cardiac drugs

Question 1

Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client’s medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client’s history?1. Neuralgia

2. Insomnia
3. Use of nitroglycerin
4. Use of multivitamins

Answer 1

3. Use of nitroglycerins

Question 2

A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A health care provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

1. 3 to 5 ng/mL
2. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL
3. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL
4. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL

Answer 2

2.) 0.5 to 2 ng/mL

Question 3

A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?

1. The development of complaints of insomnia
2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two doses of the medication

Answer 3

2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes

Question 4

Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) is prescribed for a client with angina pectoris. The client tells the nurse that the medication is causing a chronic headache. The nurse appropriately suggests that the client:

1. Cut the dose in half.
2. Discontinue the medication.
3. Take the medication with food.
4. Contact the health care provider (HCP).

Answer 4

3. Take the medication with food.

Question 5

A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?

1. Monitor for renal failure.
2. Monitor psychosocial status.
3. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
4. Have heparin sodium available.

Answer 5

3. Monitor for signs of bleeding.

Question 6

A nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client. The nurse understands that which of the following are concerns related to the administration of this medication?

1. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia
2. Increased risk of osteoporosis
3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy
4. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

Answer 6

3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy

Question 7

A home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL. The client is taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates the need for further education?

1. “Constipation and bloating might be a problem.”
2. “I’ll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats.”
3. “Walking a mile each day will help the whole process.”
4. “I’ll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store.”

Answer 7

4. “I’ll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store.”

Question 8

A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the instructions?

1. “It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol.”
2. “The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing.”
3. “Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern.”
4. “Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing

Answer 8

4. “Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing

Question 9

A newly admitted client takes digoxin 0.25 mg/day. The nurse knows that which is the serum therapeutic range for digoxin?

a. 0.1 to 1.5 ng/mL
b. 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL
c. 1.0 to 2.5 ng/mL
d. 2.0 to 4.0 ng/mL

Answer 9

b. 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL

Question 10

The client’s serum digoxin level is 3.0 ng/mL. What does the nurse know about this serum digoxin level?

a. It is in the high (elevated) range.
b. It is in the low (decreased) range.
c. It is within the normal range.
d. It is in the low average range

Answer 10

a. It is in the high (elevated) range.

Question 11

The nurse is assessing the client for possible evidence of digitalis toxicity. The nurse acknowledges that which is included in the signs and symptoms for digitalis toxicity?

a. Pulse (heart) rate of 100 beats/min
b. Pulse of 72 with an irregular rate
c. Pulse greater than 60 beats/min and irregular rate
d. Pulse below 60 beats/min and irregular rate

Answer 11

d. Pulse below 60 beats/min and irregular rate

Question 12

The client is also taking a diuretic that decreases her potassium level. The nurse expects that a low potassium level (hypokalemia) could have what effect on the digoxin?

a. Increase the serum digoxin sensitivity level
b. Decrease the serum digoxin sensitivity level
c. Not have any effect on the serum digoxin sensitivity level
d. Cause a low average serum digoxin sensitivity level

Answer 12

a. Increase the serum digoxin sensitivity level

Question 13

When a client first takes a nitrate, the nurse expects which symptom that often occurs?

a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Headaches
c. Stomach cramps
d. Irregular pulse rate

Answer 13

B. headaches

Question 14

The nurse acknowledges that beta blockers are as effective as antianginals because they do what?

a. Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation.
b. Maintain heart rate and blood pressure.
c. Decrease heart rate and decrease myocardial contractility.
d. Decrease heart rate and increase myocardial contractility.

Answer 14

c. Decrease heart rate and decrease myocardial contractility.

Question 15

The health care provider is planning to discontinue a client’s beta blocker. What instruction should the nurse give the client regarding the beta blocker?

a. The beta blocker should be abruptly stopped when another cardiac drug is prescribed.
b. The beta blocker should NOT be abruptly stopped; the dose should be tapered down.
c. The beta blocker dose should be maintained while taking another antianginal drug.
d. Half the beta blocker dose should be taken for the next several weeks.

Answer 15

b. The beta blocker should NOT be abruptly stopped; the dose should be tapered down.

Question 16

A client is to be discharged home with a transdermal nitroglycerin patch. Which instruction will the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?

a. “Apply the patch to a nonhairy area of the upper torso or arm.”
b. “Apply the patch to the same site each day.”
c. “If you have a headache, remove the patch for 4 hours and then reapply.”
d. “If you have chest pain, apply a second patch next to the first patch.”

Answer 16

a. “Apply the patch to a nonhairy area of the upper torso or arm.”

Question 17

A nurse is monitoring a client with angina for therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin. Which assessment finding indicates that the nitroglycerin has been effective?

a. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg
b. Heart rate 70 beats per minute
c. ECG without evidence of ST changes
d. Client stating that pain is 0 out of 10

Answer 17

d. Client stating that pain is 0 out of 10

Question 18

The nurse is monitoring a client during IV nitroglycerin infusion. Which assessment finding will cause the nurse to take action?

a. Blood pressure 110/90 mm Hg
b. Flushing
c. Headache
d. Chest pain

Answer 18

d. chest pain

Question 19

Which statement made by the client demonstrates a need for further instruction regarding the use of nitroglycerin?

a. “If I get a headache, I should keep taking nitroglycerin and use Tylenol for pain relief.”
b. “I should keep my nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place.”
c. “I should change positions slowly to avoid getting dizzy.”
d. “I can take up to five tablets at 3-minute intervals for chest pain if necessary.”

Answer 19

d. “I can take up to five tablets at 3-minute intervals for chest pain if necessary.”

Question 20

Which client assessment would assist the nurse in evaluating therapeutic effects of a calcium channel blocker?

a. Client states that she has no chest pain.
b. Client states that the swelling in her feet is reduced.
c. Client states the she does not feel dizzy.
d. Client states that she feels stronger.

Answer 20

a. Client states that she has no chest pain.

Question 21

What statement is the most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan for a client who has started on a transdermal nitroglycerin patch?

a. “This medication works faster than sublingual nitroglycerin works.”
b. “This medication is the strongest of any nitroglycerin preparation available.”
c. “This medication should be used only when you are experiencing chest pain.”
d. “This medication will work for 24 hours and you will need to change the patch daily.”

Answer 21

d. “This medication will work for 24 hours and you will need to change the patch daily.”

Question 22

What will the nurse instruct the client to do to prevent the development of tolerance to nitroglycerin?

a. Apply the nitroglycerin patch every other day.
b. Switch to sublingual nitroglycerin when the client’s systolic blood pressure elevates to more than 140 mm Hg.
c. Apply the nitroglycerin patch for 14 hours and remove it for 10 hours at night.
d. Use the nitroglycerin patch for acute episodes of angina only.

Answer 22

c. Apply the nitroglycerin patch for 14 hours and remove it for 10 hours at night.

Question 23

Before the nurse administers isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur), what is a priority nursing assessment?

a. Assess serum electrolytes.
b. Measure blood urea nitrogen and creatinine.
c. Assess blood pressure.
d. Monitor level of consciousness.

Answer 23

c. Assess blood pressure.

Question 24

The client asks the nurse how nitroglycerin should be stored while traveling. What is the nurse’s best response?

a. “You can protect it from heat by placing the bottle in an ice chest.”
b. “It’s best to keep it in its original container away from heat and light.”
c. “You can put a few tablets in a resealable bag and carry it in your pocket.”
d. “It’s best to lock them in the glove compartment to keep them away from heat and light.”

Answer 24

b. “It’s best to keep it in its original container away from heat and light.”

Question 25

Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client understands sublingual nitroglycerin medication instructions?

a. “I will take up to five doses every 3 minutes for chest pain.”
b. “I can chew the tablet for the quickest effect.”
c. “I will keep the tablets locked in a safe place until I need them.”
d. “I should sit or lie down after I take a nitroglycerin tablet to prevent dizziness.”

Answer 25

d. “I should sit or lie down after I take a nitroglycerin tablet to prevent dizziness.”

Question 26

What instruction should the nurse provide to the client who needs to apply nitroglycerin ointment?

a. Use the fingers to spread the ointment evenly over a 3-inch area.
b. Apply the ointment to a nonhairy part of the upper torso.
c. Massage the ointment into the skin.
d. Cover the application paper with ointment before use

Answer 26

b. Apply the ointment to a nonhairy part of the upper torso.

Question 27

A client receiving intravenous nitroglycerin at 20 mcg/min complains of dizziness. Nursing assessment reveals a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 110 beats/min, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a. Assess the client’s lung sounds.
b. Decrease the intravenous nitroglycerin by 10 mcg/min.
c. Stop the nitroglycerin infusion for 1 hour, and then restart.
d. Recheck the client’s vital signs in 15 minutes but continue the infusion.

Answer 27

b. Decrease the intravenous nitroglycerin by 10 mcg/min.

Question 28

The nurse is monitoring a client taking digoxin (Lanoxin) for treatment of heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates a therapeutic effect of the drug?

a. Heart rate 110 beats per minute
b. Heart rate 58 beats per minute
c. Urinary output 40 mL/hr
d. Blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg

Answer 28

b. Heart rate 58 beats per minute

Question 29

A client’s serum digoxin level is drawn, and it is 0.4 ng/mL. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a. Administer ordered dose of digoxin.
b. Hold future digoxin doses.
c. Administer potassium.
d. Call the health care provider.

Answer 29

a. Administer ordered dose of digoxin.

Question 30

A client is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg and furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg. When the nurse enters the room, the client states, “There are yellow halos around the lights.” Which action will the nurse take?

a. Evaluate digoxin levels.
b. Withhold the furosemide
c. Administer potassium.
d. Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour.

Answer 30

a. Evaluate digoxin levels.

Question 31

Which assessment finding will alert the nurse to suspect early digitalis toxicity?

a. Loss of appetite with slight bradycardia
b. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
c. Heart rate 110 beats per minute
d. Confusion and diarrhea

Answer 31

a. Loss of appetite with slight bradycardia

Question 32

The nurse reviews a client’s laboratory values and finds a digoxin level of 10 ng/mL and a serum potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s primary intervention?

a. To administer atropine
b. To administer digoxin immune FAB
c. To administer epinephrine
d. To administer Kayexalate

Answer 32

b. To administer digoxin immune FAB

Question 33

A client is to begin treatment for short-term management of heart failure with milrinone lactate (Primacor). What is the priority nursing action?

a. Administer digoxin via IV infusion with the Primacor.
b. Administer Lasix (furosemide) via IV infusion after the Primacor.
c. Monitor blood pressure continuously.
d. Maintain an infusion of lactated Ringers with Primacor infusion.

Answer 33

c. Monitor blood pressure continuously.

Question 34

A client’s recently drawn serum lidocaine drug level is 3.0 mcg/mL. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

a. Increase the lidocaine infusion.
b. Decrease the lidocaine infusion.
c. Continue to monitor the client.
d. Stop the IV drip for 1 hour.

Answer 34

c. Continue to monitor the client.

Question 35

A nurse is caring for a client who has been started on ibutilide (Corvert). Which assessment is a priority for this client?

a. Blood pressure measurement
b. BUN and creatinine
c. ECG
d. Lung sounds

Answer 35

c. ecg

Question 36

Which assessment finding will alert the nurse to possible toxic effects of amiodarone?

a. Heart rate 100 beats per minute
b. Crackles in the lungs
c. Elevated blood urea nitrogen
d. Decreased hemoglobin

Answer 36

B. crackles in the lungs

Question 37

A client is taking hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg/day and digoxin 0.25 mg/day. What type of electrolyte imbalance does the nurse expect to occur?

a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypermagnesemia

Answer 37

b. Hypokalemia

Question 38

What would cause the same client’s electrolyte imbalance?

a. High dose of digoxin
b. Digoxin taken daily
c. Hydrochlorothiazide
d. Low dose of hydrochlorothiaizde

Answer 38

c. Hydrochlorothiazide

Question 39

A nurse teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg/day. The teaching should include the importance of monitoring which levels?

a. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Arterial blood gases
d. Serum glucose (sugar)

Answer 39

d. Serum glucose (sugar)

Question 40

A client has heart failure and is prescribed Lasix. The nurse is aware that furosemide (Lasix) is what kind of drug?

a. Thiazide diuretic
b. Osmotic diuretic
c. High-ceiling (loop) diuretic
d. Potassium-sparing diuretic

Answer 40

c. High-ceiling (loop) diuretic

Question 41

The nurse acknowledges that which condition could occur when taking furosemide?

a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hypermagnesemia

Answer 41

a. Hypokalemia

Question 42

For the client taking a diuretic, a combination such as triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide may be prescribed. The nurse realizes that this combination is ordered for which purpose?

a. To decrease the serum potassium level
b. To increase the serum potassium level
c. To decrease the glucose level
d. To increase the glucose level

Answer 42

b. To increase the serum potassium level

Question 43

The client has been receiving spironolactone (Aldactone) 50 mg/day for heart failure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for which condition?

a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hypermagnesemia

Answer 43

b. Hyperkalemia

Question 44

Which laboratory value will the nurse report to the health care provider as a potential adverse response to hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)?

a. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
b. Fasting blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL
c. Calcium level of 9 mg/dL
d. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L

Answer 44

b. Fasting blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL

Question 45

What is the best information for the nurse to provide to the client who is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) therapy?

a. “Moderate doses of two different diuretics are more effective than a large dose of one.”
b. “This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia.”
c. “This combination prevents dehydration and hypovolemia.”
d. “Using two drugs increases the osmolality of plasma and the glomerular filtration rate.”

Answer 45

b. “This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia.”

Question 46

A client with acute pulmonary edema receives furosemide (Lasix). What assessment finding indicates that the intervention is working?

a. Potassium level decreased from 4.5 to 3.5 mEq/L.
b. Crackles auscultated in the bases.
c. Lungs clear.
d. Output 30 mL/hr.

Answer 46

C. lungs clear

Question 47

The nurse is aware that which group(s) of antihypertensive drugs are less effective in African-American clients?

a. Diuretics
b. Calcium channel blockers and vasodilators
c. Beta blockers and ACE inhibitors
d. Alpha blockers

Answer 47

c. Beta blockers and ACE inhibitors

Question 48

The nurse knows that which diuretic is most frequently combined with an antihypertensive drug?

a. chlorthalidone
b. hydrochlorothiazide
c. bendroflumethiazide
d. potassium-sparing diuretic

Answer 48

b. hydrochlorothiazide

Question 49

The nurse explains that which beta blocker category is preferred for treating hypertension?

a. Beta1 blocker
b. Beta2 blocker
c. Beta1 and beta2 blockers
d. Beta2 and beta3 blockers

Answer 49

a. Beta1 blocker

Question 50

Captopril (Capoten) has been ordered for a client. The nurse teaches the client that ACE inhibitors have which common side effects?

a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Dizziness and headaches
c. Upset stomach
d. Constant, irritating cough

Answer 50

d. Constant, irritating cough

Question 51

A client is prescribed losartan (Cozaar). The nurse teaches the client that an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) acts by doing what?

a. Inhibiting angiotensin-converting enzyme
b. Blocking angiotensin II from AT1 receptors
c. Preventing the release of angiotensin I
d. Promoting the release of aldosterone

Answer 51

b. Blocking angiotensin II from AT1 receptors

Question 52

Which statement indicates that the client needs additional instruction about antihypertensive treatment?

a. “I will check my blood pressure daily and take my medication when it is over 140/90.”
b. “I will include rest periods during the day to help me tolerate the fatigue my medicine may cause.”
c. “I will change my position slowly to prevent feeling dizzy.”
d. “I will not mow my lawn until I see how this medication makes me feel.”

Answer 52

a. “I will check my blood pressure daily and take my medication when it is over 140/90.”

Question 53

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor and develops a dry, nonproductive cough. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a. Call the health care provider to switch the medication.
b. Assess the client for other symptoms of upper respiratory infection.
c. Instruct the client to take antitussive medication until the symptoms subside.
d. Tell the client that the cough will subside in a few days.

Answer 53

a. Call the health care provider to switch the medication.

Question 54

The nurse is reviewing a medication history on a client taking an ACE inhibitor. The nurse plans to contact the health care provider if the client is also taking which medication?

a. docusate sodium (Colace)
b. furosemide (Lasix)
c. morphine sulfate
d. spironolactone (Aldactone)

Answer 54

d. spironolactone (Aldactone)

Question 55

A client is prescribed a noncardioselective beta1 blocker. What nursing intervention is a priority for this client?

a. Assessment of blood glucose levels
b. Respiratory assessment
c. Orthostatic blood pressure assessment
d. Teaching about potential tachycardia

Answer 55

b. Respiratory assessment

Question 56

Which client will the nurse assess first?

a. The client who has been on beta blockers for 1 day.
b. The client who is on a beta blocker and a thiazide diuretic.
c. The client who has stopped taking a beta blocker due to cost.
d. The client who is taking a beta blocker and Lasix (furosemide).

Answer 56

c. The client who has stopped taking a beta blocker due to cost.

Question 57

The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who is prescribed Clonidine transdermal preparation. What is the correct information to teach this client?

a. Change the patch daily at the same time.
b. Remove the patch before taking a shower or bath.
c. Do not take other antihypertensive medications while on this patch.
d. Get up slowly from a sitting to a standing position.

Answer 57

d. Get up slowly from a sitting to a standing position.

Question 58

A calcium channel blocker has been ordered for a client. Which condition in the client’s history is a contraindication to this medication?

a. Hypokalemia
b. Dysrhythmias
c. Hypotension
d. Increased intracranial pressure

Answer 58

c. hypotension

Question 59

The client taking Methyldopa (Aldomet) has elevated liver function tests. What is the nurse’s best action?

a. Document the finding and continue care.
b. Notify the health care provider.
c. Immediately stop the medication.
d. Change the client’s diet.

Answer 59

b. Notify the health care provider.

Question 60

A client taking prazosin has a blood pressure of 140/90. The client is complaining of swollen feet. What is the nurse’s best action?

a. Hold the medication.
b. Call the health care provider.
c. Determine the client’s history.
d. Weigh the client.

Answer 60

c. Determine the client’s history.

Question 61

A client who takes clonidine (Catapres) is to be discharged to home. Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching this client?

a. “Your blood pressure should be checked by a health care provider at least once a year.”
b. “Increasing fluid and fiber in your diet can help prevent the side effect of constipation.”
c. “Intense exercise or prolonged standing is not a problem with clonidine as it can be with other antihypertensive agents.”
d. “If you are having difficulty with the common side effect of drooling, notify your health care provider so your dosage can be adjusted.”

Answer 61

b. “Increasing fluid and fiber in your diet can help prevent the side effect of constipation.”

Question 62

Which is a priority nursing diagnosis for a client taking an antihypertensive medication?

a. Alteration in cardiac output related to effects on the sympathetic nervous system
b. Knowledge deficit related to medication regimen
c. Fatigue related to side effects of medication
d. Alteration in comfort related to nonproductive cough

Answer 62

a. Alteration in cardiac output related to effects on the sympathetic nervous system

Question 63

The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with angina about sublingual Nitroglycerin. Which statement indicated the client needs more medication teaching?

1. “I will always carry my med in a dark-colored bottle”
2. “If I have chest pain I will put a tablet under my tongue?”
3. If my pain is not relieved with one tablet, I will get medical help
4. I should expect to get a headache after taking my medication?

Answer 63

3

Question 64

5. The client diagnosed with angina is prescribed nitroglycerin and tells the nurse, “I don’t understand why I can’t take my Viagra. I need to take it so that I can make love to my wife.” Which statement is the nurses best response?
6. if you take the meds together, you may get very low blood pressure
7. You are worried your wife wil be conceded if you cannot make love
8. if you wait at least 8 hours after taking your medication, you can take your viagra
9. you should get clarification with your HCP about taking VIagra

Answer 64

1

Question 65

6. The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction is receiving thrombolytic therapy. Which data warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
7. The client’s telemetry has repercussion by the nurse
8. the client is oozing blood from the IV site
9. the client is alter and oriented to date, time, and place.
10. The client has no signs of infiltration at the insertion site

Answer 65

2

Question 66

8. The client being discharged after sustaining an acute myocardial infarction is prescribed the ACE inhibitor lisinopril. Which instruction should be included when teaching about this medication?
9. instruct the client to monitor the blood pressure weepy
10. encourage the client to take medication on an empty stomach
11. discuss the need to rise slowly from lying to a standing position
12. teach the client to take the medication at night only

Answer 66

3

Question 67

A patient with stable angina uses a nitroglycerin transdermal patch, and efforts are being made to prevent drug tolerance. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates an understanding of the transdermal patch? “I will apply my patch

a. at 8:00 AM and remove it at 8:00 PM.”
b. at 8:00 PM and remove it when I wake up.”
c. at 7:00 AM and remove it at 8:00 PM.”
d. as soon as I remove my old one.”

Answer 67

at 8:00 AM and remove it at 8:00 PM.”

Question 68

A patient comes to the clinic for a follow-up appointment after being released from the hospital for angina. The nurse is discussing his medication, nitroglycerin. The nurse is correct to state that the principal way this medication relieves the pain of stable angina is by

a. strengthening blood pressure.
b. reducing cardiac oxygen demand.
c. promoting vagal stimulation.
d. increasing sympathetic stimulation to the heart.

Answer 68

reducing cardiac oxygen demand.

Question 69

The nurse understands that to reduce tolerance to nitrates in a patient with stable angina, the patient should be dosed with

a. SL nitroglycerin prn.
b. sustained-release oral tablets on an intermittent schedule.
c. transdermal nitroglycerin patches q 24 hours.
d. nitroglycerin ointment q 8 hours.

Answer 69

sustained-release oral tablets on an intermittent schedule.

Question 70

The nurse is caring for a patient who begins to complain of shortness of breath. Upon further assessment, the nurse notes 3+ pitting edema bilaterally in the lower extremities. Which medication taken by the patient would most concern the nurse with regard to these findings?

a. Epoetin alfa
b. Oprelvekin (interleukin-11)
c. Filgrastim (granulocyte colony–stimulating factor)
d. Sargramostim (granulocyte-macrophage colony–stimulating factor

Answer 70

Oprelvekin (interleukin-11)

Question 71

After receiving patient education about erythropoietin, the patient states that for the medication to be effective, the body must have sufficient amounts of which of the folllowing? (Select all that apply.)
a.Vitamin B6
b. Folic Acid
c. calcium
d. Vitamin B12
E. Iron

Answer 71

Folic Acid, Vitamin B12, and Iron

Question 72

patient is being evaluated in the emergency department for complaints of severe chest pain. The ECG confirms an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Which drug would the nurse anticipate administering for the relief of chest pain?

a. Meperidine (Demerol)
b. morphine
c. Aspirin
d. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

Answer 72

MORPHINE

Question 73

A patient who comes to the emergency department is anxious, short of breath, diaphoretic, and has a history of heart disease. The patient states that the doctor instructed him to chew an aspirin on the way to the emergency department. The nurse understands that the rationale for this instruction is that aspirin

a. suppresses platelet aggregation, producing an immediate antithrombotic effect.
b. acts as an immediate analgesic.
c. augments the effects of morphine.
d. has vasodilatory properties that can improve perfusion of the heart.

Answer 73

suppresses platelet aggregation, producing an immediate antithrombotic effect.