cardiac anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

what cardiac history should be included in the pre anesthetic assessment for cardiac anesthesia?

A
  • cardiac medications
  • history of myocardial infarction
  • history of hospitalizations
  • exercise tolerance
  • cardiac catheterization report
  • myocardial wall movement
  • coronary angiography
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2
Q

what does MI history determine?

A

if within less than a month, an increase in morbidity and mortality rates

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3
Q

what does exercise tolerance determine?

A

disease severity

  • angina at rest or w/ major exertion?
  • angina accompanied by dyspnea? (indicates ventricular dysfunction)
  • ask specifically how are they active daily and how they tolerate activity
  • need to know their reserve
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4
Q

what does the cardiac cath report provide?

A
  • hemodynamic information: CO, CI, SVR, PVR, intracardiac shunts (right heart), degree of coronary stenosis, EF, myocardial wall motion abnormalities, LVEDP
  • EF of 40% or greater have best outcomes
  • desirable: low filling pressures and good EF (wedge less than 15)
  • poor: elevated filling pressures, low CO, and low BPs (high risk w/ anesthesia)
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5
Q

what else should be determined in the pre anesthetic assessment outside of cardiac hx?

A
  • airway assessment
  • aspiration risk
  • hiatal hernia (relative contraindication to TEE)
  • cerebrovascular disease (Doppler studies for carotid disease; stroke cause of increased morbidity post pump)
  • equal BP in both arms (for placement of art line)
  • aortic and femoral disease (for arterial cannula or intra aortic balloon pump insertion)
  • renal disease
  • HTN
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6
Q

why are most cardiac pts. intubated post op?

A

difficult to allow to wake up w/ high dose opioids and muscle relaxants

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7
Q

why are cardiac pts. usually at a higher risk for aspiration?

A
  • emergency cases (non adequate NPO time)
  • diabetic
  • obese
  • narcotics
  • stress and anxiety
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8
Q

what should be done w/ cardiac pts. for aspiration risk?

A
  • premedicate w/ metoclopramide and H2 antagonist

- RSI w/ induction agent and different muscle relaxant (SCh, Rocuronium)

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9
Q

why is renal function a concern w/ cardiac anesthesia?

A
  • insufficiency: dye, decrease perfusion, vasopressors
  • acetyl cysteine can help w/ reaction to dye
  • ESRD: anemia, dialysis site care, platelet dysfunction, hypovolemia, fluid overload post-op, hyperkalemia
  • usu. dialyze prior to surgery so hypovolemic
  • may have to pace post-op until dialysis is done since may remain asystole d/t hyperkalemia
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10
Q

how does HTN affect anesthesia?

A
  • alters autoregulation (normal 50-150 mm Hg)
  • may be elevated (shifted right) d/t higher pressures to perfuse the coronaries, cerebral circulation (may need to run BP higher)
  • if hypertrophic ventricle, needs the atrial kick (harder to empty and harder to open and allow filling)
  • if rhythm other than sinus, will have a decrease in pressure (no atrial kick)
  • expect HTN post-pump
  • vasodilator to keep pressure down and decrease post-op bleeding
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11
Q

describe abnormalities in myocardial wall movement

A
  • hypokinetic: region contracts during systole, but w/ less force than neighboring regions (ischemic wall motion)
  • akinetic: region doesn’t contract during systole (infarcted myocardium)
  • dyskinetic: region bulges outward during systole, thus moving in the opposite of surrounding regions (severely ischemic [necrotic] or aneurysmic)
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12
Q

what information can coronary angiography provide?

A
  • severity of blockage of each coronary artery
  • collateral blood flow (younger/healthier pts. don’t have)
  • right or left dominant
  • right: RCA continues to posterior wall as a posterior descending coronary artery; AV node also (85%)- blockage causes dysrhythmias
  • left: circumflex continues to posterior wall as posterior descending coronary artery (8%)
  • left main: branches into left anterior descending and left circumflex (most of left ventricular wall)
  • blockage results in significant ventricular dysfunction- widow maker
  • left main equivalent
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13
Q

describe the hemodynamic subsets of acute myocardial infarction

A
  • Class I: no pulmonary congestion or systemic hypoperfusion (CI more than 2.2; PCWP less than 18)
  • mortality 3%
  • Class II: pulmonary congestion only (CI more than 2.2; PCWP more than 18) *mortality 9%
  • Class III: reduced perfusion only (CI less than 2.2, PCWP less than 18) *mortality 23%
  • Class IV: both pulmonary edema and hypoperfusion (shock) (CI less than 2.2; PCWP more than 18)
  • mortality 51%
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14
Q

what is considered when controlling myocardial oxygen demand?

A
  • myocardial wall tension
  • heart rate
  • blood pressure
  • goal: prevent excessive myocardial oxygen demand
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15
Q

what can done to avoid increased myocardial oxygen demand?

A
  • avoid inotropes pre-op (increases O2 consumption)
  • transfuse pre-op for anemia (improve O2 carrying capacity)
  • beta blockers (decrease HR w/o too much drop in BP)
  • not beneficial for low risk pts.
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16
Q

what can be done to optimize myocardial oxygen supply?

A
  • must maintain arterial pressure (coronary autoregulation 50-120 w/ disease; maximized to maintain resting flow to myocardium)
  • must avoid tachycardia (coronary perfusion during diastole which is shortened)
  • coronary perfusion pressure is improved by raising diastolic arterial BP and decreasing LVEDP
  • CPP equals DBP-LVEDP
  • pressure distal to the stenosis minus LVEDP
  • Hgb: correct anemia
  • high concentrations of O2 inspired (keep well oxygenated, even while awake place on NC)
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17
Q

what are normal physiologic parameters of determinants of myocardium supply and demand?

A
  • coronary blood flow: 225-250 ml/min or 4-7% or CO
  • myocardial O2 consumption: 65-70% extraction or 8-10 ml O2/100 gm per min
  • normal autoregulation: 50-120 mmHg (MAP)
  • coronary filling: 80-90% during diastole
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18
Q

what are goals of anesthetic for cardiac?

A
  • producing analgesia, amnesia, and muscle relaxation
  • abolishing autonomic reflexes
  • maintaining physiologic homeostasis
  • providing myocardial and cerebral protection
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19
Q

what is needed for the physical set-up for cardiac surgery?

A
  • large ETT (f: 7.5-8.0; m: 8.5-9.0)
  • nasal cannula
  • NS 500 on microdrip extra port of PA cath
  • one or two large gauge IVs (14-16g)
  • PA catheter and CO monitor
  • art line
  • pharmacologic agents
  • atrial-ventricular sequential pacer
  • gel pads for arms and heels and gel donut for headrest
  • esophageal stethoscope (monitor temp)
  • BIS or cerebral oximetry monitor
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20
Q

what fluids should be hung during set-up for cardiac surgery?

A
  • 1 L LR or plasmalyte-A
  • 1 L NS on blood set through warmer
  • *avoid dextrose d/t neurologic problems
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21
Q

what pharmacologic agents should you get during set up?

A
  • infusions: NTG, epinephrine, phenylephrine, nitroprusside, dopamine
  • opioid (fentanyl, sufentanil)
  • benzo (versed; some use lorazepam on younger pts. or pre op and versed intra op)
  • lidocaine 2% (2, 1 on induction and 1 when re-warming)
  • muscle relaxant (pavulon, rocuronium, SCh)
  • heparin 1000u/ml- 30 ml
  • ancef (1 g for less than 80 kg; 2g over 80 kg)
  • calcium chloride
  • atropine
  • ephedrine
  • protamine (NEVER draw up before giving)
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22
Q

why is positioning so important w/ cardiac surgery?

A

cardiac surgery on pump causes NON PULSATILE flow

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23
Q

describe premedication for cardiac surgery

A
  • midazolam 1-5 mg IV in OR or Ativan 1 mg po (best amnestic)
  • morphine 0.1 mg/kg (decreases pre-load) and scopolamine 0.2-0.4 mg IM (IV) on call (good amnestic w/o hemodynamic effects)
  • sorbitrate 5 mg PO on call (nitrate to dilate coronary arteries, decrease preload; also effects venous so beneficial w/ saphenous vein harvest)
  • goals: want to avoid tachycardia and HTN during insertion of invasive lines and PIV so minimize anxiety 1st
  • individualized based on pt.
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24
Q

describe pt. prep in the OR for cardiac surgery

A
  • nasal O2 2-3 L/min
  • start L arm PIV (14-16g; atleast 18g) *anticipate transfusion
  • start R arm radial arterial line (18 g)
  • insert IJ cordis introducer
  • insert PA cath and connect to cardiac output monitor
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25
Q

what monitoring is including w/ cardiac surgery?

A
  • electrocardiography
  • arterial blood pressure
  • PA catheters
  • TEE
  • Urinary output
  • computer-process EEG (BIS)
  • cerebral oximetry
  • esophageal temperature
  • surgical field
  • peripheral nerve stimulator (check adequate muscle relaxation)
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26
Q

what should be monitored w/ PA cath?

A
  • CVP for all
  • PA cath if compromised ventricular function (EF less 40-50%)
  • routinely pull back 2-3 cm during bypass to avoid incidental wedging of cath (heart emptied, distance shorter)
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27
Q

what is closely monitored on the ECG?

A
  • II and V5 or site of MI
  • rhythm
  • rate
  • changes in ST segments
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28
Q

what should be remembered when monitoring the arterial BP?

A
  • radial site effected by sternal retraction and brachial artery cutdown form cath
  • have automated BP cuff in place on r. arm to compare measurements
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29
Q

what is TEE useful for during monitoring?

A

-best detection of myocardial ischemia looking at wall motion abnormalities
assesses:
-ventricular function
-valvular function
-residual air
-other structures: ascending aorta, coronary sinus

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30
Q

what should be monitored w/ urine output?

A
  • hourly output
  • bladder temperature
  • watch for hemolysis
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31
Q

why is BIS monitoring important for cardiac surgery?

A
  • major concern for awareness since mostly narcotic anesthesia is used
  • no inhalation agent unless perfusionist has own vaporizer on bypass machine
  • if circulatory arrest, ensure complete silence
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32
Q

what should be closely watched in the surgical field?

A
  • lung expansion
  • ventricular function, rhythm, volume
  • blood loss
  • watch and anticipate surgical steps
  • esp. important when preparing to come off pump
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33
Q

describe the purpose of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB)

A

allows the heart to rest (quiet field) by serving as the lungs and pump for the body
*decreased metabolic needs w/ heart at rest and also via cooling

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34
Q

describe the path of the cardiopulmonary bypass

A
  • removes blood via venous return form r. atrium (SVC/IVC) by gravity to the venous reservoir
  • blood then moved by mechanical pump (roller or centrifugal)
  • creates non-pulsatile flow
  • blood goes to the oxygenator where O2 is added and CO2 is eliminated
  • blood enter the heat exchanger where it is either cooled or warmed (by conduction w/ water flowing through)
  • blood goes through an arterial filter to clean out thrombi, tissue debris, fat, and calcium
  • blood pumped back through the arterial cannula into ascending aorta (most common)
  • blood from suction and from l. ventricular vent are directed to the venous reservoir also
  • while on bypass, arterial pressure is below normal and blood flow is non-pulsatile
35
Q

how is the CPB circuit primed?

A

w/ more than 2000 ml of crystalloid which causes 30-50% hemodilution of pt.’s blood
*counteracts the viscosity caused by cooling

36
Q

what is utilized to protect organs from damage during CPB?

A

systemic hypothermia (20-32 degrees C)

37
Q

how does systemic hypothermia protect organs from damage during CPB?

A
  • systemic oxygen demand decreases 9% for every degree of temp drop
  • hemodilution counteracts the 5% increase in blood viscosity for every 1 degree C decrease in core temp
38
Q

what are used to protect the myocardium during CPB?

A
  • cardioplegia caused arrest
  • hypothermia
  • decompression of the ventricles
39
Q

what is cardioplegia and its purpose?

A
  • crystalloid solution w/ high potassium

- used to cause rapid cardiac arrest to reduce consumption of energy

40
Q

how should cardioplegia be administered?

A
  • can be either cold or normothermic

- can be delivered either antegrade via the aorta before the cross clamp or retrograde via the coronary sinus

41
Q

what is the purpose of administering heparin prior to going on CPB?

A

prevent activation of the coagulation cascade when the blood leaves the body and contacts the plastic tubing and components

42
Q

how much heparin should the pt. going on CPB be anticoagulated with?

A

300 units/kg of heparin

43
Q

what is the MOA of heparin?

A

binds with antithrombin III and potentiates its anticoagulant effect

44
Q

what route should the heparin be delivered?

A
  • CVL

* after withdrawing blood to verify placement

45
Q

what is checked to verify the effect of heparin prior to CPB?

A
  • activated clotting time (ACT)

- measured 3 min. after (exactly 3 min. so record down to the second the heparin was pushed!)

46
Q

at what value should ACT be maintained during CPB?

A

300-500 (approx. 450) seconds

47
Q

if the patient is resistant to the effect of heparin (suspected by no prolongation in ACT) what should be done?

A

administer FFP, which contains antithrombin III for the heparin to activate

48
Q

what hemodynamic change is seen when heparin is administered?

A
  • decrease in arterial BP as much as 10-20%
  • if drop is too much for pt. to handle (weak heart, BP already decreased d/t induction agents) may need phenylephrine (alpha)
  • no ephedrine since it acts on alpha AND beta which will increase HR and contractility
49
Q

describe inhalational anesthetic technique for CPB

A
  • IV induction w/ thiopental, propofol, opioids, etomidate, ketamine, or midazolam
  • muscle relaxant and volatile agent added
  • advantage: can change anesthetic concentration rapidly
  • disadvantage: dose-dependent direct cardiac depression, vasodilation
  • *avoid N20 d/t expansion of air bubbles
  • still uses significant doses of opioids
50
Q

describe disadvantage of high-dose opioid anesthesia technique for CPB

A
  • awareness
  • prolonged respiratory depression
  • HTN to stimulus uncontrolled
  • can cause bradycardia and muscle rigidity
  • Pavulon can be used to offset bradycardia
  • add benzo and/or volatile agent to address awareness concerns and HTN
  • be careful of synergistic effect of fentanyl and versed on hemodynamics
51
Q

what doses are seen w/ high dose opioid anesthesia?

A

Fentanyl

  • 15-40 mcg/kg for induction and intubation
  • 3-5 mcg/kg boluses to maintain or continuous infusion of 0.3-1 mcg/kg/hr
  • total fentanyl given 50-100 mcg/kg
52
Q

which anesthetic technique is commonly seen with CPB?

A

a combination of both

  • moderate fentanyl, midazolam w/ volatile
  • advantage: amnesia, normotensive w/ capability to adjust anesthetic level, moderately quick extubation
53
Q

describe use of ketamine and midazolam

A
  • ketamine 1-2 mg/kg w/ versed 0.05-0.1 mg/kg at induction
  • infusion of ketamine 1.4 mg/kg/hr
  • advantages
  • pts. w/ poor ventricular function
  • allows stable hemodynamics
  • maintains SVR, HR
  • amnesia
  • minimal respiratory depression post-op
54
Q

what agent is best for fast tracking?

A

propofol infusion

55
Q

what is happening during the pre-bypass period?

A
  • induction/intubation
  • pre/drape (hypotension, no stimuli)
  • sternotomy (tachycardia and HTN)
  • retraction
  • opening of myocardium (vagal)
  • anticoagulation (hypotension)
  • cannulation
56
Q

what is a major concern during sternotomy?

A
  • deflate lungs since expands in front of heart when inflated
  • turn off vent and disconnect circuit form machine
  • be prepared to give heparin if “redo” pt. has damage to heart d/t scarring
  • heart may be stuck to back of chest and if surgeon gashes heart will have to crash on pump STAT!
57
Q

what are concerns during retraction?

A
  • radial arterial line BP reading may be inaccurate d/t pressure on brachial artery
  • head displacement from support by lifting w/ retraction; be sure to put extra padding under to allow head to rest
  • ventilation of lungs: want to either decrease Vt/ increase RR or hand bag so lungs don’t inflate into surgeon’s view
  • bradycardia and hypotension d/t decreased venous return
58
Q

what may occur d/t opening of the pericardium?

A

vagal stimulation: bradycardia and hypotension

59
Q

what are concerns w/ cannulation?

A
  • aortic: need to reduce arterial SBP 90-100 mmHg
  • can be used to infuse crystalloid rapidly
  • right atrium: hypotension, arrhythmias (change in P waves) common
60
Q

what are the most common times of intra-op ischemia?

A
  • *induction: pressure is lower and myocardium not perfused as well
  • intubation (SNS stimulation)
  • incision (SNS stimulation)
  • sternotomy (SNS stimulation)
  • *cannulation: pressure is lower
61
Q

what is observed while going on CPB?

A
  • ACT confirmed
  • good flow via venous and arterial cannulas
  • no air in circuit
  • mean arterial pressure: 30-40 mmHg initially (out of our control; d/t hemodilution, decreased SVR, decreased viscosity)
  • will no longer have a SBP or DBP d/t non-pulsatile flow
62
Q

what is a concern d/t hemodilution?

A

need for more drugs

  • administer additional narcotics, amnestic, and muscle relaxant
  • doesn’t matter what twitches are; its the beginning just re dose
63
Q

on CPB what determines the MAP?

A

pump flow x SVR

  • if constant SVR, MAP proportional to pump flow
  • if constant pump flow, MAP proportional to SVR
64
Q

what are the goals the perfusionist tries to maintain w/ pump flow and MAP?

A
  • flows 2-2.5 L/min/m2 (like cardiac index)

- MAP 50-80 mmHg

65
Q

what helps achieve myocardial protection to minimize ischemia?

A
  • cardioplegia: cross-clamp aorta
  • hypothermia: mild 33-35 C, moderate 26-32 C, deep 20-25 C (most use approx. 32)
  • topical cooling w/ icy saline flush (helps cool external of myocardium)
  • left ventricular venting
66
Q

how is cerebral protection achieved during CPB?

A
  • hypothermia (34-36 C) reduces cerebral metabolism to allow low perfusion state and even ischemia
  • thiopental to completely suppress EEG activity decreases incidence of neurologic deficits
  • alpha stat or pH stat ABG management
  • *strokes, brain damage are issues
67
Q

describe implications during the rewarming phase of CPB

A
  • near completion of procedure
  • *limited to 1 degree C per 3-5 min to avoid gas bubble formation (usu. 30-40 min.)
  • removes protective effect of hypothermia (consider administration of additional opioid, benzo, and relaxant based on twitch)
  • *likely see drop in SVR d/t peripheral vasodilation and wash out of metabolic waste products (phenylephrine)
  • potential for arrhythmias as electrical activity begins to return (surgeon may want you to give lidocaine)
  • metabolic needs increase, so perfusionist must increase pump flow to 2.6-3.0 L/min/m2
  • *sweating normal response to elevated skin temp (NOT sign of light anesthesia)
68
Q

how should you prepare for separation from the CPB?

A
  • evacuate air from the heart, bypass grafts, and pulmonary vessels
  • TEE useful in identifying
  • surgeon may ask to give big breaths to ensure no air in pulmonary vessels
69
Q

what are concerns w/ cross clamp removal?

A
  • cross-clamp is removed to allow myocardium to be perfused and re establish cardiac rhythm
  • lidocaine 100-200 mg given just prior to removal of clamp
  • if heart fibrillates during rewarming, defibrillation w/ internal paddles will be necessary (5-10 joules since directly on myocardium)
  • rhythm needs to be atrial and ventricular sequential w/ rate 80-100
70
Q

what usually causes persistent asystole?

A
  • hyperkalemia r/t the cardioplegia
  • requires AV pacing until potassium metabolized or dialysis
  • potassium usu. returns to normal w/o treatment
71
Q

what is the checklist for weaning from CPB pump?

A
  • adequate systemic rewarming
  • check acid-base balance, hct, platelet count, electrolytes
  • recalibrate all transducers
  • adequate cardiac rhythm and rate
  • check EKG for ischemia
  • remove all air from chambers, grafts, aorta
  • initiate ventilation of lungs
72
Q

what happens during partial occlusion or partial bypass?

A
  • venous return to the pump is partially restricted allowing blood to enter the RA
  • the ventricular ejection begins as assessment of cardiac function occurs
  • optimally, PA pressures will be normal w/ good systemic pressure
  • if PA pressures rise w/ poor arterial pressure, inotropes and/or vasodilators maybe needed (start at this time)
73
Q

what are causes of hypotension and what clinical signs might be seen w/ each cause?

A
  • hypovolemia: low art, PCWP, PAP, CVP, CO
  • need volume
  • vasodilation: low art, low SVR, normal PCWP/PAP/CVP, high CO
  • phenylephrine or levophed
  • LV failure: low art, high PCWP/PAP/SVR, normal CVP, low CO
  • inotrope to increase contractility (epi), IABP, LVAD
  • pulm. vasoconstriction: low art/PCWP, high PAP/CVP, low CO
  • RV failure: low art, PCWP/PAP, high CVP, low CO
  • pulm. dilator, RVAD
74
Q

describe coming off pump

A
  • if cardiac function during partial pump phase is adequate, the VR is completely occluded
  • looking at CO and filling pressures, the perfusionist will transfuse the pt. via the aortic cannula
  • reverse trendelenburg allows transfusion w/o overfilling the heart
  • cannulas are removed and anticoagulation is reversed w/ protamine
75
Q

what is the MOA of protamine?

A

protein that binds w/ heparin to deactivate it by forming an inert salt

76
Q

what is the dose of protamine?

A

1-1.3 mg per 100 U of heparin

77
Q

what are CV effects of protamine?

A
  • hypotension: histamine release, tachycardia
  • give over 5 minutes
  • give peripherally to dilute complex that causes histamine release in the lungs
  • dilute out
  • pulmonary HTN: thromboxane release causing pulm. vasoconstriction, pulm. HTN, and bronchoconstriction
  • allergic reaction: protamine-containing insulin (NPH); allergic to fish
  • pretreat w/ histamine blockers and steroid
78
Q

what are risk factors for systemic vasodilation and/or pulmonary HTN reactions to protamine?

A
  • valvular heart disease
  • preexisting pulmonary HTN
  • infusion rate greater than 5 mg/min
  • site of administration (give PIV)
  • diabetic w/ exposure to protamine-containing insulin (NPH)
  • myth: previous vasectomy
79
Q

what are possible complications during the post pump and post-op period?

A
  • bleeding can be multifactorial: suture lines, thrombocytopenia, decreased clotting factors, re-heparinization, platelet dysfunction
  • HTN: systolic arterial pressures are maintained 90-110
  • Transportation: O2, monitoring capability, ambu bag, airway equipment, emergency drugs, infusion of vasopressors
80
Q

what is the goal of fast tracking?

A

extubate early: 1-4 hrs. post-op

81
Q

what is the risk of fast tracking?

A

may have greater myocardial ischemia in early post-op period

82
Q

what is the strict criteria for fast tracking?

A
  • normal ventricular and valvular function
  • under 70 y/o
  • uncomplicated surgery (not valvular)
  • no disorders early post-op
83
Q

what is the ideal agent that allows fast tracking?

A

propofol

  • can be infused throughout surgery, yet allow rapid recovery
  • advantage: allows early mobilization and ultimately discharge home, saving money