CAP TEST Flashcards

1
Q

why does serum phosphate tend to rise in CKD

A

it isn’t efficiently removed by dialysis

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2
Q

which vitamin is often prescribed in CKD

A

activated vitamin D

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3
Q

how are phosphate levels managed in advanced CKD

A

phosphate binders to remove free phosphate from serum

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4
Q

which vessels make up the left venous angle

A

subclavian and internal jugular veins

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5
Q

which vessels drain in to the chamber of the heart with the SA node

A

IVC and SVC

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6
Q

where do the intercostal veins from the anterior aspect of the chest drain into

A

internal thoracic

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7
Q

what effect do BDZs have on delirium

A

worsen and lengthen delirium

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8
Q

what is the best treatment for delirium

A

haloperidol

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9
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria of delirium

A

acute onset
inattention
disorganised thinking/altered level of consciousness

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10
Q

at what stage does the embryo implant onto the uterus

A

blastocyst (day 6-10)

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11
Q

where does fertilisation normally occur

A

ampulla of Fallopian tube

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12
Q

what are features of duct ectasia

A

green/cream nipple discharge
more common in smokers
lump felt under nipple

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13
Q

what type of breast pathology is common after trauma

A

fat necrosis

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14
Q

elderly lady with a hot, tender breast and overlying cellulitis that has not responded to 2 courses of antibiotics

A

suspect inflammatory breast cancer

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15
Q

what effect does phenytoin have on OCP efficacy

A

reduces OCP efficacy as it induces liver enzymes

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16
Q

which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy and why

A

tetracycline

discolours the infant’s teeth

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17
Q

can a patient <16 year consent to an abortion

A

yes, if they have capacity

need written permission from someone over 18 for surgical procedure

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18
Q

what consent is needed for non-emergency treatment in a severely brain damaged patient

A

apply to courts for consent

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19
Q

patient in labour and has reassuring CTG but meconium discharge, management?

A

reassure and re-examine in 2 hours

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20
Q

what is the recommended contraception post-partum

A

BMI <39 COCP

BMI >39 POP

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21
Q

which STI causing organism is a flagellated protozoa

A

trichomonas vaginalis

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22
Q

what is radial-femoral delay a sign of

A

coarctation of aorta

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23
Q

what are signs of placental abruption

A

severe bleeding + uterus tender and tense +/- severe fetal distress /intrauterine death

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24
Q

when is mid-forceps delivery appropriate

A

when foetal head is below the ischial spines

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25
Q

what supplements are recommended for all women to take during pregnancy

A

folic acid 400 mcg

vitamin D 10 mcg

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26
Q

how much folic acid should be given to high risk groups

A

5 mg

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27
Q

which hormone should be measured to detect if a woman has ovulated

A

progesterone

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28
Q

which hormone should be measured to assess ovarian reserve prior to IVF

A

anti-mullerian hormone

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29
Q

which artery can be damaged during insertion of lateral abdominal port during female laparoscopic sterilisation

A

inferior epigastric

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30
Q

which artery can be damaged during incision of bartholin’s abscess

A

internal pudendal

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31
Q

which artery can be damaged during dissection of the lower end of the ureter

A

uterine artery

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32
Q

which hormone causes enlargement of the mammary glands in breasts to prepare for production of milk

A

prolactin

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33
Q

why is anaemia common in patients with CKD

A

reduced renal EPO

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34
Q

what treatment can help patients with CKD maintain adequate Hb

A

EPO

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35
Q

what monitoring is necessary for LMWH

A

only monitor if patient is pregnancy or has renal impairment
use anti-Xa assay

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36
Q

what monitoring is required for dabigatrarin

A

no routine monitoring

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37
Q

what is the mechanism of action of dabigatran

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

38
Q

what monitoring is necessary for unfractionated heparin

A

APTT

39
Q

why does roleaux occur

A

when the charge on the surface of cells is altered as a consequence of cell being labelled with proteins

40
Q

what does low ferritin suggest

A

iron deficiency

41
Q

what to suspect in anaemia + jaundice

A

haemolysis

42
Q

what do spherocytes suggest

A

autoimmune haemolysis or hereditary spherocytosis

43
Q

when is HRT contraindicated

A

active or recent arterial thromboembolic disease eg angina or MI

44
Q

when would you recommend a blood transfusion for anaemia

A

Hb <8

45
Q

dactylitis is a common presentation of which anaemia

A

sickle cell

46
Q

what is the test for sickle cell anaemia

A

HPLC (Hb high performance liquid chromatography)

47
Q

what type of inheritance does hereditary shperocytosis show

A

autosomal dominant

48
Q

man presents with back pain, proteinuria and microscopic haematuria

A

multiple myeloma

49
Q

presents with high lymphocyte count and lymphadenopathy

A

CLL

50
Q

atypical mononuclear cells

A

EBV

51
Q

29 yo acute mania that may be pregnant, drug management?

A

prescribe olanzapine

52
Q

30 yo with schizophrenia, non-response to quetiapine and haloperidol, drug management?

A

clozapine

53
Q

how long does a compulsory treatment order last

A

6 months in hospital

54
Q

what test should be done before starting lithium

A

U&Es

55
Q

what is the first line treatment in depression

A

SSRI eg citalopram

56
Q

reduced GABA is a sign of

A

withdrawal from sedative-hyponotic slugs

57
Q

excessive activation of dopamine receptors is present in

A

schizophrenia

58
Q

serotonin is low in

A

depression

59
Q

what is malingering

A

faking illness for secondary gain

60
Q

which neurotransmitter is most involved in appetitive and approach systems

A

dopamine

61
Q

what are features of migraine

A
unilateral
pulsating 
moderate-severe
aggravated by routine activities 
last between 4-72 hours
62
Q

what can make benign intracranial HTN worse

A

coughing/sneezing (raise ICP)

COCP

63
Q

what is dystonia

A

sustained abnormal posture caused by persistent contraction

64
Q

how is dystonia managed

A

anticholinergics
phenothiazines
botulinim toxin

65
Q

what is a spasm

A

uncontrolled contraction of a muscle

66
Q

what is blepharospasm

A

spasm of eyelid

67
Q

what is hemiballismus

A

uncontrolled flailing of limbs

68
Q

nerve roots for biceps reflex

A

C5/6

69
Q

nerve roots for ankle reflex

A

S1

70
Q

nerve roots for knee reflex

A

L3/4

71
Q

acute dystonic reaction is a side effect of what type of drugs

A

EPS side effect

typical antipsychotics

72
Q

what is metabolic syndrome

A

central obesity
HTN hypercholesterolaemia
insulin resistance

73
Q

metabolic syndrome is associated with which class of psych drugs

A

atypical antipsychotics

74
Q

receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in

A

wernicke’s area

75
Q

how does receptive aphasia present

A

speech is fluent but words spoken are incorrect

76
Q

expressive aphasia is due to a lesion in

A

frontal lobe of dominant hemisphere

broca’s area

77
Q

how does expressive aphasia present

A

able to understand but lose fluency

unable to get words out despite knowing what to say

78
Q

what is the first area affected by Alzheimer’s

A

nucleus basalts of meynert

79
Q

lesion to which cranial nerve can cause pain in the posterior triangle of the neck

A

CN VII

80
Q

what pattern go inheritance does Huntington’s show

A

autosomal dominant

81
Q

how does lamotrigine work

A

block voltage sensitive sodium channels

reduces release of glutamate

82
Q

what is the first line treatment of simple partial seizures

A

lamotrigine or carbamazepine

83
Q

oligoclonal bands in CSF is associated with

A

MS

84
Q

what does xanthochromic CSF indicate

A

presence of blood

?subarachnoid haemorrhage

85
Q

which drugs improve survival in heart failure

A

ACEI

86
Q

desire to void occurs with bladder is how full

A

250 ml

87
Q

what is the definition of polyuria

A

> 2.8 L of urine a day

88
Q

parasympathetic nerve stimulation has what effect on the detrusor muscle

A

contracts

89
Q

how long is the female urethra

A

3-4 cm

90
Q

what causes a right shift in the O2-Hb dissociation curve

A

acidosis (lower pH)
increased CO2
increased 2,3-DPG
increased temp

91
Q

what causes myasthenia graves

A

antibodies directed against postsynaptic ACh receptors

92
Q

is treponema pallidum a true anaerobe

A

nope

its a bacterium