Cardiac Arrhythmia Dr Opaleye Flashcards

1
Q

What is cardiac electrophysiology?

A

A subspecialty of cardiology that focuses on the study and management of heart rhythm disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are cardiac arrhythmias?

A

Abnormal heart rhythms that can be too fast, too slow, or irregular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the five phases of the cardiac action potential?

A

Phase 0: Rapid upstroke, Phase 1: Early repolarization, Phase 2: Plateau, Phase 3: Late repolarization, Phase 4: Resting potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary function of the sinoatrial (SA) node?

A

It acts as the heart’s natural pacemaker by generating rhythmic impulses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three primary mechanisms of tachyarrhythmias?

A

Enhanced automaticity, triggered activity, and re-entry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is re-entry in cardiac arrhythmias?

A

A condition where an electrical impulse continuously circulates within a loop, causing sustained arrhythmia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of atrial fibrillation?

A

Ectopic foci from the pulmonary veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the hallmark ECG finding in atrial fibrillation?

A

Irregularly irregular rhythm with absent P waves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the first-line therapy for stable atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response?

A

Rate control with beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the ECG finding in Torsades de Pointes?

A

A polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with a characteristic twisting of the QRS complexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the Vaughan Williams classes of antiarrhythmic drugs?

A

Class I: Na+ channel blockers, Class II: Beta-blockers, Class III: K+ channel blockers, Class IV: Ca2+ channel blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which antiarrhythmic drug has properties of all Vaughan Williams classes?

A

Amiodarone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common cause of ventricular fibrillation?

A

Ischemic heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary treatment for ventricular fibrillation?

A

Immediate defibrillation and CPR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment for unstable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

A

Immediate synchronized cardioversion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the recommended drug for acute termination of narrow-complex SVT?

A

Adenosine.

17
Q

What electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with Torsades de Pointes?

A

Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia.

18
Q

What is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?

A

IV atropine.

19
Q

What is the role of catheter ablation in arrhythmia treatment?

A

Used to eliminate arrhythmogenic foci, especially in atrial fibrillation and AVNRT.

20
Q

What is the purpose of an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)?

A

To detect and treat life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias.

21
Q

What is the mainstay of long-term anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation?

A

Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) or warfarin.

22
Q

What is the CHADS₂-VASc score used for?

A

Assessing stroke risk in atrial fibrillation patients.

23
Q

What is the primary goal in treating atrial fibrillation?

A

Stroke prevention and rate or rhythm control.

24
Q

What is the first-line treatment for acute ventricular tachycardia in stable patients?

A

IV amiodarone or procainamide.

25
What is the preferred treatment for symptomatic Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?
Catheter ablation of the accessory pathway.
26
What is the hallmark ECG finding of WPW syndrome?
Short PR interval, delta wave, and widened QRS complex.
27
What is sick sinus syndrome?
Dysfunction of the SA node causing alternating bradycardia and tachycardia.
28
What is the key difference between atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation?
Atrial flutter has a regular sawtooth pattern; atrial fibrillation is irregular.
29
What condition presents with syncope and a 'family history of sudden death'?
Long QT syndrome or Brugada syndrome.
30
What is the best test to confirm Brugada syndrome?
ECG showing ST elevation in V1-V3, often unmasked with a sodium channel blocker.
31
What arrhythmia is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism?
Atrial fibrillation.
32
What lifestyle modifications help prevent atrial fibrillation recurrence?
Weight loss, reducing alcohol intake, and managing hypertension.
33
What is the first-line treatment for catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia?
Beta-blockers without intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.
34
What is the gold-standard diagnostic test for arrhythmias?
Electrophysiologic (EP) study.
35
What arrhythmia is commonly associated with COPD?
Multifocal atrial tachycardia.
36
What is the classic ECG finding in junctional rhythms?
Absent or inverted P waves with a narrow QRS complex.
37
What is the treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
Atropine, pacing, or addressing the underlying cause.
38
Which antiarrhythmic drug should be avoided in structural heart disease?
Flecainide.