CAPM Exam Cert Guide Flashcards
1
Q
What is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
A
A project
2
Q
What is a person assigned by an organization to lead a project team and be responsible for achieving the project objectives?
A
A project manager
3
Q
What is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements?
A
Project management
4
Q
What is a way of breaking operations into separately managed modules or tasks, each of which can then be individually sequenced, tracked, and measured to achieve a reliable outcome for a single customer?
A
project-based operations
5
Q
What are related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually (series of related undertakings)?
A
a program
6
Q
What is a collection of projects or programs and other work that are grouped together to facilitate effective management to meet strategic business objectives. (emphasis is building, sustaining, and advancing the organization)?
A
A project portfolio
7
Q
What is the worth, importance, or usefulness of something?
A
value
8
Q
What are the 5 Project Management Process Groups?
A
Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
9
Q
Which process group has processes that are performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase?
A
Initiating
10
Q
Which process group has processes that are required to establish the scope of a project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve?
A
Planning
11
Q
Which process group has processes that are performed to complete the work defined in the project managment plan to satisfy the project requirements
A
Executing
12
Q
Which process group has processes that are required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the appropriate changes?
A
Monitoring and controlling
13
Q
Which process group has processes that are performed to formally complete or close a project, phase, or contract?
A
Closing
14
Q
What are conditions or situations that may impact the project objectives?
A
Issues
15
Q
What are uncertain events or conditions that, if they occur, have a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives?
A
Risks
16
Q
What are facts about a project or its requirements that define special conditions around which the project must be planned or executed?
A
Assumptions
17
Q
What are project boundaries or limits on time, cost, or scope?
A
Constraints
18
Q
What are negative risks called?
A
Threats
19
Q
What are positive risks called?
A
Opportunities
20
Q
What do requirements, discovery, creation, and communication management fall under?
A
Business analysis
21
Q
What is a framework for constantly communicating with stakeholders for a backlog of key requirements that are important to the customer and then quickly demonstrating working features pertaining to those requirements?
A
Adaptive project management
22
Q
What is the process of breaking down a project into smaller steps or stages?
A
Progressive elaboration
23
Q
What is Domain 1 of the 8 Project Performance Domains, which addresses activities and functions associated with stakeholders?
A
Stakeholder Performance Domain
24
Q
What is Domain 2 of the 8 Project Performance Domains, which addresses activities and functions associated with the people who are responsible for producing project deliverables?
A
Team Performance Domain
25
What is Domain 3 of the 8 Project Performance Domains, which addresses activities and functions associated with the development approach, cadence, and life cycle phases of a project?
Development approach and life cycle Performance Domain
26
What is Domain 4 of the 8 Project Performance Domains, which addresses activities and functions associated with the initial, ongoing, and evolving organization and coordination necessary for delivering project deliverables and outcomes?
Planning Performance Domain
27
What is Domain 5 of the 8 Project Performance Domains, which addresses activities and functions associated with establishing project processes, managing physical resources, and fostering a learning environment?
Project work Performance Domain
28
What is Domain 6 of the 8 Project Performance Domains, which addresses activities and functions associated with delivering the scope and quality that a project was undertaken to achieve?
Delivery Performance Domain
29
What is Domain 7 of the 8 Project Performance Domains, which addresses activities and functions associated with assessing project performance and taking appropriate actions to maintain acceptable performance?
Measurement Performance Domain
30
What is Domain 8 of the 8 Project Performance Domains, which addresses activities and functions associated with risk and uncertainty?
Uncertainty Performance Domain
31
What is an individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program, or portfolio?
Project stakeholder
32
What is a method of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project?
Stakeholder analysis
33
Which stakeholder aspect is the extent to which a stakeholder has the ability to affect a project, authorize aspects of the project, or otherwise decide things about the project, whether or not they choose to exert that ability?
Power
34
Which stakeholder aspect is the degree to which a stakeholder's role affects the project's scope, timeline or cost?
Impact
35
Which stakeholder aspect is the type of positive or negative view of the project that the stakeholder tends to display or hold?
Attitude
36
Which stakeholder aspect is the root conviction or approach that a stakeholder tends to apply to the concept, organization, or execution of a project?
Beliefs
37
Which stakeholder aspect is the vision that a stakeholder has about a project, in terms of its outcomes, execution, or approach?
Expectations
38
Which stakeholder aspect is the extent to which a stakeholder can or does choose to use their power to impact a project in some way?
Degree of influence
39
Which stakeholder aspect is the degree to which a stakeholder's role is directly associated with a project's definition or execution?
Proximity to the project
40
Which stakeholder aspect is the degree to which a stakeholder wants to become directly involved or potentially have an impact?
Interest in the project
41
What kind of approaches include push, pull, formal verbal, formal written, informal verbal, and informal written?
Communication approaches
42
What are the three components of the PMI Talent Triangle?
Ways of working, power skills, business acumen
43
Which skill area of the PMI Talent Triangle involves using predictive, agile, or design thinking approaches, or even new new practices that are still being developed, in order to apply the right technique at the right time and deliver winning results?
Ways of working
44
Which skill area of the PMI Talent Triangle involves interpersonal skills including collaborative leadership, communication, an innovative mindset, for-purpose orientation, and empathy?
Power skills
45
Which skill area of the PMI Talent Triangle involves the macro and micro influences in their organization and industry and have the function- or domain-specific knowledge to make good decisions?
Business acumen
46
What skills refer to effectively applying project management knowledge to deliver the desired outcomes for programs or projects?
Ways of working skills
47
What skills involve the ability to see a high-level overview of the organization and effective negotiate and implement decisions and actions that support strategic alignment and innovation?
Business acumen skills
48
What skills are interpersonal skills that enable a project manager to successfully lead a project and ensure that the team is getting tasks done as needed?
Power skills
49
What type of motivation comes from inside the individual or is associated with the work?
Intrinsic motivation
50
What type of motivation is performing work for an external reward, such as a bonus?
Extrinsic motivation
51
What are the two motivational theories referred to in PMBOK?
Maslow's hierarchy of needs and Herzberg's two-factor theory
52
What theory differentiates human needs into five categories (Self-actualization, esteem needs, belongingness and love needs, safety needs, and physiological needs) and is often depicted as a pyramid?
Maslow's hierarchy of needs
53
What theory differentiates needs between motivation and hygiene factors and builds on the proposition that job satisfaction is not a linear function of all satisfied needs but depends on addressing both factors because they are independent of one other?
Herzberg's two-factor theory
54
In Herzberg's two-factor theory, improving what factors, such as recognition, job status, personal growth, helps to increase job satisfaction?
Motivators (satisfiers)
55
In Herzberg's two-factor theory, improving what factors, such as salary, working conditions, and policies, helps to decrease job dissatisfaction?
Hygiene factors (Dissatisfiers)
56
What is the capability to understand and manage not only one's own emotions, but also the emotions of others?
Emotional Intelligence (EI)
57
What are the four key areas of emotional intelligence?
Self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, and social skill
58
What is a decision that comes from one direction only - that is, made by only one person?
Unilateral
59
What are the three distinct ways that organizations typically assign projects?
Functional, matrix (strong or weak), and projectized
60
What is the organization structure where a project is assigned to one of the existing functional divisions of the organization - generally the department with the most expertise, resources, and ability to support implementations of the project?
Functional project organization structures
61
Which organizational structure has these downsides: weak project manager, no direct funding, split loyalty of team members; and these benefits: flexibility, no significant organization changes, and work well for projects that are not too big?
Functional project organization structures
62
What is the organization structure that merges the functional and dedicated project organizational structures to combine their advantages and overcome their disadvantages?
Matrix project organizational structure
63
What is the organization structure where each project is a separate, self-contained unit?
Projectized project organization structure
64
In a ____ structure, the power of a project manager is weak because project team members report directly to the functional manager. The project manager is part-time and has little authority over people and budget.
Functional
65
In a ___ matrix structure, the project manager has more power over project personnel and budget than does the functional manager.
Strong
66
In a _____ structure, the project manager has substantial authority over both personnel and budget.
Projectized
67
Who centralizes and coordinates the management of projects and may provide support functions such as training, standardized policies and tools, and archives of information?
PMO (Project Management Office)
68
The ____ consists of a group of higher-level executives, each of whom has the authority to decide most matters for their own area of control. This group reviews proposed projects, considers the strategies involved in the projects, determines whether the organization will derive appropriate value from any specific project, and decides to what extent the committee can support the proper resourcing and timing of the project.
Steering committee
69
What is another name for a steering committee?
A change control board (CCB)
70
What are the members of the project team who are directly involved in project management activities, such as the project manager and sponsor, called?
Project management team
71
Who are the set of individuals performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives?
Project team
72
What team development model has five stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning/mourning
Tuckman's Model
73
What stage of Tuckman's Model is where the project team first comes together and establishes ground rules for teamwork?
Forming
74
What stage of Tuckman's Model do team members jockey for position and conflict might arise?
Storming
75
What stage of Tuckman's Model do team members start to function as a collective body and know their places on the team and how they relate to and interface with the other members?
Norming
76
What stage of Tuckman's Model does the project team become operationally efficient and develop synergy?
Performing
77
What stage of Tuckman's Model does the project team complete the work and disperse to work on other things?
Adjourning
78
What demonstrates roles and responsibilities in teams, with project tasks that must be done and human resources associated with the project.
Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
79
What is a type of RAM that is a grid that shows project resources and how they are assigned to each task, formalizing how leadership and internal stakeholders are informed?
A RACI diagram
80
What does RACI stand for?
Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed
81
What are the four tenets of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?
Responsibility, Respect, Fairness, and Honesty
82
What is our duty to take ownership for the decisions we make or fail to make, the actions we take or fail to take, and the consequences that result?
Responsibility
83
What is our duty to show a high regard for ourselves, others, and the resources entrusted to us?
Respect
84
What is our duty to make decisions and act impartially and objectively?
Fairness
85
What is our duty to understand the truth and act in a truthful manner both in our communications and in our conduct?
Honesty
86
What is a collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables?
Project phase
87
What is the series of phases that a project passes through, from its start to its completion?
Project life cycle
88
What are these:
1) Aspire
2) Business case analysis
3) Create charter
4) Develop the project management plan
5) Execute the project management plan
6) Finish
Six phases of the project life cycle
89
What takes place as a project progresses from one phase to another, with an increasing amount of detail available as a project moves along, providing opportunities to review whether there is any value in continuing to invest in the project?
Progressive elaboration
90
What is a point for deciding whether a project should be continued or terminated?
Stage gate
91
What type of flow does a project life cycle have?
Linear
92
Project Management Process Groups can ____ at each life cycle phase.
Iterate
93
What is an artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and is either an end item or a component item?
Product
94
What is any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project?
Deliverable
95
What is a method used to create and evolve a product, service, or result during the project life cycle, such as a predictive, adaptive, or hybrid method?
Development approach
96
What approach is also known as waterfall, linear, structured, plan based, stable, or traditional?
Predictive
97
What approach is also known as agile, iterative, incremental, spiral, extreme, or evolutionary?
Adaptive
98
Which development approach involves designing and implementing a project in a life cycle sequenced in distinct phases, from the initial conceptual and feasibility phase to the deployment of the final product or service?
Predictive development approach
99
Which development approach is practical when requirements are subject to a high level of uncertainty and volatility and are likely to change throughout the project?
Adaptive development approach
100
In the following situations, what development approach should you use?
- When there is a significant investment involved and a high level of risk that may require frequent reviews and replanning between development phases
-When the scope, schedule, cost, resource needs, and risks can be well defined in the early phases of the project life cycle and are relatively stable
-When the project team wants to reduce the level of uncertainty early in the project and do much of the planning up front
-When the project work can follow plans that were developed near the start of the project
-When templates from previous similar projects are available
Predictive development approach
101
In the following situations, what development approach should you use?
-When a clear vision of an end state is available at the start of the project but very little is known about the details of the requirements that make up that end state
-When there is flexibility to refine, change, and replace requirements
-When there is an opportunity to receive frequent user and product owner feedback
-When there is uncertainty or when high risks are associated with the project or business environment (the final deliverables have to be right, but all factors may not be fully articulated in advance)
-When an empowered team is given a prioritized backlog of desired deliverables, as well as the freedom to determine what scope is achievable within a given iteration, and the team is permitted to work through the backlog over multiple iterations until the requirements are fully delivered.
Adaptive development approach
102
In the following situations, what development approach should you use?
-When an organization has both an opportunity and a need to leverage the strengths of the adaptive and predictive approaches
-When compliance requirements indicate that certain aspects of the deliverable must be implemented in a very predictable way, but the core nature of the solution may need to be entirely determined through iteration in a simulated environment
-When there is project management maturity in the organization and the project team is familiar with both approaches and can thus fuse together the two approaches to develop a new model for project delivery that is suitable for the organizational needs
hybrid development approach
103
What is a project life cycle that is structured to executive sequentially along a linear path?
Predictive life cycle
104
What is a project life cycle that is iterative or incremental as it provides for proving less understood concepts or requirements over a series of repeated steps?
Adaptive life cycle
105
What is a project life cycle that contains elements of both predictive and adaptive approaches in which each is used to achieve greater overall effectiveness than could be achieved by using either approach alone?
Hybrid life cycle
106
What is a scheduled step in a project plan that has a distinct beginning and end, also known as a task, story, work package, or use case?
activity
107
What are measurable outputs of activities (can be tangible or intangible)?
Project deliverables
108
What is a significant point or event in the project, with a planned completion date during project planning and an actual completion date after successful execution?
Milestone
109
What is a series of activities that you execute to achieve an outcome?
A process
110
What outlines the strategy and tactics to plan and organize a project successfully?
Planning processes
111
What are performed to deliver the work defined in a project plan?
Executing processes
112
What are performed to ensure that a project is on track and will deliver the project requirements to the planned specifications?
Monitoring and controlling processes
113
What are executed to ensure that changes to the plan are made?
Change control processes
114
What are performed to complete a phase or an entire project?
Closing processes
115
What grants authority to the project manager to spend money and assign resources, documents high-level project requirements, and may include a formal preliminary scope statement?
project charter
116
What contains all deliverables that are represented by work packages and is detailed enough to provide meaningful information that can be used for estimation and assignment of resources to each activity?
work breakdown structure (WBS)
117
What lists key project development team members and their assignments in relation to the WBS?
Resource management plan
118
What shows how the project interfaces with other components and with the customer or line organization stakeholders?
Communications management plan
119
What lists risks sorted in order of probability and impact and includes a risk response plan for each?
Risk management plan
120
What describes the policies and procedures for developing scope and changes to scope?
Scope management plan
121
What details the policies and procedures for establishing controls on project costs and measuring variance in actual cost from planned cost and specifies approaches for managing the project within the appropriate cost constraints?
Quality management plan
122
What typically details the requirements for establishing bidding documents, the approaches to publishing the documents according to possible legal requirements, potential bidder qualifications and the opportunity to gain clarification about the requirements, the evaluation of bids, and the awarding and management of contracts?
Procurement management plan
123
What chart shows the extent of project activities across a timeline so that all activities can be viewed in terms of their relationship to all other activities across time?
Gantt chart
124
What is a formal document signed by stakeholders that is referred to when making all project decisions, defining all the products, services and results to be provided?
Scope statement
125
What is a condition or capability that is necessary to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need?
Requirement
126
What table shows how the requirements translate into deliverables and then into approaches to ensure the quality of the deliverables?
Requirements traceability matrix (RTM)
127
What is it called when the scope of a project gradually increases over time without being recognized as a formal project change and without the need to possibly approve changes to the schedule and budget?
Scope creep
128
What represents a specific deliverable and is the smallest unit in the WBS, forming the basis for identifying and estimating the cost and duration of the necessary tasks to complete each work package?
work package
129
What is a numbering system used to precisely identify work packages, usually level 0 or 1?
WBS codes
130
These steps are used to develop a ____:
1) Identify the lowest-level activity
2) Estimate time required for the activity
3) Determine the logical dependencies of each task
Schedule
131
What dependency is the most common, and means that a specific predecessor activity must finish before the succeeding activity will start?
Finish-to-start dependency
132
What dependency indicates that the start of at least one activity depends on the start of another activity?
Start-to-start dependency
133
What dependency indicates that the finish of at least one activity depends on the finish of another activity?
Finish-to-finish dependency
134
What dependency is rarely used in planning, indicating the the start of at least one activity depends on the finish of another activity?
Start-to-finish dependency
135
What is an estimated method that relies on a comparison to similar activities in the past?
Analogous estimation
136
What estimated method is based on using metrics such as cost per square foot that are known from projects in the past and regression models?
Parametric estimation
137
What is a common method of estimating time for individual activities, using two different formulas - the triangular distribution method and the PERT method for estimation?
three point estimation
138
What is the quantity of hours it would probably take for one person to properly accomplish the activity, working alone and with no breaks, from start to finish?
Effort or work time
139
What is the amount of time that passes from the start of the task to the point at which it is complete, taking into account all breaks and all nonwork times?
Elapsed time or duration
140
What is a graphical representation of the activity sequence in a project?
Activity network diagram
141
What is the shortest time in which the project can be completed, determining the total timeline of the project?
Critical path
142
What is the standard approach that determines the actual status of a project at the current time?
Earned value management (EVM)
143
What is the cumulative expected cost of the project over time?
Planned value (PV)
144
What does the PV become at the end of the project?
BAC (Budget at Completion)
145
What is defined as the measure of work performed, expressed in terms of the budget for that work?
Earned value (EV)
146
What does it mean if EV is larger than PV?
More work has been done than planned (more efficiency)
147
What is defined as the cumulative sum of the costs incurred while actually accomplishing a project's work?
Actual cost (AC)
148
What is the difference between the earned value and the actual costs for the work completed to date (EV-AC)?
Cost Variance (CV) = EV-AC
149
What is the difference between the earned value and the planned value for the work completed to date (EV-PV)?
Schedule Variance (SV) = EV-PV
150
What is the ratio of earned value to actual cost, showing how well a project is completing work with satisfactory quality (earned values) in comparison to the rate at which it is expending resources (actual cost)? Calculated as EV/AC
Cost Performance Index (CPI) = EV/AC
151
What is the forecasted cost of the whole project by the time it is complete, calculated by dividing the total original planned value (PV) of a project (BAC) by the CPI?
Estimate at completion (EAC)
152
What is the amount of expense that the project is likely to need from the present point in the timeline to the time when it will be complete? Calculated by EAC-AC
Estimate to complete (ETC)
153
What is a schedule compression method used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources in key activities along the critical path?
Crashing
154
What is a schedule compression method in which some activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration?
Fast tracking
155
What type of dependency cannot usually be modified and is a relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
Mandatory dependency
156
What type of dependency may be modifiable, and is a relationship that is based on best practices or project preferences?
Discretionary dependency
157
What type of dependency usually cannot be modified, and is a relationship between project activities and nonproject activities?
External dependency
158
What type of dependency may be modifiable, and is a relationship between one or more project activities?
Internal dependency
159
What includes contract management by the project manager for any contract that involves the provision of products or services for the project?
Procurement
160
What is the process of documenting project purchasing decisions and specifying the procurement approach?
Plan procurement management
161
What is a mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide specified products and services and obligates the buyer to provide money or other "valuable consideration" in return for those products and services?
Procurement contract
162
What defines what the project must deliver and includes some details about how the performing organization must deliver it?
Statement of work
163
What are the three general categories of procurement contracts?
Fixed-price (FP), cost-plus (cost+), time and materials (T&M)
164
What are used in delivering a well-defined product for a fixed price, and are also known as lump sum contracts? The seller takes the greatest risk.
Fixed-price (FP) contracts
165
What contract is the seller paid for the actual costs incurred plus a fee or margin representing the seller's profit? The buyer takes the greatest risk.
Cost-plus (cost+) contract
166
What are costs that directly apply to the project, such as costs for project salaries, equipment and travel?
Direct costs
167
What are costs that cover occupancy expenses (rent, heat, electric, etc.), benefits, and company administrative costs (payroll)?
Indirect costs
168
What contains features of both fixed-price and cost-plus contracts, where the customer is typically buying services and related materials in the form of a quantity of hours works at a defined rate per hour; the cost of materials, equipment, or software is added on at a certain margin above the typical cost? The buyer takes the greatest risk.
Time and material contract (T&M)
169
What is constituted by developing a procurement contract, a set of specifications (SOW), and a background context for project execution?
Procurement solicitation document (or bid document or procurement document)
170
Organizations that can perform services or that can provide products in a procurement solicitation document return a document known as a ___.
Bid submission
171
What are the three types of solicitation documents?
RFI, RFP, RFQ
172
What asks for the submission of information to help the buyer understand what might be possible as a solution for the requirements?
Request for information
173
What asks the vendor to propose details of the recommended solutions and supply the proposed cost for the products or services?
Request for proposal
174
What specifies the exact requirements in detail and the detailed methods required for the installation or construction?
Request for quotation
175
What is a particular time and place allocated to allow sellers interested in submitting a bid to ask questions and gain clarification?
Bid conference
176
What type of bid conference is on-site to allow sellers to visit the site to understand the full context of the requested work?
Bid walk-through
177
What manages the relationship between the buyer and the seller?
Control procurements process
178
What is a dispute resolution procedure used when formally resolving disagreements about scope or change requests?
Claims management
179
What is a demand for something due or believed to be due?
claim
180
What are these key processes associated with: identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage and monitor stakeholder engagement?
Project stakeholder management
181
What are unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, and leading describing?
the five levels of engagements stakeholders may be at
182
What model includes a sender, a receiver, a message, and a medium?
Communication model
183
What can impede the flow of effective communication, such as filters and barriers?
Communication blocker
184
What are these examples of: differences in language, culture, and terminology?
Communication filters
185
What interrupts project communications?
Communication barriers
186
What is an opportunity for one person to communicate with another?
Communication channel
187
What is the formula L = N x (N-1)/2 used for? L being lines of communication, and N being number of people in the group
Potential communication channels based on the size of the group (lines of communication)
188
What type of communication method is used for project charter, project plans, project reports, and contracts?
Formal written
189
What type of communication method is used for presentations, updates, and briefings?
Formal verbal
190
What type of communication method is used for memos, emails, and notes?
Informal written
191
What type of communication method is used for casual conversations?
Informal verbal
192
What plan presents the what, why, whom, how, and when of project communications?
Communications management plan
193
Threat ____ occurs when the project team acts to eliminate a threat or to protect a project from the impact of a threat.
Threat avoidance
194
__ involves shifting ownership of a threat to another party to manage the risk or to bear the impact if the threat occurs.
Transfer
195
___ involves taking action to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat.
Mitigation
196
___ acknowledges the existence of a threat, but no proactive action is planned.
Acceptance
197
___ is appropriate when the project team or project sponsor agrees that a threat is outside the scope of the project or that the proposed response would exceed the project manager's authority.
Escalation
198
What strategy for dealing with opportunities is this: The project team acts to ensure that all possible value is extracted from the opportunity
Exploit
199
What strategy for dealing with opportunities is this? The project team or project sponsor agrees that an opportunity is outside the scope of the project or that the proposed response would exceed the project manager's authority
Escalate
200
What strategy for dealing with opportunities is this: allocating either a portion or all of the ownership of an opportunity to the party that is best able to capture the benefit of that opportunity
Sharing
201
What strategy for dealing with opportunities is this: The project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity
Enhancement
202
What strategy for dealing with opportunities is this: acknowledges its existence, but no proactive action is planned
Accepting
203
What focuses on meeting all time, cost, scope, and quality expectations to produce the expected deliverables that will drive the intended outcomes?
Project delivery
204
What is the sum of all project-related benefits minus the sum of all project-related costs?
Project value
205
What is the performance level of each deliverable that must be met?
Quality
206
What are the three processes for managing quality?
Plan quality management, manage quality, control quality
207
What is defined as all costs incurred over the life of a product by the investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraisal of the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failure to meet requirements?
Cost of quality (COQ)
208
What costs are incurred to keep defects and failures out of a product?
Prevention costs
209
What costs are incurred to determine the degree of conformance to quality requirements?
Appraisal costs
210
What costs are associated with finding and correcting defects before the customer receives the product?
Internal failure costs
211
What costs are associated with defects found after the customer has the product and with remediation of those defects?
External failure costs
212
What cause-and-effect diagram helps find the root cause of a problem?
fishbone diagram or Ishikawa diagram
213
What histogram displays results from the most frequent to the least frequent attributes to help identify the most critical problem areas of a project?
Pareto chart
214
What data analysis tool that depicts the behavior of a process over time, helping to show whether the process is stable and whether it is delivering acceptable performance?
Control chart
215
What diagram used to manage quality organizes defect causes into different groups?
Affinity diagram
216
What diagram used to manage quality shows a relationship between two variables?
Scatter diagram
217
What diagram used to manage quality graphically helps document a quality process or identify nonconformance?
Flowchart
218
What is a measure of quality or near-perfection for organizations that strive for high standards, apply a data-driven approach, and have a process in place to eliminate defects?
Six Sigma
219
What earned value management measure forecasts the expected total cost of completing all work (Budget at completion BAC divided by CPI)?
EAC Estimate at completion
220
What earned value management measure forecasts the expected cost to finish all the remaining project work? (EAC-AC)
ETC Estimate to complete
221
What measure forecasts the amount of budget deficit or surplus that will remain at the completion of the project? (BAC-EAC)
VAC Variance at completion
222
What involves bringing together into a cohesive whole all the various processes of project management?
Project integration
223
What are these 7 processes for?
1) Develop project charter
2) Develop project management plan
3) Direct and manage project work
4) Manage project knowledge
5) Monitor and control project work
6) Perform integrated change control
7) Close project or phase
Integrating a project
224
What is the third general stage for delivering adaptive projects, ending the project phase or the entire project?
Close stage
225
What is the second general stage for delivering adaptive projects, consisting of structured iterations and delivery of prioritized high-value features from a product backlog?
Construct and deliver stage
226
What is the first general stage for delivering adaptive projects, resulting in a vision statement and a product roadmap?
Concept stage
227
What is developed after a roadmap?
Product backlog
228
What key activities involve the team demonstrating the working product created during the iteration to the stakeholders?
Iteration review
229
What takes plan at the start of each iteration, where the project team reviews the requirements of the upcoming iteration, resulting in a high-level release iteration plan that indicates the basic features and functionality to be included in each iteration?
Iteration planning
230
What is a unitless measure in which the comparison of values is used for relative estimation in sizing and comparing?
Story points
231
What estimates are shown in comparison to other estimates and have meaning only within a given context?
Relative estimates
231
What estimate generates explicit actual quantities?
Absolute estimates
232
What makes a good product backlog?
User stories with vertical layers
233
What focuses on releasing fully functional features in successive increments until the final deliverable is complete?
Incremental development
234
What is a development approach that focuses on an initial, simplified implementation, followed by future progressive elaboration that adds to the features until the final deliverable is complete?
Iterative development
235
What identifies the fewest number of features or requirements that are both functional and usable?
Minimum viable product (MVP)
236
What can features be decomposed into?
User stories
237
What can epics be decomposed into?
Features
238
What are high-level themes?
epics
239
What outlines a product's vision, direction, priorities, and progress over time, enabling you to design and visualize features that will be in the final product?
Product roadmap
240
What are these? Elevator statements, press release vision statements, product vision board or project datasheet
Vision formats
241
What summarizes the project's purpose clearly and succinctly, describing a realistic, attractive view of the future project outcomes?
Project vision
242
What are the conditions not under the immediate control of the team that influence, constrain, or direct the project, program, or portfolio?
Enterprise environmental factors (EEF)
243
What are all the implicit assets used by an organization when managing projects, including templates, business plans, processes, policies, protocols, and knowledge?
Organizational process assets (OPA)
244
What is establishing what work is to be done within a specific time frame?
Timeboxing
245
Obstacle removal, diversion shield, encouragement and development are examples of of what kind of behaviors?
Servant leadership behaviors
246
What is the frequency of producing a deliverable called?
delivery cadence
247
What has these four values:
1) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
2) Working software over comprehensive documents
3) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
4) Responding to change over following a plan
The Agile Manifesto
248
What approach has fixed project time and resources and variable scope?
Adaptive
249
What approach has fixed scope and variable project time and resources?
Predictive
250
What approach has low requirements and uncertainty?
Predictive
251
What approach has high requirements and uncertainty?
Adaptive
252
What does structure, culture, capability, project team size and location fall under?
Organization-based criteria of whether to use the adaptive approach
253
What does stakeholders, schedule constraints, and funding availability fall under?
Project-based criteria of whether to use the adaptive approach
254
What does degree of innovation, delivery options, requirements certainty, scope stability, risk, safety requirements, and regulations fall under?
Result-based criteria of whether to use the adaptive approach
255
What is a system for increasing efficiency in production processes by using techniques such as reducing the lead time within a production system and reducing the response times from suppliers and customers? It emphasizes reducing waste and avoiding the use of resources that do not add value to the customer.
Lean
256
What is the ultimate objective in Lean methodology?
reduce the volume of work in progress (WIP)
257
What are these examples of?
Delay, waiting time, time spent in queue with no value added, production of more than is needed, overprocessing, non-value-adding activities, transportation, unnecessary movement or motion, inventory, defects in a product
Waste
258
What are all the actions taken to deliver a product from the initation phase through product launch?
Value stream
259
What do these 5 steps illustrate?
1) Identify value
2) Study the value stream
3) Investigate waste in the flow
4) Streamline the process for agility
5) Perform continuous improvements
Value streaming (creating value and reducing waste)
260
What is it called when a team works in timeboxes of equal duration to deliver features?
iteration-based agile
261
What is it called when a team pulls features from the backlog based on its capacity to start work, not on an iteration-based schedule?
Flow-based agile
262
What is the most common of the agile approaches, simple in structure and addressing the need for effective team collaboration, with components of roles, events, and artifacts?
Scrum
263
Who are the participants who create software or project outputs in Scrum?
Roles (accountabilities)
264
What are the various actions to be carried out by the roles in Scrum?
Events
265
What are the documents developed by the roles during the execution of a project in Scrum?
Artifacts
266
What framework are these ideas based on: the customer is the product owner, the scrum master coaches the developers and facilitates development, and the developers do a substantial amount of planning, execution, and management of the project?
Agile Scrum framework
267
What are these: developers (development team), product owner, and scrum master?
Scrum accountabilities (roles)
268
What are the 5 scrum core values?
Courage, focus, respect, openness, commitment
269
What is it called when the scrum team determines what requirements will be delivered in the upcoming sprint at the start of each sprint?
Sprint planning sessions
270
What is it called when the scrum team and stakeholders get together with the PO to evaluate the working product?
Sprint review
271
What is it called when the scrum team discusses what worked, what didn't work, and what to improve in the next sprint?
Sprint retrospective
272
What are these: organizational structure, unnecessary work, struggling to transition, turnover?
Disadvantages of scrum
273
What method should you use with these conditions: flexibility, focus on continuous delivery, focus on increased efficiency, team member focus, variability in the workload, and reduction of waste?
Kanban approach
274
What is a visual signaling system used to manage and control the flow of materials or information in a production process?
Kanban approach
275
What is a development approach developed by David Anderson that improves workflow efficiency and managing work in progress?
Kanban method
276
What is the number of task items a team is working on at any given time?
Work in Progress (WIP)
277
What helps maximize the thoroughput of work?
Limiting WIP
278
What can help project teams reduce bottlenecks, improve efficiency, increase quality, and boost overall throughput?
Kanban framework
279
Which approach is this:
Teams are self-managed,
Process improvements made after the sprint retrospective,
Velocity and burndown rates used to assess productivity, teams use iteration-based Agile, and sprints are typically 1-4 weeks in length?
Scrum
280
Which approach is this:
Teams are managed in existing hierarchical structures, changes to the process can be made at any point in time; cycle time, lead time, and WIP are used to assess productivity, teams use flow-based Agile, primary focus is on cycle time and lead time?
Kanban
281
What approach helps scrum teams improve their scale or capability by developing user stories that are then managed using Kanban boards to control for WIP limits, which must be satisfied for the present iteration before the next iteration is allowed to begin?
ScrumBan
282
What is an iterative-incremental framework that is popular for software development and that shares many features with Scrum; the roles are customer, tracker, coach, and developers?
Extreme Programming (XP)
283
What are these practices most characteristic of? Pair programming, co-location, informative workspace, user stories, weekly iterations, quarterly planning, sustainable pace, slack, test first, continuous integration, ten-minute build
Extreme Programming (XP)
284
What XP concept is when productivity is increased and defects are reduced when two developers work on a task?
Pair programming
285
What XP concept is when working on a new product, existing code is reused and reorganized, duplicate code is removed, and cohesion is increased?
Refactoring
286
What XP concept is when completed work is integrated?
Continuous integration
287
What XP concept is when every developer can improve or amend any code?
Collective code ownership
288
What is a software development framework organized around implementing features in large and lengthy projects?
Feature-Driven Development (FDD)
289
What is a vendor-independent agile project delivery framework that provides project managers using iterative methods a prescriptive framework for systems development, being a scalable model and supporting projects of all sizes in any business sector?
Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM)
290
What is a customized methodology that involves color codes based on characteristics such as size or priority?
Crystal
291
What combines Lean, Agile, and DevOps practices for business agility, focusing on providing a knowledge base of patterns for scaling development work across all levels of the enterprise?
Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe)
292
What is an agile software development framework that uses the concepts of agile development and provides a 'larger picture' methodology?
Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe)
293
What is a scaled agile technique that offers a way to connect multiple teams that need to work together to deliver complex solutions?
Scrum of Scrums (SoS)
294
What is a process decision framework that integrates several agile practices into a comprehensive model?
Disciplined Agile (DA)
295
What is organized into "process blades" such as finance, marketing, governance, data management, security?
Disciplined Agile (DA) Toolkit
296
What activity aims to achieve a good fit between specific projects and organizational and contextual conditions?
tailoring a project life cycle
297
What is the alternative to tailoring?
Using an unmodified framework or methodology
298
What includes adaptation of life cycles, processes, engagement, tools, methods, and artifacts to suit a project and the organizations needs?
Tailoring the needs of a specific project context
299
What are these steps?
1) Select initial development approach
2) Tailor for the organization
3) Tailor for the project
4) Implement ongoing improvements
The tailoring process
300
What can be tailored?
Life cycle and development approach selection, processes, engagement, tools, methods, and articles
301
What type of tailoring includes determining how to tailor the approach, that is, which elements should be added, modified, removed or aligned?
Process tailoring
302
What type of tailoring includes people, empowerment, and integration?
Engagement tailoring
303
What dimension of engagement tailoring entails evaluating the skills and capabilities of the project leadership and the project team, and then selecting who should be involved and in what capacities, based on the project type and operating conditions?
People
304
What dimension of engagement tailoring involves choosing which responsibilities and forms of local decision making should be deferred to the project team?
Empowerment
305
What dimension of engagement tailoring means that project teams should include contributors from contracted entities, channel partners, and other external entities in addition to staff from inside the sponsoring organization?
Integration
306
What domain's focus is primarily to assess project performance and implement appropriate responses to maintain optimal performance of active projects?
Measurement performance domain
307
These five distinct stages explain ____:
1) Understand the problem
2) Measure the problem
3) Devise a plan to manage the problem
4) Resolve the problem
5) Check the resolution
How problems are generally understood and resolved
308
Which priority technique involves ranking priority by using simple numbers, such as ranking Feature X as priority 1 and Feature Y as priority 2?
Simple scheme
309
Which priority technique involves ranking based on the possible priority categories: "must have", "should have", "could have", and "won't have"?
MoSCoW Prioritization Scheme
310
Which priority technique involves limiting the number of features that can be ranked as priority 1, restricting the customer's choices by giving a finite number of dots (or other symbols)?
Dot voting or multivoting scheme
311
Which priority technique involves prioritizing features based on the voice of the customer, categorizing customer preferences into four groups, based on what customers value (Dissatisfiers, satisfiers, delighters, indifferent)?
Kano model
312
Which priority technique involves each customer getting a finite amount of currency, and the feature with the most money allocated at the end is prioritized higher?
Monopoly Money Scheme
313
Which priority technique involves a team ranking the identified user stories by comparing them directly with each other, with the most important story on the top?
Stack scheme
314
What backlog is owned by the product owner and scopes the product and defines the features to be released?
Product backlog
315
What backlog is owned by the product owner and the solution architect (business analyst), and identifies features that will be released within a specific release?
Release backlog
316
What backlog is owned by the product owner and team, and selects a subset of stories that need to be completed during a specific sprint?
Sprint backlog
317
What backlog is owned by the individual team member and selects tasks for implementation?
Daily sprint backlog
318
What describes a project or product attribute using some measure of it?
Metric
319
What metric is a measure of what additional cost to expect, measured from the point where the team is today until its work is finally completed?
Estimate to completion (ETC)
320
What should effective metrics be?
SMART
321
What are attributes that are considered important and should be tracked, measuring various aspects of project performance to ensure that the team is on track to achieve the project objectives?
Key performance indicators (KPI)
322
What are two types of KPIs?
Lagging indicators and leading indicators
323
Which type of KPI measures project deliverables or milestones after the fact (past performance)? Ex: Number of deliverables completed, cost variance, and schedule variance
Lagging indicators
324
Which type of KPI predicts changes or trends in a project, can be challenging to measure but help to gauge future project outcomes? Ex: delivery velocity or productivity for a team
Leading indicators
325
What can these tools do: burndown chart, velocity chart, cumulative flow diagram?
Communication of adaptive project KPIs
326
What is a graph that highlights how much work is left to complete in a sprint or release? It consists of user stories, associated tasks, story points, names of responsible individuals, completion status, and acceptance status.
Burndown chart
327
What is a graph showing velocity, a measurement of how much work has been completed by a team in a sprint?
Velocity chart
328
What is a visual tool that works with a kanban board to help teams better visualize cumulative flow, which is the team's state of task distribution at various project stages?
Cumulative flow diagram
329
On a burndown chart, what shows a normal pattern for the sprint that would have been planned?
Plan
330
On a burndown chart, what shows work completed and the outstanding story points?
Actual
331
What is based on a checklist of all the criteria that must be met for a deliverable to be considered ready for customer use?
Definition of done
332
What graphical tool allows you to visualize the amount of work that is done to track the progress of the project against the targeted rate?
Burnup chart
333
What is the common approach in agile project approaches for measuring velocity?
Using story points (SPs)
334
What are estimates assigned to user stories based on effort, complexity, and risk?
Story Points (SPs)
335
If the team velocity is 12 SPs and remaining backlog is 60 SPs, the team will need ___ additional iterations to complete the project.
5 (60/12)
336
Who is in the best position to estimate how much time and effort it will take to construct each of the work items?
Development team
337
What refers to the number of units produced during a specific period of time?
throughput
338
If a company can manufacture 80 cars during an eight-hour shift, the manufacturing process generates a throughput of ___ cars per hour.
10
339
What are the two performance metrics used to measure and control for the productivity of systems?
cycle time and lead time
340
What is the amount of time it takes to complete a single unit or task?
Cycle time
341
What is the amount of time it takes from the moment when a request is initiated to its completion or fulfillment?
Lead time
342
What is a count of all started tasks that have not yet been finished?
Work in progress (WIP)
343
What can ensure better throughput?
Limiting the number of tasks in the system
344
How do you calculate cycle time?
Cycle time = WIP/Throughput
345
If a manufacturing plant has 16 cars in the process, WIP = 16. The throughput = 8 cars per hour. The cycle time is ___ cars per hour.
2 (16/8)
346
What is a valuable tool for tracking and forecasting value-added work in a project and is a type of burnup chart?
Cumulative flow diagram (CFD)
347
What are the three distinct contours in a cumulative flow diagram?
To Do, Doing, Done
348
What is a visible, physical display, or dashboard, that provides information and enables up-to-the minute knowledge sharing in an organization? These are displays or reports that focus on providing details of single-source data.
Information radiator
349
What is a consolidated display of multiple reports and data of interest to stakeholders?
Dashboard
350
How are issues displayed on an information radiator?
Summary form
351
What is an example of a visual control in most organizations as it shows the progression of tasks across stages, adding to the team's ability to predict, organize, and track their work in real time?
Kanban board
352
What is a RAG (red-amber-green) display also known as?
Traffic light bar chart
353
What is the preferred choice for displaying information?
"Low-tech/High-touch"
354
What is an event, a condition, or a circumstance that is not predictable?
Uncertainty
355
What is a condition that increases the likelihood of uncertainty and is a situation of inaccurate and imprecise information about different key aspects of a project, such as contradicting information about the capability of a technology or stakeholder expectations?
Ambiguity
356
What is a condition linked to uncertainty where the more complex a project is, the more difficult it is to fully understand the interactions among different project systems and subsystems and/or the dynamic relationships among them?
Complexity
357
What describes a project environment that changes quickly and in unpredictable ways, usually impacting costs and schedule?
Volatility
358
The strategies of progressive elaboration, experiments, and prototypes address the condition of uncertainty, ___.
Ambiguity
359
The strategies of decoupling, simulation, diversity, balance, iteration, engagement, and failsafe address the condition of uncertainty, _____.
Complexity
360
The strategies of alternative analysis and reserves address the condition of uncertainty, ______.
Volatility
361
What are also known as "known-unknowns"?
Risks
362
Roadblocks or issues documented in the _________ are updated at a daily standup meeting and escalated to the scrum master or project manager for resolution.
Impediments list
363
What does impact X probability calculate?
Risk severity
364
What is a chart based on risk severity values that shows how risks are generally trending over time?
Risk burndown chart
365
What is the set of activities performed to support the delivery of solutions that align to business objectives and provide continuous value to the organization?
Business analysis
366
The focus of _____ is to analyze business problems, recommend a solution, elicit requirements from stakeholders who contribute to the requirements, and document the requirements.
Business analysis
367
The focus of ______ is the management of projects that implement solutions.
Project management
368
Who is an individual who performs business analysis tasks?
Business analyst
369
What is a condition or capability that must be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need?
Requirement
370
What do these terms also refer to: capability, feature, function, model, user story, and use case?
Requirements
371
What kind of requirements refer to needs of the organization as a whole?
business requirements
372
What kind of requirements refer to needs of a stakeholder or a group of stakeholders?
Stakeholder requirements
373
What kind of requirements refer to features and characteristics of a product, grouped by functional or nonfunctional requirements?
Solution requirements
374
What kind of requirements refer to those that are temporary in nature, such as training?
Transition requirements
375
What requirement is a high-level statement of a business objective or business goal?
Business requirements
376
What is a popular way to capture stakeholder requirements?
User stories
377
What are the two subcategories of solution requirements?
Functional and nonfunctional
378
What solution requirement describes specific behaviors of a solution and are expressed from the perspective of a system?
Functional requirements
379
What solution requirement does not directly specify functionality, instead describing the environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective?
Nonfunctional requirements
380
What requirement describes how a solution will be deployed and released into production?
Transition requirements
381
What requirement describes the work needed to deliver unique solutions, such as budget, schedule, and quality requirements?
Project requirements
382
What requirement validates the successful completion of a project deliverable and the fulfillment of the project requirements?
Quality requirements
383
What are these key processes involved in:
-Stakeholder identification
-Stakeholder analysis
-Stakeholder engagement and communication approach
-Business analysis planning
-Transitioning to a future state
Business analysis and needs assessment
384
Management, business, project and product team, and external stakeholders typically interact with ____.
A business analyst
385
What technique is used to identify the job requirements and competencies required to perform a specific job or role?
Job analysis
386
What is a fictional character created to represent an individual or a group of stakeholders, termed a user class?
Persona analysis
387
What tool is used to map out responsibilities for stakeholders and is used for stakeholder communication during project activities?
RACI matrix
388
What is business analysis work that is conducted to analyze a current business problem or opportunity and to assess the current internal and external environments of the organization for the purpose of understanding what must occur to attain the desired future state?
Needs assessment
389
What are the general phases of activity that many organizations go through? (Mnemonic ABCDEF)
Aspire, Business case, Create charter, Develop plan, Execute plan, Finish project
390
7 business analysis tasks must be performed as part of ______:
1) Review existing documentation of needs, problems, and opportunities with stakeholders
2) Assess organizational goals and objectives
3) Communicate with stakeholders and clarify the needs, problems, opportunities, goals, and objectives
4) Work with SMEs and evaluate various options
5) Create a solution scope
6) Draft a situation statement
7) Conduct a solution cost-benefit analysis
Needs assessment
391
What is the process of comparing metrics or processes from one organization against those of a similar organization in the industry that has previously reported its metrics or processes?
Benchmarking
392
What is an output of the Identify Problem or Opportunity process, following the format of Problem of A has the effect of B with the impact of C?
A situation statement
393
What is the activity of drawing out information from stakeholders and others, resulting in a definition of the stakeholders' needs that is sufficiently detailed to facilitate the identification of options and the eventual selection of a preferred solution?
Requirements elicitation
394
What are brainstorming, document analysis, requirement workshops, focus groups, interviews, observation, surveys, and prototyping categorized as?
Elicitation techniques
395
What are facilitated, focused sessions that connect important cross-functional stakeholders to define product requirements?
Requirements workshops
396
What scope model is created when a project is chartered, specifying the requirements in detail and describing what features are in scope or out of scope?
Scope statement
397
What scope model shows applicable systems, their relationships, and the data passed between them?
Ecosystem map
398
What scope model is a representation of a system and human interaction within a solution?
Context diagram
399
What scope model visually represents all the features of a solution in a tree or hierarchical structure?
Feature model or feature mind map
400
What scenario analysis technique graphically depicts a solution's scope and identifies the main features of the solution?
Use case diagram
401
What describes the step-by-step movement of data, resources, or documents in the context of the organization?
Process models
402
What process model visually documents the steps or tasks that people perform in their jobs or when interacting with a solution?
Process flow (also known as process flow diagram, swim lane diagram, process map, process diagram, and process flowchart)
403
What acronym can be applied to ensure that a user story is useful and ready for construction by the development team?
INVEST (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable)
404
What refers to user stories that are ready for construction by the development team, defined as meeting the INVEST criteria and no more questions need to be answered about the story?
Definition of ready (also known as sprintable, implementable, and sprint-ready story)
405
What communicates a clear and shared understanding of what it means to consider work complete, representing quality requirements and an agreed-upon checklist of attributes that must be considered during iteration planning?
Definition of done
406
What is the x-axis in a story map?
Backbone (set of features that must be delivered or minimum viable product MVP) and walking skeleton
407
What graphically presents a shared understanding of the current requirements picture, with time on the x-axis and increasing details and priority on the y-axis?
story map
408
What describes business constraints that a proposed solution must enforce?
Rule model
409
What are three types of rule models?
Business rules catalogs, decision trees, and decision tables
410
What is a specific directive that is defined and managed centrally?
Business rule
411
What data model consists of entities, which can be persons, places, or things, and describes the relationships between entities with a line?
ERD (Entity Relationship Diagram)
412
What lists the data fields and attributes of those fields for a data object?
Data dictionary
413
What shows the data inputs and outputs for each process, usually created during analysis?
Data flow diagram
414
What depicts the relationship within a solution to gain an understanding of the interfaces that exist and the details of those interfaces, categorized further into prototypes, wireframes, and display-action-response models; user interface flows; and report tables?
Interface model
415
What interface model is a two-dimensional representation of an interface, typically used to communicate screen layout?
Wireframe
416
What interface model can be used in combination with wireframes or screen mockups to identify page elements and requirements associated with a UI, and can define all possible valid actions and responses between a user and the UI elements in a system?
Display-action-response (DAR) models
417
What interface model displays specific user interfaces and commonly used screens in a functional design and then plots out how to navigate between them?
User interface flow
418
What interface model describes detailed requirements for a single report?
Report table
419
What is the ability to track product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them?
Traceability
420
What is used to trace and monitor requirements?
Requirements Traceability Matrix
421
What is work performed to assess a proposed change, which includes identifying the risks accompanying the change, the work required to incorporate the change, and the schedule and cost implications of the change?
Impact analysis
422
What are concrete and demonstrable conditions that have to be met for the business stakeholders or customers to accept the item?
Acceptance criteria
423
What test-driven development approach involves experts writing the test case before programmers write the code?
Test-driven development
424
What test-driven development approach involves work beginning in the iteration before actual solution development?
Acceptance test-driven development
425
What test-driven development approach involves the behavior of the final software or solution being documented before the developers begin to write actual code?
Behavior-driven development
426
What is the process of ensuring that all requirements accurately reflect the intent of the stakeholders?
Requirements validation
427
What is the process of reviewing the requirements for errors and quality?
Verification
428
What verification process involves one or more coworkers reviewing the work completed by the business analyst?
Peer reviews
429
What verification process is a formal and rigorous form of review in which any individual close to the work inspects the work for completeness, consistency, and conformance to internal and external standards? They can be walkthroughs or day-in-the-life testing.
Inspections
430
What principle of project management involves stewardship, integrity, care, trustworthiness, and compliance?
Be a diligent, respectful, and caring steward
431
What principle of project management does this describe:
Project teams develop behavior norms to allow the free exchange of knowledge and expertise, project teams are empowered and coordinate the individual effort by defining authority, accountability, and responsibility
Create a collaborative project team environment
432
What principle of project management does this describe:
Stakeholders need to be engaged proactively from start to finish, and engaged consistently by regular communication to main and build strong relationships with the project
Effectively engage with stakeholders
433
What principle of project management does this describe:
Value can be realized at the end, after, or intermittently throughout the project; project objectives must continually align with business objectives to achieve intended benefits and value
Focus on value
434
What principle of project management does this describe:
A project should be treated as a system of changing and interacting components; project changes encounter many different impacts that need to be anticipated and analyzed with system thinking
Recognize, evaluate, and respond to system interactions
435
What principle of project management does this describe:
Leadership behaviors are necessary to influence, motivate, and direct individuals to achieve desired outcomes and project success
Demonstrate leadership behaviors
436
What principle of project management does this describe:
Tailoring the project management approach by selecting appropriate processes, methods, and artifacts is essential to ensure value delivery; adaption based on the project situation occurs continuously throughout the project
Tailor based on context
437
What principle of project management does this describe:
Project process quality is achieved by implementing project processes that are appropriate and as effective as possible; the quality of project deliverables is measured using metrics and acceptance criteria based on requirements
Build quality into processes and deliverables
438
What principle of project management does this describe:
The degree of project complexity depends on the number of included elements and their interactions and could be actively reduced with different methods; complexity could dynamically change during the execution of a project and needs to be constantly monitored and addressed
Navigate complexity
439
What principle of project management does this describe:
Risks may occur at any point over a project's life cycle and could take the form of threats or opportunities; the project team should constantly monitor them;
Risk responses should be appropriate, timely, cost-effective, and agreed upon by relevant stakeholders
Optimize risk responses
440
What principle of project management does this describe:
Adaptability is the ability to respond to changing conditions and resiliency is the ability to recover from different difficulties that a project faces
Some crucial capabilities that support adaptability and resiliency are requirements stability, short feedback loops, and open communication between stakeholders and diverse project teams
Embrace adaptability and resiliency
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