Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of action of methotrexate

A
  1. inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) → blocks conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate.
  2. A depletion of tetrahydrofolate leads to thymidylate deficiency which is vital for DNA synthesis. 3. This inhibits DNA synthesis, particularly in rapidly dividing cells and leads to cell death.
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2
Q

What phase is methotrexate and 5FU(capecitabine) specific to

A

S-phase

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3
Q

What is the dose limiting toxicity of methotrexate

A

Bone marrow suppression

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4
Q

What group of chemotherapy agents cause oral mucositis

A

Mainly antimetabolites

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5
Q

What drugs are high risk for alopecia

A
  1. Methotrexate
  2. Anti Microtubules agents(taxanes and vincaalkaloids)
  3. Anthracyclines(doxorubicin)
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6
Q

What is the kidney supportive care for methotrexate

A

Pre and post treatment hydration: IV fluids including 100mEq HCO3- until urine pH is 7 and maintain this pH throughout therapy

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7
Q

What is Leucovorin and when is it given

A

Folinic acid.
Give 24 hours after MTX chemotherapy, to reduce side effects and save bone marrow cells . Also used and rescue therapy in MTX overdose

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8
Q

What is the emesis risk of methotrexate

A

Minimal = Oral MTX
Low < 250mg/m2
Moderate > 250 mg/m2

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9
Q

What is the extravasation risk of methotrexate

A

Irritant

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10
Q

What do you monitor with methotrexate

A

FBC
MTX concentration at 24 hours.

Bilirubin and LFT(hepatoxic)
* temporary rise between dosese but not true liver impairment

Renal function tests baseline and every cycle

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11
Q

What are the 5 mechanisms of resistance to MTX

A
  1. Efflux pumps
  2. Reduce expression of folate carrier protein (impaired uptake)
  3. Overexpression of target protein (Dihydrofolate reductase)
  4. Mutation in target protein-
  5. Reduced retention (increased polyglutamylation or increased break down of polyglutamates)
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12
Q

Can 5-FU be taken orally

A

No because it has reduced absorption.

Prodrug capecitabine is used instead.

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13
Q

What is mechanism of action of 5-FU

A

Inhibits thymidylate synthase + additional mechanism
1. 5FU converted to metabolite FdUMP
2. FdUMP binds thymidylate synthase
3. Fluorine ion prevents reaction from occurring thus forms stable complex with thymidylate synthase and co-factor tetrahydrofolate.
4. No synthesis of DNA precursors: purine and pyrimidines
5. apoptosis

additional mechanism: to incorporate into DNA and RNA disrupting normal functioning and processes(poorly understood)

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14
Q

What is the dose limiting toxicity of capecitabine

A

Diarrhoea (leads to dehydration and renal failure)

Bone marrow suppression(if given by IV bolus)

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15
Q

What is the emesis risk of 5FU and capecitabine

A

LOW

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16
Q

How do you treat diarrhoea associated with Capecitabine

A
  • Loperamide
  • Oral Rehydration Sachets,
  • Codeine(add/replace lop)
  • if severe octreotide(somatostain analogue which reduces GI motility)
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17
Q

What deficiency should be tested for on capecitabine

A

Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency before initiating treatment

DPD metabolises capecitabine, if there is deficiency higher risk of toxicities, contraindicated.

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18
Q

What is are toxicities of capecitabine

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • mucositis
  • BMS
  • Peripheral neuropathy
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19
Q

What 3 drugs causes peripheral neuropathy

A
  • Vincristine
  • Capacitabine
  • Paclitaxel
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20
Q

How do you manage peripheral neuropathy caused by chemotherapy

A

Pyridoxine 50mg PO TDS
Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation(TENS)
Acupunture
Severe - gabapentin or pregabalin

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21
Q

What are the symptoms of peripheral neuropathy

A

Change in sensation
Increased sensitivity
Pain
Numbness
Muscle weakness
Coordination or balance issues
Loss of finger movement

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22
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of resistance to 5FU/capacitabine

A
  1. Increase target protein expression
  2. mutation in target protein
  3. Increased catabolism by dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase(DPD)
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23
Q

What is the difference between capecitabine and 5FU

A

capecitabine is oral prodrug of 5FU, it is converted to 5FU in 3 stages by enzymes which are higher in cancerous cells which makes it more specific.

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24
Q

What drug class is cyclophosphamide

A

Alkylating agent

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25
Q

Is cyclophosphamide and prodrug

A

Yes

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26
Q

Are alkylating agents and alkylating like agents cycle specific

A

No
DNA can be accessed at any point

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27
Q

What is the dose limiting toxicity of cyclophosphamide

A

Bone marrow suppression

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28
Q

What are other toxicities of cyclophosphamide

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis

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29
Q

What is hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis irritation of the bladder lining caused by breakdown product called acrolein

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30
Q

What is the emesis risk of Cyclophosphamide

A

> 1500mg/m2 High emesis risk >90% incidence

<1500mg/m2 Moderate emesis risk (30-90%)

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31
Q

What is the extravasation risk of cyclophosphamide

A

Non-vesicant (nuetral)

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32
Q

When do you give aprepitant

A

Anthracycline+ cyclophosphamide

High dose cisplatin (70mg/m2)

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33
Q

What is hemastix

A

Testing for blood in urine

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34
Q

What is mesna

A

Mesna binds to acrolein and removes it.

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35
Q

When is mesna given prophylactically

A

Mesna is always given to patients receiving cyclophosphamide doses of 1g/m2 or more (can be oral or iv), and all doses of ifosfamide

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36
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cyclophosphamide

A

It binds to the N7 position of guanine and forms cross links either intrastrand or interstrand. Interstrand crosslinks prevent the DNA from being unwound thus stopping DNA transcription and replication from occuring –> apoptosis

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37
Q

What treatment may be used to treat neutropenia

A

immediate admission for broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy (piperacillin-tazobactam & gentamicin)

Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor(GCSF) i.e filgrastim Stimulates the production of neutrophils.

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38
Q

What are the 3 resistance mechanisms for cyclophosphamide

A
  1. Impaired uptake
  2. DNA repair mechanisms which can remove the cross-linking - nucleotide excision repair(NER) which removes bulky adducts.
  3. Body produces glutathione which is an antioxidant that neutralises alkylating ag
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39
Q

What class is mephalan

A

Alkylating agent

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40
Q

What is the mechanism of action of melphalan

A

It binds to the N7 position of guanine and forms cross links either intrastrand or interstrand. Interstrand crosslinks prevent the DNA from being unwound thus stopping DNA transcription and replication from occuring –> apoptosis

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41
Q

Dose limiting toxicity of melphalan

A

Bone marrow suppression

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42
Q

What is the emesis risk of melphalan

A

Moderate risk if dose above 100mg/m2

Minimal risk if oral therapy

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43
Q

what are the 4 resistance mechanisms for melphalan

A
  1. Overexpression of efflux pumps
  2. Impaired uptake
  3. DNA excision repair mechanisms
  4. Body produces glutathione which is an antioxidant that neutralises alkylating agents.
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44
Q

What drug class is doxorubicin

A

Anthracyclines

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45
Q

What enzyme does doxorubicin inhibit

A

Topoisomerase II

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46
Q

What is the role of Topoisomerase II

A

Maintaining the integrity of DNA and regulating the coiling of DNA

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47
Q

Doxorubicin 3 MOA’s

A
  1. Stabilises Topo2 and DNA complex (transient breaks cannot be resealed)
  2. Intercalates into DNA bases, disrupting the helical structure
  3. Produces reactive oxygen species, that cause DNA damage
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48
Q

is doxorubicin cell cycle specific

A

Non -cycle specific

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49
Q

What is the dose limiting toxicity for doxorubicin

A

Cardiotoxicity
-oxygen free radicals usually detoxified by catalase but heart has low catalase activity

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50
Q

What is doxorubicin cardiotoxicity cumulative lifetime dose

A

around 450 -550mg/m2

51
Q

What is a non toxic side effect of doxorubicin

A

colours urine red

52
Q

What is the emesis risk of doxorubicin

A

LOW risk for liposomal doxorubicin
MODERATE = < 60mg/m2
HIGH = > 60mg/m2 OR given with cyclophosphamide

53
Q

What is extravastion risk with doxorubicin

A

DNA binding vesicant

Doxorubicin is a bright red solution

54
Q

What are the two types of vesicants and the difference between them

A

DNA binding or non-DNA binding.

bind to DNA –> cell death, drug then released –> further more extensive damage

doesnt bind to DNA –> get metabolised in tissue–> local damage

55
Q

How do you treat extravasation of DNA BINDING vesicants (LN)

A
  1. stop the infusion but leave cannula in place
  2. aspirate the area
  3. Mark the extravasated area with a pen
  4. remove cannula
  5. COLD(constricts vessels stops spread) compress 20mins QDS for 1-2 days
  6. Neutralise - Use specific antidotes(Anthracyclines- dexrazoxane)
  7. elevate limb+ analgesia
56
Q

How to mitigate cardiotoxicity of doxorobicin

A
  1. Slow infusion rather than bolus prevents high peak plasma concentrations and high exposure to free radicals
  2. using liposomal formulations
  3. dexrazoxane - iron chelator prevents cardiotoxicity by bind to free radicals
  4. use of ACE inhibitors, ARBs and beta blockers
57
Q

How do you treat extravasation of NON-DNA BINDING vesicants (DD)

A
  1. stop the infusion but leave cannula in place
  2. aspirate the area
  3. Mark the extravasated area with a pen
  4. remove cannula
    6.warm (speed up distribution for metabolism) compress 20mins QDS for 1-2 days
  5. dilute - hyaluronidase (vinca alkaloids and taxanes)
  6. elevate limb+ analgesia
58
Q

How do you treat extravasation of irritant

A
  1. stop the infusion but leave cannula in place
  2. aspirate the area
  3. Mark the extravasated area with a pen
  4. remove cannula
  5. Saline flush out
59
Q

How do you treat extravasation of non-vesicant

A
  1. Local dry cold compress
  2. elevate and pain relief
60
Q

What should you monitor for doxorubicin

A

FBC, LFT, U&Es
ECG every 3 months of treatment
MUGA scan( LVEF ),
Baseline MUGA is the are predisposed to heart failure, have hypertension or are a smoker.

61
Q

What is MUGA scan

A

heart functioning, radioactive tracer injected into blood stream and a GAMMA camera is used to see how blood is being pumped through the heart and left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) is measure.

62
Q

3 mechanisms of resistance to Doxorubicin

A

Efflux pump overexpression

Anti-oxidant such as gluthaione

Mutation in target protein

63
Q

What type of drug is Etoposide

A

Non-anthracycline Topoisomerase II inhibitors

64
Q

Etoposide MOA

A

stabilize topoisomerase II DNA complex, preventing DNA from re-sealing and leading to double strand breaks

  • The accumulation of DNA double strand breaks leads to apoptosis
65
Q

What part of the cycle is etoposide specific to

A

S and G2 phases

66
Q

What is the extravasation risk with etoposide

67
Q

Mechanisms of resistance to etoposide

A
  1. Efflux pump –(PGP and MDR1)
  2. Mutations in Topoisomerase II
  3. Increased DNA repairing mechanisms.
68
Q

What happens is etoposide is infused too quickly

A

Low blood pressure

69
Q

What are the two dose limiting toxicities of etoposide

A

Mucositis at high doses

Myelosuppression

70
Q

What 2 drugs are microtubules inhibitors

A

Vincristine

Paclitaxel

71
Q

Vincristine MOA

A

Inhibits microtubule polymerization by binding to beta-tubulin, thus preventing the assembly of microtubules

-This disrupts formation of mitotic spindle = leads to metaphase arrest and eventual apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells

72
Q

What cell cycle phase is vincristine and paclitaxel specific to

73
Q

What is the extravasation risk of Vincristine

A

Non-DNA binding vesicant

74
Q

emesis risk of vincristine

A

minimal risk(Less than 10%)

75
Q

How does vincristine affect LFTs

A

transient rise post treatment

76
Q

What supportive care with vincristine

A
  • Cold cap
  • GCSF
  • Peripheral
  • Neuropathy (pyridoxine)
77
Q

What are the 3 resistance mechanism for vincristine

A
  1. Overexpression of efflux pumps PGP
  2. Mutations in target proteins
  3. Overexpression of target protein
78
Q

Dose limiting toxicity of vincristine

A

Peripheral Neuropathy
+
Nuetropenia

79
Q

What class of drug is bleomycin

A

Cytotoxic antibiotic

80
Q

Bleomycin 2 mechanism of action

A
  1. Bleomycin forms a complex with Fe2+(pseudoenzyme). This complex under goes redox reactions to form superoxide and hydroxide free radicals that cleave DNA.
  2. Inhibit DNA polymerase a key enzyme required for DNA synthesis.
81
Q

What phase is bleomycin specific to

82
Q

What is the dose limiting toxicity of bleomycin

A

Pulmonary toxicity (pulmonary fibrosis)

83
Q

What is monitoring for bleomycin

A

Chest X-ray
Lung function tests
Respiratory symptoms
renal function - reduce dose

84
Q

4 resistance mechanism for bleomycin

A
  1. Increased antioxidant production by the cancerous cell i.e. glutathione S-transferase
  2. Increased DNA repair mechanisms
  3. Impaired uptake
  4. Increased efflux
85
Q

Bleomycin extravasation risk?

A

Non- vesicant

86
Q

Bleomycin emesis risk

87
Q

Paclitaxel MOA

A

Binds to beta-tubulin and stabilizes it (stabilizes microtubules), which prevents microtubule disassembly, and essentially locks them in place = disrupts cell division and induces apoptosis

88
Q

Dose limiting toxicity of paclitaxel

A

Neutropenia

89
Q

paclitaxel emesis risk

A

low/moderate(idk not in list)

90
Q

Paclitaxel extravasation risk

A

Non-DNA binding vesicant

91
Q

Paclitaxel is high risk of what non-toxic side effect

92
Q

what component in paclitaxel causes hypersensitivity reactions

A

Cremophor EL

93
Q

What premedication is given with paclitaxel to prevent hypersensitivity reactions

A

Dexamethasone and histamine antagonist (chloramphenamine)

94
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms for resistance for paclitaxel

A
  1. Mutations in target protein tubulin which prevents binding.
  2. Overexpression of tubulin
  3. Pgp efflux
95
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cisplatin

A

Enters cells via passive diffusion and CTR1

  • aquation where Cl- ligands replaced with water (aqua-ligand displacement) and becomes positively charged. binding to to N7 guanine of DNA, where it forms intra-strand and inter-strand cross links (DNA is negatively charged and can bind to positively charged ligand complex) = preventing DNA replication and transcription (predominantly intra-strand)
96
Q

What is the dose limiting toxicity of cisplatin

A

Nephrotoxicity

97
Q

What are 3 toxicity of cisplatin(excluding nephrotoxicity)

A
  1. Ototoxicity(hearing loss)
  2. Peripheral neuropathy
  3. Bone marrow suppression
98
Q

What is the emesis risk for cisplatin

A

more than 70mg/m2 high emesis risk(90%+incidence)

less than 70mg/m2 moderate emesis risk (30-90% incidence)

99
Q

Cisplatin extravasation

100
Q

What is the supportive care for cisplatin

A

Pre and post IV fluids for hydration + Furosemide

Anti-emetics

101
Q

What monitoring is there for cisplatin

A
  1. CrCL + U & E
  2. LFT + Billirubin
  3. Hearing tests(Ototoxicity)
  4. FBC
    5.Signs of peripheral nueropathy
102
Q

4 resistance mechanisms for cisplatin

A
  1. Over expression of efflux pumps
  2. Impaired uptake
  3. NER – dna repair mechanism
  4. Anti-oxidant
103
Q

What is tamoxifen

A

A selective oestrogen receptor modulator

104
Q

When is oestrogen used

A

For ER+ breast cancers(Pre/post menopausal women)

Either pre or post debulking to prevent recurrence

105
Q

Tamoxifen MOA

A

Oestrogen stimulates proliferative signalling that enables cells to enter the mitosis especially in breast tissue. In ER+ breast cancers oestrogen causes uncontrolled proliferative signalling leading to tumour growth. Tamoxifen is structurally similar to estrogen, such that it can bind to the oestrogen receptor. However, it produces antagonistic effects, as it prevents endogenous estrogen from binding as a result, preventing proliferative signalling such that cells remain static cannot progress into the cell cycle.

106
Q

What phase does tamoxifen act

A

G0/ G1 phase

107
Q

What is DLT of tamoxifen

A

Does not have DLT

108
Q

What toxicities of tamoxifen

A

Hot flushes, irregular menses and discharge.
Thromboembolism(VTE and PE)
Increased risk of endometrial cancer(agonistic effects)

109
Q

Emesis risk of tamoxifen

A

Low(less than 10% incidence)

110
Q

Extravasation risk of tamoxifen

A

No risk as Oral

111
Q

Supportive therapy for tamoxifen

A

Regular breast screening
Stockings on flights
Hot flush/sweats - l/s advice like menopause
Vaginal dryness - non-hormonal lubricants
Mood swings - SNRIs

112
Q

Resistance mechanisms for tamoxifen

113
Q

What is herceptin

A

Humanised monoclonal antibody trastuzumab

114
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of action for herceptin

A

Binds to extracellular domain of HER2 receptor(receptor for epidermal growth factor which overexpressed in breast cancer cells)

  1. By binding to this, it inhibits receptor signalling pathways (MAPK and P13 and AKT pathways), preventing cell proliferation
  2. HER2 degradation via ubiquitination - Modification of protein which degrades HER2 (small protein ubiquitin binds to target protein)
  3. ADCC (antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity) –monoclonal antibody attracts immune cells (natural killer cells)
115
Q

What is the dose limiting toxicity of herceptin

A

Cardiotoxicity(Heart failure and LVEF)

LVEF must be above limit

116
Q

Why does herceptin cause cardiotoxicity

A

Down regulates neuregulin which maintains cardiac functioning

117
Q

What should monitor with herceptin

A

LVEF(baseline and before each cycle)

Signs of heart failure(SOB etc)

118
Q

3 Resistance mechanism to herceptin

A
  1. Intra-cellular alterations in HER downstream signalling (upregulation) i.e loss of the PTEN pathway which suppress the proliferative pathways. Thus more active P13K/AKT proliferative pathways –>tumour growth
  2. truncated HER-2 receptors(removal of extracellular domain such that Herceptin cannot bind)
  3. Elevating other tyrosine kinase receptors to activate downstream proliferative signalling pathways.
119
Q

What is gleevec

A

A tyrosine kinase inhibitior
Imatinib

120
Q

How does gleevec work

A

It works by binding to the ATP binding site of tyrosine kinase, which is important for the phosphorylation of tyrosine residues which initiates downstream signalling.

121
Q

What phase of the cell cycle does trastuzumab act G1 phase

A

Cellular arrest at the G1

122
Q

What is supportive therapy for imatinib

A

Adequate hydration and allopurinol 300mg OD to prevent tumour lysis syndrome

123
Q

3 resistance mechanisms to imatinib

A

Mutations in kinase domain of Bcr-ABl = drug cannot bind to it.

Overexpression of Bcr-Abl (BCR-ABL:drug ratio is altered, meaning that BCR-ABL can still stimulate signalling)

Increased efflux.