Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AY CapTest > CAP Test 2019 > Flashcards

CAP Test 2019 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of vision causes light to be focussed in front of the eye?

A

Myopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lens used to correct myopia

A

Concave )(

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Symptoms of renal colic

A 
Sudden onset 
Severe unilateral pain 
Loin to groin
colicky 
Often assoc with haematuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Symptoms of adenexal (ovarian) torsion

A

Severe intermittent colicky pain

N + V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Complications if ovarian torsion not surgically corrected

A

Necrotic (pyrexia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First line investigation for newborn bilious vomit

A

Abdominal x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Investigation for suspected pyloric stenosis

A

US - thickened pylorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Baby who is constipated with projectile vomit. Well and eager to feed

A

Pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hypertensive that causes ankle oedema

A

Ca channel blocker (Amlodipine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

First line for paroxysmal AF

A

Betablocker (bisoprolol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Diagnosis of delirium

A

Acute onset plus, inattention with fluctuating course

And one of:
Disorganised thinking
Altered level of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Minimum percentage blood loss in femur fracture

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Position for neonatal x-rays

A

supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Appearance of surfactant deficiency in neonatal x–ray

A

Lung volume reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In what patient group are breast abscesses common

A

Lactating women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a galactocoele

A

Painless breast lump secondary to protein plus blocking the outlet of the mammary glands for milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do fibroadenomas tend to present?

A

Younger women

Mobile smooth breast lumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Risk factors for NEC

A

Intrauterine growth restriction
Absent end diastolic flow at placenta
Prematurity
Hypoxic ischaemic insult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of infants at risk of NEC

A

Close monitoring
Breast milk as early as poss
Gradual increase in the total volume of enteral feed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do Men B titres show?

A

Reaction to routine childhood vaccinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What test should be done before LP in kids with meningiococcal septicaemia?

A

Clotting screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What marker is raised in GCA?

A

ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should be measure prior to lithium prescription?

A

Renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What hormone triggers ovulation?

A

LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How long after LH surge is ovulation?

A

24 to 36 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is LH released from?

A

Anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What class of drug is metformin?

A

Biguanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What hould be added if metformin not enough in T2DM?

A

Sulphonylurea (Glicazide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When should sulphonylureas not be used?

A

Risks of hypo too hight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If sulphonylureas contraindicated what should be added to metformin in management of T2DM?

A

Thiazolidinedione (TZD) - e.g. proglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which medication for T2DM causes diarrhoea?

A

Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does 1:1000 mean in drug dosing?

A

1g in 1000ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does memantine work?

A

Blockade of NMDA-type glutamate receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is memantine used in the treatment of?

A

Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Well-defined hair loss with normal underlying skin. Likely diagnosis?

A

Alopecia areata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are exclamation mark hairs seen in?

A

Alopecia areata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is aqueous humour produced by?

A

Cilliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How is aqueous humour drained?

A

At the angle of the eye
Through trabecular meshwork
Into the canal of Schlemm’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Management of bronchiolitis

A

Oxygen therapy + NG feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Distribution of seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

Eyebrows
Nasolabial folds
Scalp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Itchy vesicles on extensor surfaces

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Initial management of oesophagitis

A

PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bird beak appearance

A

Achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Management of Achalasia if young and fit

A

Heller’s cardiomyotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Management of Achalasia if not young and fit

A

Balloon oesophageal dilatation

46
Q

Management of oesophageal stricture impairing feeding

A

Oesophageal balloon dilatation

47
Q

Investigation for suspected PE in patient on chemo

48
Q

1st line investigation for suspected endometrial ca

A

US (for endometrial thickness) or pipelle biopsy

49
Q

What can group B strep cause in preterm infants

A

Neonatal meningitis

50
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis in neonates?

A

Herpes Simplex

51
Q

How is Herpex simplex encephalitis in a neonate seen on imaging?

A

Inflammation of temporal lobr

52
Q

Cause of CNS infection in neonates, elderly and immunocomprimised

A

Listeria monocytogenes

53
Q

Food sources of listeria monocytogenes

A

Soft cheese

Unpasturised milk

54
Q

Signs of L4 pathology

A

Absent knee reflex
Weakness in knee extension
Foot drop

55
Q

First line short term post-partum contraception

A

COCP or POP

56
Q

Investigation of suspected malaria

A

Thick/thin blood film

57
Q

What is the first line investigation for suspected pneumoperitoneum?

A

Erect chest x-ray

58
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for pneumoperitoneum?

59
Q

What is the antidote for paracetamol overdose?

A

Acetylcysteine

60
Q

What information is needed to calculate an acetylcysteine dose?

A

Body weight

61
Q

What time period in acetylcysteine most effective in?

A

Within 8 hours

62
Q

What time period should activated charcoal be given in in paracetamol overdose/

A

Within 1 hour

63
Q

When should acetylecysteine be used in paracetamol overdose?

A

Plasma-paracetamol conc on or above treatment line

presentation 8-24hrs after acute ovrdose of more thn 150mg/kg

64
Q

Whta is the most appropriate first line management for a patient with urinary incontinence with large urinary volumes?

A

Reduce fluid intake

65
Q

How is urge incontinence managed?

A

Bladder retraining
Antimuscarinics (e.g. oxybutinin, tolterodine)
B3 agonist (e.g. miraberon)

66
Q

How is stress incontinence managed?

A

Pelvic floor exercise

B agonists

67
Q

What causes urge incontinence?

A

Detrusor overactivity

68
Q

What causes overflow incontinence/

A

Bladder outlet obstruction (e.g. prostate enlargement)

69
Q

When is mirabegron useful in incontinence management?

A

Urge incontinence - if there is concern about anti-cholinergic side effects in frail elderly patients

70
Q

Cause of haematuria associated with URTI?

A

IgA nephropathy

71
Q

In which cardiac patients are NOACs not licensed for use/

A

Prosthetic heart valves

72
Q

What type of infection is Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

A protozoal (single cell) parasite

73
Q

What is the genetic abnormality in DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Deletion in Chromosome 21

74
Q

How does DiGeorge syndrome present clinically?

A

Recurrent infections (problems in T-cell response)
Cardiac disease
Defects in palate and lip

75
Q

What is chronic granulamtous disease?

A

Genetically caused immunodeficiency which usually presents in childhood with recurrent infection (including abscess and atypica infections)

76
Q

Clinical features of open angle glaucoma

A

Raised IOP
Increased disc cupping
field defects

Insidious onset

77
Q

What effect do parasympathetic nerves have on the bladder?

A

Excited the bladder while relaxing the urethral muscle (voiding)

78
Q

What effect do sympathetic nerves have on the bladder?

A

Relaxes the detrusor while contracting urethral sphincter (not voiding)

79
Q

Where do afferent stimuli from the destrusor go?

80
Q

Where in the brain controls micturition?

A

Frontal cortex

81
Q

What test is used to diagnose coeliac disease?

A

Tissue Transglutamase

82
Q

What patient demographic does dermatomyositis present in?

A

Women

50-70 y/o

83
Q

Clinical presentation of dermatomyositis

A

Gradual onset proximal muscle weakness

Purple rash on sun exposed areas

84
Q

What effect does Vit D deficiency have on PTH levels?

A

PTH levels increase

85
Q

What effect does Vit D deficiency have on calcium and phosphate levels?

A

Calcium and phosphate levels will be low

86
Q

What effect does Vit D deficiency have on Alk Phos levels?

A

Alk Phos levels increase

87
Q

Why do Alk Phos levels increase in Vit D deficiency?

A

Increased osteoblastic activity

88
Q

What is leaden paralysis?

A

Feeling of heaviness in the legs

89
Q

What are hypersomnia and leaden paralysis symptoms of?

A

Atypical depression

90
Q

Name 4 complications of meningitis in children

A

SIADH
Hearing loss
Subdural effusion
Hydrocephalus

91
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the UK?

A

Campylobacter

92
Q

Which bacterial gastroenteritis can lead to haemolytic uraemi syndrome?

A

E.cli 0157

93
Q

Why should antibiotics be avoided in treating E.coli 0157?

A

May precipitate onset of HUS

94
Q

How does PTH increase calcium levels?

A

Directly decreases calcium reabsorption from the kidneys

Increases conversion of Vit D to 1,25 hydroxy vit D which increases calcium reabsorption in the gut

95
Q

What effect do high serum calcium levels have on pTH?

A

Negative feedback on PTH secretion

96
Q

Which anti-psychotic should be used in pregnancy/

A

Olanzapine

97
Q

What drug should be used in treatment resistant schizophrenia?

98
Q

Which anti-epileptic drug interacts with lithium?

A

Carbamazepine

99
Q

What effect do NSAIDs have on lithium>

A

Decrease lithium excretion

100
Q

Which test in marked out of 100 and is suitable for asessing an lder person who presents with new memory problems?

A

Adenbrookes

101
Q

Which neurotransmitter is affected in withdrawal from sedative-hypnotic drugs?

102
Q

Which neurotransmitter is responsible for symptoms in schizophrenia?

103
Q

Which neurotransmitter is low in depressed patients?

A

5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)

104
Q

What measures the degree to which individiuals differ from sample mean?

A

Standard deviation

105
Q

How are autoimmune blistering disorders diagnosed?

A

Biopsy and immunofluorescence

106
Q

Why does phenytoin reduce he efficacy of the COCP?

A

Induces liver enzymes

107
Q

How should patients with GORDs airway be supported during general anaesthesia?

A

Intubation

108
Q

How is pseudogout diagnosed?

A

Arthrocentesis - calcium pyrophosphate crystals change colour under polarizing filter with change of the polarization alignment

109
Q

Drug given for patient in AF who is cardiovascularly stable

A

Amiodarone (rate control)

B blockers

110
Q

Drug to give patient who is hypotensive with normal heart rate

A

Noradrenaline (central access)

Metaraminol (peripheral access)

111
Q

How does epidymo-orchiditis present?

A

Unilateral

Acute onset of pain, swelling and tenderness

AY CapTest (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions