CAR's Flashcards

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0
Q

Transponder Codes

A

7500 = Hijack
7600 = Com Failure
7700 = Emergency

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1
Q

IFR Terrain Clearance in mountainous regions.

A

Regions 1 and 5 = 2000 feet above highest obstacle within 5 NM.

Regions 2,3 and 4 = 1500 feet above highest obstacle within 5NM

Elsewhere in Canada = 1000 feet above highest obstacle within 5 NM

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2
Q

Speed limits

A

Below 3,000 feet and within 10NM of a control zone = 200 Kts IAS

Below 10,000 feet and inbound for landing = 250 Kts IAS

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3
Q

Holding Speeds

A

At or below 6000 feet - 200 KIAS

Above 6000 feet up to and including 14000 feet - 230 KIAS

Above 14000 feet - 265 KIAS

Shuttle climbs (all altitudes) - 310 KIAS (subject to CAR 602.32)

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4
Q

On reserve

A

• Must be given 8 hours of prone rest a day.
• Must be given 24 hours notice of when the rest period will begin.
• Cannot change the time the rest period falls by more than three hours each change.
Cannot change the rest period by more than 8 hrs in seven consecutive days.

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5
Q

Fuel requirements VFR

A

Day - Fly to destination and fly for 30 minutes

Night - fly to destination and fly for 45 minutes

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6
Q

Obstacle clearance VFR

A

Built up areas: 1,000 feet vertical clearance over any obstacle within 2,000 feet horizontally.

Other areas: 500 feet vertically over any obstacle within 500 feet horizontally.

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7
Q

Alternates served with a GFA

A

May qualify as an alternate provided the forecast weather contains:
• No cloud lower than 1,000 feet above the HAT
• No cumulonimbus clouds
• Vis not less than three miles

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8
Q

Alternate aerodromes served with a TAF

A

• 2 or more precision approaches

400 foot ceiling and 1 mile Vis or
200 feet above DH and 1/2 mile above advisory Vis.

• 1 precision approach

600 foot ceiling and 2 miles Vis or
300 feet above DH and 1 mile above advisory Vis.

• Non precision approach

800 foot ceiling and 2 miles or
300 feet above MDA and 1 mile above advisory Vis.

• No IFR Approach

500 feet above the lowest IFR altitude and VFR visibility.

• If the selected alternate meets standard minima (600-2 or 800-2) than you can use sliding minima, with every 100 ft in ceiling above standard the Vis can come down 1/2 mile to a limit of 1 mile.

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9
Q

Errors in the GPS database

A

Considered an error if more than 0.01 of a minute out.

Errors to be reported to maintenance

Errors up to 0.05 minutes are useable

Errors of 0.06 or greater must not be used

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10
Q

On a 1/2 departure what things ensure obstacle clearance?

A

Cross the departure end of the RWY by 35 feet

Climb at 200 feet per NM

No turns below 400 feet AGL

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11
Q

How many feet of obstacle clearance do you have on a circling approach?

A

300 FT

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12
Q

GPS overlay approaches

A

May be used, even when the underlying navigation aid is U/S

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13
Q

How satellites for RAIM

A

5 satellites

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14
Q

Circling Radius

A

A: (up to 90 KTS) - 1.3 NM
B: (91 to 120 KTS) - 1.5 NM
C: (121 to 140 KTS) - 1.7 NM
D: (141 to 165 KTS) - 2.3 NM

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15
Q

How long is an altimeter setting good for?

A

90 minutes

16
Q

An ATPL rated pilot must complete 3 take offs and landing in 90 days.

To fly passengers at night commercially you must complete 5 take offs and landings in in 6 months.

A

.

17
Q

Flight time limitations

A

1000 hrs in 365 days
300 hours in 90 days
112hours in 28 days

Air taxi: 60 hrs in 7 days

Airline or commuter: 40 hrs in 7 days

18
Q

Requirements for time free from duty

A

Air taxi: 13 days off in 90 days or 3 days off in 30 days.

Commuter or Airline: 36 hours off in every 7 days or 3 days off in 17 days.

On call: Same as Airline and Commuter.

19
Q

Use of TEMPO for alternate airport suitability

A

If the main body of the TAF is below alternate minima and the TEMPO is above - the TEMPO period cannot be used.

If the TEMPO period is below alternate minima - the TEMPO period cannot be used.

20
Q

Use of BECMG for alternate aerodrome suitability.

A

• If BECMG period is improving, the conditions must be accounted for at the end of the BECMG period
• If BECMG period is deteriorating the conditions must be accounted for at the beginning of the BECMG period

21
Q

Use of PROB for alternate aerodrome suitability

A

Conditions during a PROB in a TAF must not be below landing minima.

22
Q

Take off alternate

A

Must be within 1 hour single engine cruise speed for 704 operations

Must be within 1 hour two engine cruise speed for 703 operations

The weather must be forecast to be above alternate minima at arrival
Above

23
Q

IFR fuel requirements

A

Non turbo jet aircraft:
Must have enough fuel to fly to destination shoot an approach and a missed approach, then fly to the alternate and land. Then fly for 45 minutes.

If used commercially:
Also allow enough fuel to descend from any cruise point to the lower of the single engine service ceiling or 10,000 feet, whichever is lower, and cruise to your alternate, shoot an approach and miss and hold for 30 min at 1,500 feet AGL

24
Q

Approach Ban… Aircraft cannot proceed pass the FAF unless…

A

• The visibility is 75% of the advisory visibility or greater
• A/C has already passed the FAF when the visibility deteriorated
• on a training flight and intend to miss
• RVR is reported to be fluctuating above and below minimum RVR
• RVR is reported to be at or above minima, regardless of reported ground Vis.
• Ground Vis is above minima

25
Q

Radio calls at an uncontrolled airport when shooting an IFR approach.

A

• 5 minutes before intercepting the initial fix, stating the landing time.
• When passing the fix outbound during a procedure turn, or when the aircraft starts the approach
• When passing the FAF inbound or when a FAF does not exist, three minutes before landing
• On final
• When commencing circling
• In the missed approach or down and clear

26
Q

Radio calls at an uncontrolled airport VFR

A

• 5 minutes before entering the zone stating your landing time
• entering the zone
• (If crossing overhead the field) overhead to join the circuit
• Joining the circuit
• On final
• Down and clear

27
Q

Spec Vis (*)

A

A: 1 SM Vis
B: 1 1/2 SM Vis
C: 2 SM Vis
D: 2 SM Vis

An asterisk * following departure for any runway refers the pilot to specific procedures that must be followed to ensure obstacle clearance.

Where visual climb or maneuvering is stated, the pilots must ensure the required spec Vis is available before departure.

28
Q

Flight crew member on call

A

Must be able to report for duty within one hour

29
Q

Requirements for a Contact Approach.

A

1: IFR
2: clear of cloud
3: 1 nm flight Vis
4: reasonable expectation to continue to the airport under those conditions.
5: may deviate from the instrument approach via visual reference with the earth.
6: the aircraft must be flown 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 NM of the aircraft position, until the required visual reference has been acquired
7: the airport must have a functioning instrument approach

30
Q

Requirements for a Visual approach

A

1: IFR
2: In VMC
3: In controlled airspace
4: reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above min IFR altitude
5: Ground Vis is 3 SM or greater
6: Pilot reports sighting the airport

31
Q

An aerodrome with only a stand alone GPS approach may be used as an alternate aerodrome if…

A

1: published LNAV/VNAV minima are the lowest landing limits when determining alternate minima. You can’t use LPV (Lateral Precision with Vertical guidance)
2: LNAV/VNAV - approach level RAIM or WAAS integrity is available at expected ETA, accounting for satellite outages
3: at least once on route, approach level RAIM is checked for availability
4: If both the arrival and alternate airports have only GNSS approaches available, the airports must 100 NM apart.

Otherwise only traditional functioning Nav-aids may be used at the alternate.

32
Q

Alternates with an aerodrome advisory

A

May qualify as an alternate, provided the forecast weather is no lower that 500 feet above the HAT and visibility not less than three miles.