a HR of about 120 and then falls precipitously afterwards. For children CI is maximal at far higher heart rates (~150 for toddlers and even higher for infants). Remember as HR increases, stroke volume decreases, and around a rate above 120 the decreases in stroke volume outweigh the increases in HR. A nice number to remember for a resting cardiac index is about 3.5 l/min/m2. At a rate of 120 this value raises to about 5.5 (lots of variation depending on reference source). At rates below 40, CI starts to drop precipitously as increases in stroke volume have a limit. If this question asked at which HR would stroke volume be the greatest, the answer of the above choices would have been 60 beats/min.

36
Q

What’s compensatory mechanism of dealing with decreased contractility to maintain cardiac output?

A

When a person has decreased contractile state (such as ischaemic cardiomyopathy), the heart wants to maintain stroke volume by increasing preload. That means the LVEDV is higher and thus the left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP) is higher. The relationship between volume and pressure is non-linear, and in fact, at LVEDP’s above 12, increases in volume often lead to exponential increases in pressure. Increased LVEDP leads to high pulmonary capillary pressures and thus hydrostatic movement of water into the alveolar space. And now we have just described a heart failure patient!

37
Q

Which is the organ that receives most BF out of cardiac output?

A

High: Liver (19%), Muscle (19%), Heart & Lungs (19%), Kidneys (16%)

Medium: Brain (10%), Intestines (6%)

Low: Skin, other organs

38
Q

A patient who is determined to be hypovolaemic has an episode of bradycardia and hypotension when moved from the supine to upright position. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation:

A

Bezold-Jarisch reflex is long standing. It just so happens that in the left ventricle (LV) there are receptors (mechano- and chemo-) that will fire in the setting of very low pressures. The only problem is that they are wired to vagal afferents that lead to bradycardia and hypotension, but also leads to coronary vasodilation (which perhaps is the reason it exists). This highly tested reflex rears its head in two situations on the boards. First, a hypovolaemic patient has a sudden further decrease in preload (as the stem above) or spinal anesthesia. The second scenario that may appear on the boards is following a myocardial infarction or coronary reperfusion. There are other causes, but these are the two you should know.

39
Q

What reflex called when paradoxical tachycardia in response to fluid bolus.

A

The Brainbridge atrial reflex is paradoxical tachycardia in response to fluid bolus. The mechanism is classically described through decreased vagal tone (due to fluid bolus or hypervolaemia) leading to increased heart rate through both neural input into the medulla as well as stretching the SA node and increasing its automaticity. This is well described and common in dogs, but less common in people.

40
Q

The 2 most common seen vasovagal reflex by anesthesiologists are?

A

The Vasovagal reflex is very commonly seen in people and has a million causes. The two that you will see is stimulus from mesenteric retraction or distention leading to a vagal afferents sending signal to the brainstem, and then the brainstem (nucleus tractus solitarii) sending out vagal efferents with resultant bradycardia, hypotension, and even apnea. The other stimulus you will see anxiety and noxious stimuli (especially regional anesthesia!) leading to a vasovagal episode. In many cases the reflex is strong enough to lead to syncope.

41
Q

The baroreceptor reflex is

A

Increased blood pressure will lead to increased firing of action potentials from the baroreceptors in the carotid sinus.

The afferent signal is carried by the Hering nerve (glossopharyngeal) to cardiovascular centers in the medulla.

The net effect is inhibition of sympathetic activity and increased parasympathetic outflow, decreasing heart rate, contractility, and vascular tone. It is responsible for the second to second maintenance of blood pressure.

Remember that anesthetics depress this reflex, depending on dose. Don’t confuse this with the very similar response chemoreceptors have in the carotid and aortic bodies. Chemoreceptors in the carotid body respond to low oxygen tension and acidaemia, and also have outflow through the Herring nerve. The big difference is that this response can increase ventilation and can have a secondary effect to increase blood pressure. These receptors are even more sensitive to anesthetics (especially volatiles).

42
Q

Three processes that you need to be familiar with:

alpha-1 receptor mediated …
beta-2 receptor mediated …
NO mediated …

A

alpha-1 receptor mediated vasoconstriction,

beta-2 receptor mediated vasodilation, and NO mediated vasodilation.

43
Q

Phenylephrine biological activity?

A

Phenylephrine -> alpha-1 receptor -> PLC -> IP3 -> Ca release from SR -> increased contraction

44
Q

Beta 2 receptors biological activity?

A

Beta-2 receptor -> cAMP -> Uptake of Ca back into the SR -> decreased contraction

45
Q

NO biological activity?

A

NO -> cGMP -> decreased contraction

46
Q

What reflex would lead to decrease ADH section

A

ADH (vasopressin) is released by the pituitary, typically in response to hypovolaemia or increased plasma osmolality. As discussed in detail in the renal section, ADH leads to water retention (as well as vasoconstriction) in response to hypovolaemia. Other stimuli for release include angiotensin II, cholecystokinin, pain, and nicotine.

Hypervolaemia will inhibit release of ADH and the most important mechanism for this is atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) release from atrial distention. Another inhibitory mechanism is ethanol. These are not complete lists, but you did not come here for a complete list, just what you need to know.

47
Q

If CO increased, would PA pressures increased even if you have normal PVR?

A

PVR and PA pressures are different. PVR is resistance and PA pressures are pressure and they’re relationship to each other is relative to flow (Ohm’s Law).

PA Pressure is proportional to Flow X PVR. Therefore if you increase cardiac output the PA pressure will increase if PVR stays the same. Trying to get cardiac surgeons to understand this is near impossible.

48
Q

What would increase PVR?

A

Hypoxia
Academia
Hypercarbia

49
Q

Following the placement of a coronary drug-eluting stent (DES) after STEMI and complete return of baseline heart function, when is the soonest elective total knee replacement surgery (with discontinuation of clopidogrel) be timed

A

12 months

ACC/AHA guidelines 2014

  • If the elective surgery can be considered after 180 days if the risks of delaying the surgery outweigh the risk of stent thrombosis in all patients
  • If the above is not true than elective surgery should be delayed:
    1) 365 days if the patient had acute coronary syndrome at the time the stent was placed (unstable angina, MI)
    2) 180 days if the patient had typical angina at the time of stent (or found by routine stress test, etc)
50
Q

Following the placement of a coronary drug-eluting stent (DES) after STEMI and complete return of baseline heart function, when is the soonest If there is a growing tumor obstructing some important bodily function,
(with discontinuation of clopidogrel) be timed:

A

6 months (if it was elective, then wait 12 months)

51
Q

What are the options of coronary stenting of patient needs early surgery, for a month after intervention? And for sooner < 1 month?

A

If surgery is required a month after revascularization, a bare metal stent (BMS) should be placed (not DES). BMS’s have a higher rate of late thrombosis (> 1-3 months), but far lower incidence of early thrombosis when the antiplatelet therapy is held. Thrombosis of BMS is less likely to present with sudden cardiac death than DES.

If surgery is required sooner than 30 days, balloon angioplasty should be considered. Elective surgery can commence 14 days after balloon angioplasty.

52
Q

Can be ASA continued preoperotively for patients with recent cardiac stent placement ? And what’s the 2 risk intraoperrively with patients having newly DES or BMS?

A

In all cases, aspirin should be continued through the perioperative course. The issue that we as anesthesiologists face is that of cardiac ischaemia due to stent thrombosis and increased risk of bleeding.

In our specialty we primarily see the negative effects of bleeding with dual anti-platelet therapy (plavix and aspirin, for example). However, overall, patients with ACS who have DES placed do better with extended regimens of anticoagulation (even beyond one year) even considering the absolute increase in bleeding risk.

53
Q

Why BMS is a better option than DES for patients who will undergo early 1 -6 month surgery after BMS placement?

A

BMS’s have a higher rate of late thrombosis (> 1-3 months), but far lower incidence of early thrombosis when the antiplatelet therapy is held.

Thrombosis of BMS is less likely to present with sudden cardiac death than DES.

54
Q

When can patient undergo surgery after ballon angioplasty?

A

If surgery is required sooner than 30 days, balloon angioplasty should be considered. Elective surgery can commence 14 days after balloon angioplasty.

55
Q

Why ACE inhibits should be stoped perioperative

A

Continuing ACE inhibitors on the day of surgery increases the incidence of intraoperative hypotension

If antiplatelet agents are the surgeon’s curse, then ACE inhibitors are our equivalent. In both cases increased mortality is associated with their use in a wide variety of conditions. Although ACE inhibitors have shown fantastic benefit in the medical setting, the same is not true for the surgical setting. ACE inhibitor use is associated with increased intraoperative hypotension, but no increase or reduction of MI, stroke, or mortality (according to the ACC/AHA guidelines). The same is true for withholding ACE inhibitors. Some authors will advise it to be held, others given, sometimes advising a reduced dose. Treating ACE inhibitor associated intraoperative hypotension can be a real challenge. Aspirin, beta blockers, and statins have been shown to improve outcomes in some populations.

56
Q

Normal reference numbers for CVP, wedge, CO, SV

A

CVP: 6 mm Hg, Wedge: 10 m Hg; Cardiac Output: 5.0 L/min; Stroke Volume: 70 cc

Its important to know, in general, where normal values for various physiological assessments live. We stress this over and over in different sections, because you might not be given a normal reference range. There is a great amount of variation between sources, but get a general sense of the range. Cardiac output and stroke volume will vary considerably among individuals, whereas cardiac index (3.5 ml/min/m^3) and stroke volume index (40 ml/ m^3/ beat) vary less.

57
Q

Starling force describes

A

The starling forces help describe the net movement of fluid in and out of capillaries. The equation is (you need to know this equation so write it down):

Q = kA X [(Pc – Pi) - σ(πc-πi)]

Q: net fluid filtration; k: capillary filtration coefficient (of water); A: area of the membrane; σ: reflection coefficient (of albumin). Pc: capillary hydrostatic pressure; Pi: interstitial hydrostatic pressure; πi: interstitial colloid osmotic pressure; πc: capillary colloid osmotic pressure.

You learned this many times in medical school and I will save you from a complete description. In most cases, capillaries are relatively impermeable to water, depending on the location. Net movement of water across the membrane due to hydrostatic pressure from the intraluminal capillary space to interstitial space will be proportional to the pressure difference between these two spaces. The coefficient k, when low is more impermeable to water than a higher value. In CHF, the capillary pressure within the lungs can be measured with the wedge pressure. At high pressures (as in the case of CHF) there is a lot of water (with low protein content) that is moved out of the capillaries and into the alveoli presenting as pulmonary oedema. In ARDS, classically the wedge pressure is normal, so why does the lung fill with fluid?

Net movement of water across the capillary due to oncotic pressure will be determined by the magnitude of oncotic differences between the interstitium and intraluminal capillary. Normally the capillary is very impermeable to protein (albumin) and in most cases there is a movement of water from the interstitial space back into the vessel. In the setting of a low reflection coefficient, protein can cross more freely across a membrane. That is why in ARDS there is a loss of proteinaceous fluid into the lungs (capillary leak).