Cardiac Flashcards

1
Q

the flow of blood through arteries and capillaries delivering nutrients and oxygen to cells

A

perfusion

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2
Q

depolarization spreads cell-cell (P wave) followed by contraction

A

atrial systole

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3
Q

_____: heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body

A

heart failure

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4
Q

what are three things that heart failure can result in

A
  • volume overload
  • inadequate tissue perfusion
  • poor exercise tolerance
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5
Q

left sided heart failure clinical manifestations

A
  • respiratory symptoms -
  • dyspnea
  • orthopnea
  • pallor
  • tachycardia
  • cough
  • crackles
  • wheezing
  • renal failure
  • decreased loc
  • s3, s4
  • fear
  • hypoxia
  • fatigue
  • blood tinged sputum
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6
Q

right sided heart failure clinical manifestations

A
  • peripheral, non-respiratory
  • venous congestion
  • hepatpmegaly
  • cirrhosis
  • dependent edema
  • anasarca
  • fear
  • elevated liver enzymes
  • RUQ pain
  • jugular vein distension
  • venous insufficiency
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7
Q

name some diagnostic tests for heart failure

A
  • chest x-ray
  • echocardiogram (ECG)
  • radionuclide imaging
  • BNP (peptide released with excessive atrial/ventricular stretch)
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8
Q

____ is a medication that is orally given to heart failure patients to help increase the strength of contractions

A

digoxin

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9
Q

when giving loop diuretics (lasix) what should be monitored

A

potassium and blood pressure (bp can drop when losing fluid)

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10
Q

IV inotropic drugs can enhance ___ ___

A

stroke volume

(dopamine)

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11
Q

digoxin increases what

A

contractility and cardiac output

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12
Q

digoxin is ____ inotrope and ____ chronotrope

A

positive; negative

(increases force of contraction and decreases heart rate)

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13
Q

symptoms of digoxin overdose

A

N/V/D,anorexia, palpitations, heart block, visual changes, lethargy, ataxia

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14
Q

name three heart failure medications

A

digoxin, diuretics, antihypertensives

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14
Q

name the types of antihypertensives

A
  • beta blockers: -olol
  • ACE inhibitors: -prils
  • angiotensin II receptor blockers: -sartan
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14
Q

heart valve disorders

A
  • regurgitation/ incompetency, stenosis
  • infective endocarditis (infection in the heart valves)
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15
Q

diagnostic tests for valve disorders

A
  • endocardiography
  • chest x-ray
  • ECG
  • cardiac catheterization
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16
Q

what are the types of valve replacement

A
  • tissue, mechanical
  • bovine, porcine
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17
Q

____ valves will require lifetime anticoagulation with coumadin but are less likely to fail, younger population

A

mechanial

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18
Q

____ valves don’t require anticoagulation, more likely to leak after a few years, older population

(can’t be on blood thinners bc there are too many risks)

A

tissue

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19
Q

inflammation of the parietal and visceral pericardium

A

pericarditis

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20
Q

acute pericarditis is usually _____

A

viral

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21
Q

normal pericardial fluid is 50 cc, in pericarditis you have _______

A

100-3000 cc

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22
Q

objective symptoms of pericarditis

A

pericardial friction rub, fever, elevated ESR, elevated WBC, cardiac enzymes normal or elevated

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23
Q

subjective symptoms of pericarditis

A

mimics MI pain, malaise, joint pain, N/V

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24
Q

interventions for pericarditis

A

sitting up to relieve pain, rest, NSAIDS

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25
Q

diagnostic tests for pericarditis

A

echocardiogram (transthoracic)

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26
Q

cardiac tamponade compresses the heart, causing what

A

hypotension, decreased cardiac output

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26
Q

______: blood/fluid accumulation in the pericardium

A

cardiac tamponade

27
Q

____: a decrease in systolic pressure by 10 mmHg with inspiration

A

pulsus paradoxis

28
Q

immediate intervention for cardiac tamponade

A

pericardiocentesis

29
Q

_____ cardiomyopathy is the most common type

A

dilated
- involves dilation of both sides of heart, muscle fibers deteriorate and are replaced by fibrotic tissue

30
Q

cardiomyopathy causes poor _____ and ____

A

contractibility and blood pooling

31
Q

causes of cardiomyopathy

A

alcohol, toxins, pregnancy, connective tissue disorders, genetics

32
Q

______: a range of conditions associated with sudden reduced blood flow to the heart

A

acute coronary syndrome

33
Q

name two types of acute coronary syndrome

A
  • unstable angina
  • myocardial infarction
34
Q

clinical manifestations of unstable angina

A
  • new in onset
  • occurs at rest
  • increase in frequency, duration, or with less effort
  • pain lasting > 10 minutes
  • needs immediate treatment
  • symptoms in women are often under-recognized
35
Q

clinical manifestations of myocardial infarction

A
  • Severe chest pain not relieved by rest, position change, or nitrate administration (heaviness, pressure, tightness, burning, constriction, crushing;
    Substernal or epigastric;
    May radiate to neck, lower jaw, arms, back)
  • Often occurs in early morning
  • Atypical in women, elderly
  • No pain if cardiac neuropathy (diabetes)
  • Diaphoresis (sweating)
36
Q

most common complication of MI

A

dysrhythmias

  • can be caused by ischemia, electrolyte imbalance, SNS stimulation
37
Q

_____ occurs when pumping power of heart has diminished

A

heart failure

38
Q

name four complications of MI

A

dysrhythmias, heart failure, cardiogenic shock, acute pericarditis

39
Q

diagnostic studies of MI

A
  • detailed health history
  • 12 lead ECG
  • cardiac enzymes
  • coronary angiography
  • pharmacologic stress testing
39
Q

initial interventions for ACS

A

M - morphine
O - oxygen (keep O2 sat > 93%)
N - nitroglycerin
A - aspirin

(ECG, upright position, IV access, statin)

40
Q

thrombolytic therapy is only for patients with a ______

41
Q

______: coronary surgical revascularization

A

coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

42
Q

nursing care for CABG

A
  • assess for bleeding
  • assess fluid status
  • replace blood and electrolytes
  • *monitor for AFib
  • pulmonary hygiene (encourage coughing and deep breathing)
43
Q

sudden cardiac death

A
  • no warning signs or symptoms if no MI
  • prodromal symptoms if associated with MI (chest pain, palpitations, dyspnea; death usually in 1 hr)
44
Q

pacemaker of the heart, inherent rate 60-100 bpm

45
Q

responsible for delaying impulses from the atria, inherent rate 40-60 bpm - junctional rhythm

A

AV junction

46
Q

___: impulse leaves AV junction, travels to bundle of His and divides into R bundle and L bundle, inherent rate <40

A

ventricles

47
Q

the phase of readiness - the muscle is relaxed and the cardiac cells are ready to receive an electrical impulse

A

polarization

48
Q

the phase of contraction - the cardiac cells have transmitted an impulse, causing the cardiac muscle to contract

A

depolarization

49
Q

PR interval

A

the time of transmission of the electrical impulse through AV node, through bundle of his

49
Q

the recovery phase - the muscle has contracted and the cells are returning to a ready state

A

repolarization

50
Q

on an EKG paper how many squares = 3 seconds

A

15 large squares (30 = 6 seconds)

51
Q

p wave

A

depolarization of the atria

(upward deflection before the QRS complex)

52
Q

QRS complex

A

ventricular depolarization

(electrical impulse has traveled through the ventricles)

52
Q

ST segment

A

beginning of ventricular repolarization (relaxation)

(end of s wave to beginning of t wave)

53
Q

T wave

A

completion of ventricular repolarization

54
Q

atrial rate is determined by the number of ____ seen in one minute

54
Q

ventricular rate is determined by the number of _____ seen in one minute

55
Q

characteristics of NS rhythm

A
  • SA node initiates all the electrical impulses that travel through the heart
  • Upright P wave precedes every QRS complex
  • All PR intervals range from 0.12 - 0.20
  • QRS is less than 0.12
  • All P waves look alike
  • all QRS complexes are the same shape & size
  • Rate is 60-100 beats per minute
55
Q

how to calculate by a 6-second rhythm strip

A

count the number of R waves in a 6-second rhythm strip and multiply by 10

56
Q

sinus rhythms = _____ initiated

57
Q

what is the only rhythm that is considered normal

A

normal sinus rhythm

58
Q

name the four artial rhythms

A
  • atrial premature contraction
  • atrial tachycardia
  • atrial flutter
  • atrial fibrillation
59
Q

name the ventricular rhythms

A
  • Ventricular Premature Beat
  • Ventricular Tachycardia
  • Ventricular Fibrillation
  • Asystole
  • Agonal Rhythm
  • Electrical Mechanical Dissociation
60
Q

When SA node, atria, and AV junction fail to initiate an electrical impulse, the _____ become the pacemaker of the heart

A

ventricles

61
Q

Because impulse occurs in lower portion of heart, the impulse travels _____ to depolarize the atria and _____ to depolarize ventricles

A

retrograde (backward); forward

62
Q

characteristics of ventricular dysrhythmias

A
  • Since atria depolarize at about the same time as ventricles, P wave is usually hidden in the QRS and will not be seen
  • The QRS complex is wide, bizarre, and > 0.12 seconds
  • Rate- 20-40 bpm
63
Q

When a ____ stimulus is delivered to the heart, a pacemaker spike will be seen on the EKG (ECG) strip followed by a P-wave (atrial pacing) or a QRS complex (ventricular pacing)